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HIGH-YIELD BOOK REVIEWERS > REMBE - PATHO > Flashcards

REMBE - PATHO Flashcards

1
Q

The disease that closely resembles tuberculosis both clinically and histologically is
a. Osteomyelitis
b. Nasopharyngitis
c. Erysipelas
d. Histoplasmosis

A

(D) Histoplasmosis is a fungus infection caused by chicken or bat droppings and causes lung infection.

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2
Q

All of the following are complications that may occur as a result of a fracture EXCEPT:
a. Infection
b. Volkmann’s ischemic contracture
C. Crush syndrome
d. Fat embolism

A

(C) it is a process of elimination, Crush syndrome is not a result; it is a compression that causes shock.

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3
Q

A malignant neoplasm of glandular epithelium is
a. Adenoma
b. Adenocarcinoma
c. Papilloma
d. Basal cell carcinoma

A

(B). the only carcinoma that has glandular arrangement.

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4
Q

which of the following neoplasm is malignant?
a. fibroma
b. chondroma
c. osteoma
d. neuroblastoma

A

(D) Only neuroblastoma is malignant; the others are benign.

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5
Q

A change from columnar epithelium to squamous epithelium may occur in chronic inflammations or vitamin A deficiency; this is called:
a. Metaplasia
b. Anaplasia
c. Neoplasia
d. Hyperplasia

A

(A) The word meta means change, which is the clue.

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6
Q

A condition in which the loss of cellular and organizational differentiation tends to parallel the degree of malignancy is
a. Metaplasia
b. Anaplasia
c. Neoplasia
d. Hyperplasia

A

(B) The other answers refer to growth of a cell.

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7
Q

The vitamin essential or important in callus production in fracture repair is
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin B1
d. Vitamin B12

A

(B) Vitamin C is necessary for wound healing and fracture.

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8
Q

Which of the following factors are pathogenetic of the edema resulting from congestive heart failure?
a. Decreased cardiac output
b. Increased blood supply to various organs and tissues
c. Increased excretion of sodium by the kidneys
d. Decreased blood volume and elevated venous pressure

A

(A) as the cardiac outpus is decreased, blood supply and excretion of sodium decreases and blood volume increases with elevated venous pressure.

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9
Q

A megaloblastic anemia that results from a deficiency of vitamin B12 is known as
a. Normocytic anemia
b. Macrocytic anemia
c. Microcytic anemia
d. Pernicious anemia

A

(D) this is a definition of pernicious anemia.

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10
Q

The lymphoid system is composed of all of the following EXCEPT
a. Bone marrow
b. Thymus
c. Liver
d. Spleen

A

(C) The liver is not involved in the lymph system.

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11
Q

All of the following are features of basophils EXCEPT
a. Common with most cells in connective tissue
b. Have cytoplasmic granules
c. Present in large numbers in exudate
d. Contain histamine and heparin

A

(C) They are present in small numbers in exudate.

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12
Q

In congestive heart disease, which of the following organs is most seriously affected due to the decreased blood supply that ensues?
a. Lungs
b. Kidneys
c. Intestines
d. Brain

A

(B) due to the function of the kidneys in regard to normal body function.

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13
Q

All of the following properties are generally associated with immunological reaction
EXCEPT
a. Memory
b. Self-recognition
c. Specificity
d. Forgetfulness

A

(D) forgetfulness is not associated with immunologic reaction.

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14
Q

A hemorrhagic condition in which the hemorrhages are small and punctate is referred to as
a. Purpura
b. Melena
c. Ecchymosis
d. Petechiae

A

(B) definition of this condition and its location.

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15
Q

A hemorrhage that is discrete and localized within a tissue is referred to as a
a. Hematoma
b. Hematuria
c. Hemoptysis
d. Hematemesis

A

(A) Definition of this condition according to its location.

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16
Q

In differentiating diabetes mellitus from diabetes insipidus, the latter condition
a. Is closely related to the former
b. Is associated with pituitary disease
c. Results from insulin deficiency
d. Is a disorder of carbohydrate metabolism

A

(B) Insipidus is associated with the pituitary gland while mellitus is associated with the pancreas.

