12/06 Flashcards

1
Q

PDA

A

left subclavicular thrill
continuous ‘machinery’ murmur
large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse
wide pulse pressure
heaving apex beat

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2
Q

school entry hearing test

A

pure tone audiometry

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3
Q

newborn hearing test

A

otoacoustic emission test

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4
Q

test if otoacoustic emission test is abnormal

A

Auditory Brainstem Response test

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5
Q

which LFT can be abnormal in pregnancy normally

A

ALP

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6
Q

SIADH drug causes

A

carbamazepine, sulfonylureas, SSRIs, tricyclics

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7
Q

hypokalaemia drug causes

A

thiazide and loop diuretics

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8
Q

which types of HPV -> cervical cancer

A

16 18 and 33

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9
Q

diarrhoea confusion and eczematous skin

A

vit A deficiency (niacin) -> pellagra

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10
Q

aortic regurgitation murmur

A

early diastolic murmur - intensity increased by handgrip

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11
Q

aortic regurgitation pulse

A

collapsing pulse
wide pulse pressure

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12
Q

aortic stenosis murmur

A

ejection systolic that radiates to carotids and is decreased with valsalva manouvre

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13
Q

aortic stenosis pulse

A

narrow pulse pressure
slow rising pulse

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14
Q

aortic regurgitation unique signs

A

Quincke’s sign (nailbed pulsation)
De Musset’s sign (head bobbing)

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15
Q

aortic stenosis severe

A

soft/absent S2
S4
thrill

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16
Q

aortic stenosis consequence

A

left ventricular hypertrophy or failure

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17
Q

mitral stenosis cause

A

rheumatic fever

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18
Q

symptoms of mitral stenosis

A

haemoptysis
dyspnoea

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19
Q

mitral stenosis murmur

A

mid-late diastolic murmur best heard in expiration

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20
Q

mitral stenosis heart sounds

A

loud S1
opening snap

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21
Q

mitral stenosis pulse

A

low volume

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22
Q

mitral stenosis consequences

A

malar flush
atrial fibrillation
L atrial enlargement on CXR

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23
Q

mitral regurgitation murmur

A

pansytolic ‘blowing’ murmur best heard at the apex and radiating to the axilla

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24
Q

mitral regurg symptoms

A

usually asymptomatic
symptoms due to L ventricular failure eg fatigue, SOB, oedema

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25
Q

mitral regurg heart sounds

A

quiet S1
widely split S2

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26
Q

most common complication following meningitis

A

sensorineural hearing loss

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27
Q

wilsons disease findings

A

reduced serum caeruloplasmin
reduced total serum copper (free copper inc)
inc 24 hr copper excretion

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28
Q

typical iron study profile in haemachromatosis

A

inc transferrin saturation
raised ferritin and iron
low TIBC

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29
Q

haemochromatosis monitoring

A

ferritin and transferring saturation

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30
Q

T2DM BP target

A

(same as normal) clinic 140/90, ABPM 135/80

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31
Q

CKD BP target

A

clinic 130/80

32
Q

T1DM BP target

A

clinic 135/80

33
Q

worsening renal function and muddy brown casts

A

acute tubular necrosis

34
Q

most likely origin of spinal mets

A

breast / prostate
lung

35
Q

tx of ramsay hunt syndrome

A

oral aciclovir for 7 days and oral pred for 5 days

36
Q

drug causes of ED

A

beta blockers
SSRIs

37
Q

abx for acne

A

oxytetracycline

38
Q

egg on string appearance

A

transposition of the great arteries

39
Q

neck of fibular fracture injury

A

peroneal nerve

40
Q

small bowel obstruction tx

A

conservative - fluid resus and NG tube insertion to decompress gut by aspiration

41
Q

remember in palliative care, breakthrough dose should be 1/6th of overall dose

A
42
Q

mixed growth in urinary specimen

A

contamination

43
Q

antimitochondrial antibodies

A

primary biliary cirrhosis

44
Q

primary biliary cirrhosis tx

A

ursodeoxycholic acid

45
Q

brown sputum

A

strep pneumoniae

46
Q

aura before seizure

A

temporal lobe

47
Q

parkland formula (burns resus, crystalloid only eg hartmanns)

A

Total fluid requirement in 24 hours =
4 ml x (total burn surface area (%)) x (body weight (kg))

48
Q

anorexia biochem

A

most things low
G’s and C’s raised: growth hormone, glucose, salivary glands, cortisol, cholesterol, carotinaemia

49
Q

+ve dix hallpike manouvre (BPPV)

A

rotatory nystagmus

50
Q

AAA 3 - 4.4 cm

A

rescan every 12 months

51
Q

AAA 4.5-5.4cm

A

rescan every 3 months

52
Q

AAA >5.5

A

refer for 2 week vascular surgery

53
Q

NIV in COPD indication

A

acidosis persists despite max med therapy eg PaCO2>6kPa, pH <7.35 ≥7.26)

54
Q

identical twin

A

isograft

55
Q

graft from own body

A

autograft

56
Q

related but not genetically identical

A

allograft

57
Q

transplant from another species

A

xenograft

58
Q

sickle cell
sudden anaemia and low reticulocyte count

A

parvovirus

59
Q

sickle cell
sudden anaemia and high reticulocyte count

A

haemolysis or acute sequestration

60
Q

LMWH monitoring

A

factor xa levels

61
Q

LMWH monitoring

A

factor xa levels

62
Q

which analgesia can -> serotonin syndrome eg in pts already taking anti-depressants

A

tramadol

63
Q

visual loss macular degeneration

A

peripheral

64
Q

prolactinoma tx

A

dopamine agonists eg bromocriptine

65
Q

prophylaxis abx in pts who have had SBP

A

ciprofloxacin or norfloxacin

66
Q

renal failure, sensorineural hearing loss and ocular abnormalities develop in a child

A

alport syndrome

67
Q

when to thrombolyse in PE

A

hypotension

68
Q

menieres attack prevention

A

betahistine

69
Q

eisenmenger’s

A

the reversal of a L to R shunt

70
Q

suspected acute limb ischaemia tx

A

handheld doppler

71
Q

pt anaemia at pre-op

A

transfusion before surgery (iv iron not fast enough)

72
Q

most common lung cancer in non smokers

A

adenocarcinoma

73
Q

eczema herpeticum tx

A

IV aciclovir

74
Q

liver transplantation criteria in paracetamol overdose

A

pH < 7.3 more than 24 hours after ingestion

75
Q

features suggestive of pneumonia with deranged liver function tests and/or hyponatraemia and/or lymphopenia

A

legionella pneumophilia

76
Q

treatment of primary hyperaldosteronism

A

spironolactone

77
Q

clue cells

A

BV