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AIRBUS A320 > FLIGHTCONTROLS > Flashcards

FLIGHTCONTROLS Flashcards

1
Q

Unlike a conventional aircraft, what are you commanding in roll and pitch with the side stick?

A

Roll rate in bank
G load in Pitch (Load factor demand)

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2
Q

How can you disconnect the autopilot?

A

By using the A/P disconnect button or by applying enough force to the side stick

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3
Q

What actions that are done by the autopilot, is not fed back or felt through the rudder pedals?

A
  • Turn co-ordination
  • Automatic Rudder trim
  • Yaw damping
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4
Q

What actions are felt through the rudder pedals?

A

Manual trim inputs

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5
Q

How many spoilers does the A320 have and what are their functions?

A

10 in total, 5 per wing
They are used for: Speed brakes, Roll Spoilers and Ground Spoilers

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6
Q

What spoilers are used as Speed Brakes?

A

Spoilers 2,3,4

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7
Q

What spoilers are used as Roll Spoilers

A

Spoilers 2,3,4,5

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8
Q

What spoilers are used as Ground Spoilers?

A

All 5 per wing are used as Ground Spoilers

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9
Q

What does an Amber SPEED BRAKE message mean?

A

Engine is above idle

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10
Q

How do you arm the Ground Spoilers?

A

By pulling up the speed brake lever until you see the GND SPLRS ARMED message and you can see the white band around the base of the lever

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11
Q

When will the Ground Spoilers deploy during an RTO?

A

When armed: Above 72 kts + engines at idle
Not armed: Above 72 kts + reverse thrust engaged

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12
Q

How does the flaps/slats move with the different settings?

A

Pos 1: Slats(18) and Flaps(10) move when on the ground.
Pos 2: Slats (22)and Flaps(15) move
Pos 3: Flaps(20) move
FULL: Slats(27) and Flaps(35) move

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13
Q

After speed brakes are auto retracted due to use of TOGA power, how can you regain control over them again?

A
  • Reduce power
  • Lever to retract, then wait 10 seconds
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14
Q

When will auto spoilers deploy on landing?

A

Armed spoilers: Both main wheels on the ground + idle power
Not armed: Both main wheels on the ground + reverse thrust selected

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15
Q

When will partial spoilers deploy and why?

A

When one gear is compressed spoilers will partially deploy to reduce lift and get the other wheel on the ground. Then full spoilers will deploy

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16
Q

When will spoilers auto retract on landing?

A

Thrust above idle or spoilers are disarmed

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17
Q

How many flight computers does the A320 have?

A

7 in total
2 ELAC
3 SEC
2 FAC

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18
Q

What does the ELACs control?

A
  • Elevator
  • Ailerons
  • THS
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19
Q

What does the SECs control?

A
  • Spoilers
  • Elevator (standby)
  • THS (standby)
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20
Q

What does the SECs control?

A
  • Spoilers
  • Elevator (standby)
  • THS (standby)
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21
Q

What does the FACs control?

A

The rudder

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22
Q

In the event of a complete electrical failure, what surfaces have a mechanical backup?

A
  • Rudder
  • THS
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23
Q

How are the Slats/Flaps controlled?

A

By 2 SFCC (slat flap control computers)
Each SFCC has two channels

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24
Q

What happens to the ailerons max deflection with Flaps Down?

A

Max deflection is reduced

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25
Q

During pre-flight, the slat/flap surfaces are not in the commanded position. What do you do?

A

Don’t move the lever, contact maintenance

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26
Q

In NORMAL LAW, how is sidestick control different on the ground?

A

Control surfaces react proportionally to sidestick movement, just like a conventional aircraft

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27
Q

When is Ground Mode changed to Flight Mode for the flight controls?

A

During 10 seconds after take-off

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28
Q

When will the flaps automatically retract?

A

At 210 kts to prevent overspeed that occurs at 215 kts. Slats will not retract

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29
Q

What are you requesting when moving the sidestick to the neutral position?

A

1 G load. Basically to keep the new trajectory demanded

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30
Q

When does the THS engage after a pitch command is given?

A

When you release the sidestick the THS moves the elevator to center the elevators in relation to the THS

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31
Q

What are maximum elevator deflection?

A

+30 UP/-17 DN

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32
Q

What are the load factor protection limit?

A

Clean: +2,5g to -1.0g
Dirty: +2,0 to 0,0g

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33
Q

What are the attitude protection limits?

A

+30 deg nose up and -15 deg nose down

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34
Q

What is the high speed protection limit and what happens there?