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17
Q

Avitaminosis A or vitamin A deficiency in the diet leads to
a. Peripheral neuritis, a widespread edema, and myocardial weakness
b. Development of pernicious anemia
c. A decrease in the integrity of the endothelial lining of capillaries leading to petechia throughout the body
d. A degeneration of the epithelium of the respiratory and digestive tracts and certain glands

A

(D) Vitamin A deficiency affects the epithelium lining of various organs and tracts.

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18
Q

An upset in the mechanisms controlling fluid balance of a tissue produces edema. The basic cause of edema is
a. An increase in the permeability of the capillary endothelium
b. Decreased capillary blood pressure
c. Increased plasma colloidal osmotic pressure
d. Increased extravascular tissue pressure

A

(A) an increase in the hydrostatic pressure causes edema.

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19
Q

The condition of uremia results from renal insufficiency. Characteristics of this condition are
a. Anemia
b. High blood urea levels
c. High creatinine levels
d. Low nonprotein nitrogen levels

A

(A) It interferes with the normal blood flow and the interaction with the kidney.

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20
Q

Differentiate between heat stroke and heat exhaustion. The former condition is one in which
a. A high temperature overwhelms the body’s temperature
b. The skin is tepid
c. The skin is cold and clammy
d. The oral temperature is low

A

(A) Chief cause of heat stroke.

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21
Q

Inflammation is a local reaction in which the body attempts to remove some irritant that has been introduced into the tissues. This reaction or process may be caused by
a. Trauma, even though no bacteria are present
b. Acute infections resulting from the presence of bacteria
c. Frostbite
d. All of the above

A

(D) the answer is self-explanatory; all are correct.

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22
Q

Active hyperemia refers to an increased flow of arterial blood to a part as a result of arteriolar dilatation produced by
a. Nervous stimuli
b. Defective cardiac action
c. Pressure of tumor mass
d. Thrombosis of a vein

A

(A) This is produced by emotion or nervous stimuli.

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23
Q

Which of the following is a type of necrosis?
a. Lack of coagulation
b. Lack of liquefaction
c. Lack of caseation
d. Gangrene

A

(D) Necrosis is another term for dead tissue - the same as gangrene.

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24
Q

The characteristic cell type involved in a chronic inflammatory process is the
a. Eosinophil
b. Lymphocyte
c. Polymorphonuclear leukocyte
d. Mast cell

A

(B) these are the predominant cells in chronic inflammation, while eosinophils are present in acute inflammation.

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25
Q

The principal types of inflammatory processes are acute, chronic, and granulomatous.
a. A subvariety of an acute process
b. A subvariety of a chronic process
c. The result of trauma to bone
d. The result of trauma to soft tissue

A

(B) it is a chronic inflammation with a distinctive histologic appearance of mononuclear cells.

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26
Q

The symptoms of pulmonary infarction are characterized by
a. A sudden sharp chest pain
b. Hemoptysis
c. Tachycardia and dyspnea
d. All of the above

A

(D) Typical symptoms for an infarction.

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27
Q

In differentiating an organic disease from a functional disease, the lesions distinguishing an organic disease
a. May be microscopically observable
b. May be a temporary disturbance of function
c. May be symptomatic in the early stages
d. Always produce symptoms

A

(A) Organic diseases always can be observable microscopically while functional diseases are not.

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28
Q

An acute bacterial infection that is not dependent upon the presence of organisms in the blood is termed a
a. Bacteremia
b. Septicemia
c. Pyemia
d. Toxemia

A

(D) definition of toxemia - blood is not needed for circulation of it.

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29
Q

Hypertrophy of the left ventricle of the heart is associated with
a. Mitral stenosis
b. Hypotension
c. Pulmonary stenosis
d. Aortic stenosis

A

(D) This is prominent in arterial hypertension and aortic valce disease while the right ventricle is associated with pulmonary hypertension.

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30
Q

In differentiating a coup injury from a countercoup injury to the brain, the latter is
a. A type of contusion occurring directly beneath the area of impact
b. A type of contusion occurring directly opposite the point of impact
c. The result of a moving object that strikes the skull
d. The result of a crush syndrome

A

(B) A Coup is a stroke or blow; therefore, countercoup is one opposite of impact.

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31
Q

In differentiating an active hyperemia (or congestion) from a passive congestion, a passive congestion
a. Causes decreased circulation to a tissue or part
b. Causes an increased flow of arterial blood to a tissue or part
c. Leads to a decreased metabolic activity of the tissue or part
d. Is the result of an acute inflammatory process

A

(D) The only answer that deals with venous flow is in the case of acute inflammatory processes.

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32
Q

In differentiating between infectious hepatitis and serum hepatitis, the latter
a. Is acquired through the gastrointestinal tract
b. Is transmitted to the host via transfusion
c. Produces no liver changes
d. Has a shorted incubation period

A

(B) As the term implies, serum means blood. It is transmitted by transfusions.

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33
Q

One of the many complications occurring as a result of a fracture is Volkmann’s ischemic contracture. This condition
a. May occur after a fracture is sustained in the upper extremity
b. Is caused by an interference of the nerve supply because of the cast
c. Is the result of a deficient arterial blood supply
d. Is caused by an interference with the venous return

A

(D) ischemia is caused by interference of the venous system.

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34
Q

The neuroglia responsible for gliosis (filling the cranial defect resulting from trauma or infection) are
a. Microglia
b. Oligodendroglia
c. Astrocytes
d. Macrophages

A

(C) the glial cells are astrocytes; they can be differentiated by nuclear configuration.

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35
Q

Which of the following neoplasms are benign?
a. Fibrosarcoma
b. Adenocarcinoma
c. Microglia
d. Hemangioma

A

(D) the other answers are all carcinomas as their names imply.

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36
Q

Anemia characterized by a decrease in erythrocytes due to hemorrhage is
a. Macrocytic anemia
b. Hypochromic anemia
c. Microcytic anemia
d. Normocytic anemia

A

(D) the other anemias are the result of iron deficiency.

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37
Q

Which of the following conditions affect the lipoid structures of the body?
a. Wallerian degeneration
b. Fat necrosis
c. Intestinal lipodystrophy
d. Hyaline degeneration

A

(A) Wallerian degeneration affects peripheral nerves as a result of the demyelinating process.

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38
Q

Anemia characterized by a decreased concentration of hemoglobin is
a. Macrocytic anemia
b. Hypochromic anemia
c. Microcytic anemia
d. Normocytic anemia

A

(B) the answer is self-explanatory in the word hypo meaning less than normal.

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39
Q

Which of the following are NOT normal breakdown products of hemoglobin?
a. Hemosiderin
b. Hemetoidin
c. Bilirubin
d. Hematin

A

(D) It is brought about by the action of acids or alkalines on hemoglobin.

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40
Q

The clinical picture of right ventricular hypertrophy in congestive heart failure does NOT include which of the following?
a. Cyanosis
b. Ascites
c. Edema of lower extremities
d. Dyspnea

A

(D) It does not include shortness of breath as part of the symptoms.

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41
Q

A cardiovascular disorder that causes hypertrophy of the left ventricle is
a. Pulmonary hypertension
b. Systemic hypotension
c. Stenosis of the mitral valves
d. Stenosis of the aortic valves

A

(D) Narrowing of the aortic valve causes left ventricular hypertrophy; it also causes systemic hypertension.

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42
Q

Which of the following clinical features of congestive heart failure would NOT be attributable to right ventricular failure?
a. Peripheral edema (lower extremities, abdomen)
b. Congestion of liver
c. Increase in venous pressure
d. Pulmonary edema

A

(A) Left ventricular failure causes peripheral edema.

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43
Q

Which of the following factors are related to diabetes mellitus?
a. Disorder of carbohydrate metabolism
b. Associated with pituitary disease
c. Obesity is not a common feature
d. Hypoglycemia is present

A

(A) There is hyperglycemia present;
obesity is common and is a disorder of carbohydrate metabolism.

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44
Q

Epithelioid cells are common to all of the following EXCEPT
a. Common component of granulomatous inflammation
b. Walls off agents the body is not
c. Are altered macrophages
d. Are altered epithelial cells

A

(D) the function of the epithelloid cell is incorrect; epithelioid cells deal with regeneration.

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45
Q

All of the following are examples of humoral immunity EXCEPT
a. Antibody-mediated
b. Mediated by sensitized T lymphocytes
c. B lymphocytes involved
d. Induced by protein molecules

A

(B) Sensitized T lymphocytes are not a humoral immunity.

46
Q

Which of the following results are caused by a passive congestion to a tissue or part?
a. Increased circulation
b. Increased metabolism
c. Increased oxygen supply
d. Increased capillary permeability

A

(D) In addition there is decreased circulation, metabolism and oxygen supply while the capillary permeability is increased.

47
Q

Which of the following is an example of cellular immunity?
a. Antibody-mediated
b. Anaphylactic shoch after injection
c. Response probably immediate
d. Positive tuberculin skin test

A

(D) The body reacts to a foreign cell being injected into the body.

48
Q

Bronchiectasis may affect either a local area of the lungs or it may be generalized. It
a. Affets the lower lobes more commonly than the upper lobes
b. Affects the right lung more frequently than the left
c. Is a chronic bronchitis
d. Condition
e. Is an emphysematous condition

A

(A) Usually affects the lower lobes because it is usually associated with chronic bronchitis.

49
Q

The most frequent involvement for myocardial infarction is in the
a. Right ventricle
b. Left ventricle
c. Right atrium
d. Left atrium

A

(B) this is due to the occlusion of the left coronary artery.

50
Q

The most common type of intracranial bleeding due to trauma associated with the head is
a. Subdural hemorrhage
b. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
c. Intercranial
d. Extracranial

A

(B) This is due to the location of the subarachnoid arteries lying superficially in the subarachnoid space in the base of the brain.

51
Q

The most common cause of cerebral vascular accidents (stroke) is
a. Thrombosis
b. Hemorrhage
c. Aneurysm
d. Neoplasms

A

(A) thrombi are most common in adults because of sclerotic vessels.

52
Q

All of the following account for increases in blood vessel diameter and permeability
EXCEPT
a. Histamine
b. Plasma kinins
c. Corticosteroids
d. Prostaglandins

A

(C) Corticosteroid is a steroid produced by the adrenal cortex: if given orally it can produce edema.

53
Q

An antibody that can enhance phagocytosis and macrophages is
a. Hapten
b. Opsonin
c. Agglutinin
d. Precipitin

A

(B) It is a leukocyte promoting substances that enhance phagocytosis.

54
Q

A diet deficient in vitamin B2, riboflavin, causes
a. Beriberi
b. Scurvy
c. Cheilosis and eye lesions
d. Pernicious anemia

A

(C) Riboflavin is important in tissue respiration; skin lesions occur if the skin cannot breathe.

55
Q

In the process of coagulation, or clotting of blood, the platelets
a. Liberate thromboplastin, which neutralizes heparin
b. Activate thrombin from prothombin
c. Change fibrinogen to fibrin
d. enter into the reaction with calcium salts and prothrombin to form fibrinogen

A

(A) Thromboplastin is necessary for coagulation.

56
Q

an acute infectious process characterized by inflammation of the lymphatics of the skin is
a. impetigo
b. erysipelas
c. Frolich’s syndrome
d. Sarcoidosis

A

(B) Description of the disease erysipelas.

57
Q

In an inflammatory process, the body’s first line of defense - the first type of white blood cell to collect outside of blood vessels - is the
a. Polymorphonuclear leukocyte
b. Monocyte
c. Lymphocyte
d. Polymorphonuclear eosinophil

A

(A) Leukocytes are the name for white blood cells.

58
Q

The principal ion of extracellular fluids is
a. Potassium
b. Phosphate
c. Sodium
d. Chloride

A

(C) Sodium is present outside the cell and acts to retain fluid.

59
Q

As a result of disease. fluid may be formed in the pleural cavities. This fluid
a. May form as the result of an inflammation and is called a transudate
b. May result from back pressure in the veins and capillaries and is called an exudate
c. Comes from blood vessels, whether it is an exudate or transudate
d. Is thin and watery in empyema

A

(C) the fluid part of the exudate is largely plasma from the blood.

60
Q

The most chronic disease of the lungs is
a. Pulmonary tuberculosis
b. Emphysema
c. Asthma
d. Bronchiectasis

A

(B) Emphysema is a disease that develops over long period of time. The other diseases can be acute onset.

61
Q

All of the following are favorable conditions for a thrombosis EXCEPT
a. Venosis stasis
b. Increased blood platelets
c. Rough vessel lining
d. Decreased viscosity of the blood

A

(D) This is self-explanatory in that all the other answers are symptoms of thrombosis.

62
Q

A disease involving the aorta and its large branches is called
a. Monckeberg’s sclerosis
b. Arteriolosclerosis
c. Atherosclerosis
d. Arteriosclerosis

A

© affects the large blood vessels; the other disease affects the smaller blood vessels.

63
Q

A patient who is a weight-lifter has increased the size of the deltoid, biceps, and triceps muscles. This increase is known as
a. Hyperplasia
b. Hypertrophy
c. Hypotrophy
d. Hypermobility

A

(B) The word hypertrophy means large; it refers to muscle fibers and not number of cells as the word hyperplasia signifies.

64
Q

An individual with spontaneous attacks of wheezing and dyspnea is otherwise usually free of these symptoms. This patient very likely has
a. Chronic bronchitis
b. Acute bronchitis
c. Bronchial asthma
d. Pulmonary emphysema

A

(C) the symptoms are spontaneous which is typical of asthma and not continuous as in the outer pulmonary diseases.

65
Q

A pulmonary patient states he has a daily cough and increased sputum over the past few years. You would suspect this patient to have
a. Acute bronchitis
b. Chronic bronchitis
c. Pulmonarv emphysema
d. Bronchial asthma

A

(B) Chronic means that the disease has lasted over many years; in addition, the symptoms suggest bronchitis and not emphysema.

66
Q

An individual states he becomes short of breath and wheezes when he runs, mows the lown, or does other heavy work. What disease is he demonstrating?
a. Bronchial asthma
b. Chronic bronchitis
c. Pulmonary emphysema
d. Acute bronchitis

A

(C) the patient is stating that with an increased demand on his respiratory system, he experiences difficulty in breathing. These are classic symptoms of emphysema.

67
Q

All of the following are manifestations of atopic dermatitis EXCEPT
a. Bronchial asthma
b. Allergic eczematous
c. Allergic rhinitis
d. Hay fever

A

(B) A process of determining which is not a manifestation. Manifestation is a symptom of an illness and allergic reactions. May not be a symptom of a disease.

68
Q

All of the following are sites of metastasis of Hodgkin’s disease EXCEPT
a. Lymph nodes
b. Liver
c. Spleen
d. Lungs

A

(D) This disease does not spread from the lungs since it is a disease of th lymph system.

69
Q

All of the following are reactions caused by leukemia EXCEPT
a. Growth of cells in abnormal areas
b. Destruction of bone marrow
c. Production of abnormal protein
d. Increased metabolic rate

A

(C) Protein is not affected by the diease leukemia which is a blood disease.

70
Q

Hemophilia is usually transmitted from an affected male through which member of his family?
a. Son
b. Daughter
c. Grandson
d. Granddaughter

A

(B) it is a sex-linked disease through the female of the immediate family.

71
Q

Following cell injury by a pathogenic bacteria, what reaction can be expected in the host?
a. Death reaction
b. A necrotic reaction
c. A sterile reaction
d. An acute inflammatory reaction

A

(D) the host reacts with the vascular system to deliver the cells to neutralize the offending agent.

72
Q

All of the following cells are capable of regenerating following necrosis EXCEPT
a. Myocardial
b. Epithelial
c. Lymphoid
d. Neurons

A

(D) A neuron is not a type of cell that regenerates. It lies within the nervous system.

73
Q

When comparing healing by first intention to healing by secondary intention, one would expect all of the following to occur EXCEPT
a. Less scarring
b. Greater amount of exudate
c. Process to be completed in a longer time
d. More granulation tissue

A

(A) a secondary intention has more and larger scarring than the first intention. All the other answers reflect secondary intentions.

74
Q

In evaluating an acute inflammation, which of the following signs would be present?
a. Calor
b. Rigor
c. Algor
d. Algae

A

(A) there is always heat or color in all acute inflammations since it means inflamed or heat.

75
Q

Increased vascular permeability as a result of inflammation includes which of the following?
a. Heat
b. Coolness
c. Swelling
d. Redness

A

(C) swelling is produced by increased vascular permeability with the transfer of fluids.

76
Q

All of the following are systemic manifestations associated with inflammation EXCEPT
a. Leukocytosis
b. Malaise
c. Fever
d. Agranulocytosis

A

(D) Agranulocytosis has nothing to do with inflammation, but instead deals with leukopenia.

77
Q

In chronic inflammation, which of the following cells are LEAST likely to be found in large members?
a. Lymphocytes
b. Neutrophils
c. Fibroblasts
d. Macrophages

A

(B) This is chronic inflammation; the other answers are found in acute inflammation.

78
Q

All of the following statements apply to cystic fibrosis EXCEPT
a. It is a familial disease, the defect transmitted as an autosomal recessive gene
b. It results in a mucoviscidosis of the glands of the trachea and bronchi only
c. It involves the pancreas
d. It may eventually involve the liver, resulting in cirrhosis

A

(B) the mucus is not produced by the glands of the trachea and bronchi only, but also the pancreas.

79
Q

Which of the following conditions may lead to renal failure due to anoxic necrosis?
a. Shock
b. Trauma
c. Incompatible blood transfusion
d. All of the above

A

(D) all of the answers are correct since renal failure causes all of these.

80
Q
  1. A portion or all of a lung that is collapsed and airless
A

D. Atelectasis

81
Q
  1. Conditions in which pathological changes occur in lung tissue as a result of particulate matter being inhaled
A

F. Pneumoconiosis

82
Q
  1. Characterized by paroxysmal episodes of dyspnea and difficulty in expiration
A

A. Asthma

83
Q
  1. Overdistention of alveolar spaces
A

C. Emphysema

84
Q
  1. Bronchial dilatation associated frequently with suppuration
A

B. Bronchiectasis

85
Q
  1. Condition of newborn infants
A

E. Hyaline membrane disease

86
Q
  1. A physiological closure of vessels as, for instance, the arteries of the uterus following menopause; the ductus arteriosus following birth
A

C. Endarteritis obliterans

87
Q
  1. Angiospastic disorder affecting fingers
A

B. Raynaud’s disease

88
Q
  1. Coagulation of blood in normal veins
A

E. Phlebothrombosis

89
Q
  1. Involves arteries and veins of lower extremities leading to inflammation, venous thrombosis, and ischemia of feet
A

A. Thromboangitis obliterans

90
Q
  1. Thrombosis of a vein secondary to an inflammation
A

F. Thrombophlebitis

91
Q
  1. Inflammatory disorder affecting medium-sized arteries, usually in conjunction with a hypersensitivity reaction
A

D. Polyarteritis nodosa

92
Q
  1. Increase in size of individual cells or fibers resulting in organ enlargement
A
93
Q
  1. The complete lack of an organ or part due to the failure of development of the anlage of the organ or part
A

A. Agenesis

94
Q
  1. An increase in the number of cells of a part or structure
A

D. Hyperplasia

95
Q
  1. Failure of development of a part or organ
A

B. Aplasia

96
Q
  1. Reduction in the size of a structure
A

F. Atrophy

97
Q
  1. Incomplete development of a part or organ
A

C. Hypoplasia

98
Q
  1. Failure of kidneys to produce urine
A

D. Anuria

99
Q
  1. Increase in the volume of the urine
A

F. Diuresis

100
Q
  1. Decreased urine production
A

C. Oliguria

101
Q
  1. Inflammation of the gallbladder
A

A. Cholecystitis

102
Q
  1. Presence of erythrocytes in the urine
A

E. Hematuria

103
Q
  1. Formation of gallstones in the billary tract
A

B. Cholelithiasis

104
Q
  1. A raised skin lesion
A

D. Papule

105
Q
  1. Localized, scaly thickened skin
A

B. Keratosis

106
Q
  1. Elevated, rough, warty lesion
A

E. Verruca

107
Q
  1. Large blister
A

A. Bulla

108
Q
  1. Flat lesion; may be red or brown
A

C. Macule

109
Q
  1. Small blister
A

F. Vesicle

110
Q
  1. A skin lesion with a firm, sharply circumscribed plateau
A

G. Wheal

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