A

The green “=” is where protection is activated. Vmo+6 kts
Auto pilot disengages
Pitch up command is given by the flight computers.
Max bank angle is 45 deg
If stick is neutralized, wings are rolled level

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35
Q

What protection has the highest priority in NORMAL LAW?

A

AOA protection

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36
Q

What is Vls?

A

Lowest speed that the FD:s will allow with A/T engaged

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37
Q

What is Va prot and what happens when it’s triggered?

A

Lowest speed with no A/T
Stick commands AOA instead of load factor
Auto trim stops
Nose up trim inhibited
A/P disengages
Bank angel max 45 deg
Speed brakes auto retract

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38
Q

What is Va max and what happens when it’s triggered?

A

If pilot overrides Va prot, speed can reduce to Va max. Computers will keep Va max regardless of if stick input is fully aft
If pilot releases stick at Va max, speed will return to Va prot

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39
Q

How do you know that the aircraft is in NORMAL LAW?

A

You can see the little green tick marks for bank angle and pitch and overspeed

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40
Q

What happens to pitch control at Va prot?

A

Changes from load factor command to AOA command

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41
Q

Can you force the plane to Alpha floor with use of side stick aft movement?

A

Yes, by holding it aft

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42
Q

What is Alpha floor?

A

When Va max is reached, Alpha floor kicks in. A/T comes alive and engine goes into TO/GA

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43
Q

When encountering turbulence during a turn, will autoflight return to the commanded bank angle?

A

No, cause you are not controlling bank angle, you are controlling roll rate. Therefore you must counter any roll change when external factors changes your trajectory

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44
Q

What is the max roll rate in NORMAL LAW?

A

15 deg/sec

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45
Q

Up to what bank angle will the system hold the roll attitude, if side stick is released in NORMAL LAW?

A

Up to 33 degrees AOB

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46
Q

What is the max angle of bank?

A

67 degrees

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47
Q

Beyond what roll limit is back pressure required?

A

Beyond 33 degrees AOB

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48
Q

What happens if sidestick is released between 33-67 degrees AOB?

A

Aircraft returns to 33 degrees AOB

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49
Q

What computers are involved with turn co-ordination?

A

ELAC and FAC

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50
Q

What flight control surfaces have cable driven back-up?

A

Rudder and Elevator/THS

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51
Q

When is the landing memo displayed on the E/WD panel?

A

From 2000 ft AGL

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52
Q

When is FLARE MODE activated?

A

At 50 ft AGL

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53
Q

What happens in FLARE MODE at 30 ft?

A

A slight forward pressure is introduced to 2 deg nose down over a period of 8 seconds so the pilot has to put in back pressure and flare

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54
Q

What are the protections in NORMAL LAW?

A
  • Load factor
  • Attitude
  • AOA
  • High speed
  • Bank Angle
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55
Q

What is the only protection in ALTERNATE LAW?

A

Load factor protection
AOA and HIgh speed protection can be replaced by speed stabilities

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56
Q

How is speed stability (ALT LAW) different then Speed Protection?

A

Speed stability can be overridden where as protection can’t

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57
Q

Is Alpha floor protection available in ALTERNATE LAW?

A

No

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58
Q

How is sidestick inputs different in ALTERNATE LAW?

A

Pitch is the same load factor demand but Roll is now changed to direct control like a conventional aircraft.

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59
Q

What is the roll rate in ALTERNATE LAW?

A

30 deg/sec. It doubles from NORMAL LAW

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60
Q

How do you know the aircraft is in ALTERNATE LAW?

A

The green tick marks are replaced by amber tick marks

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61
Q

What happens to max rudder deflection when entering into ALTERNATE LAW?

A

They maintain last position before failure. When slats extends, max rudder deflection is available

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62
Q

When would DIRECT LAW be active?

A

In ALTERNATE LAW with gear down

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63
Q

Are there any protections available in DIRECT LAW?

A

No

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64
Q

How would you know that you are in DIRECT LAW?

A

“USE MAN PITCH TRIM” would be annunciated on the PFD as Auto Trim is lost

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65
Q

Would you have turn co-ordination and yaw damping in DIRECT MODE?

A

No

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66
Q

What is ABNORMAL ATTITUDE LAW and how is the aircraft controlled in the different axis?

A

Aircraft operates in ALTERNATE LAW without protections or stabilities.
* Pitch is alternate with no autotrim
* Yaw is direct
* Roll is direct

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67
Q

What happens to control of the different axis after a recovery in ABNORMAL ATTITUDE LAW?

A
  • Pitch remains in ALTERNATE LAW
  • Yaw is ALTERNATE
  • Roll is DIRECT
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68
Q

If both ELAC:s fail, how will roll be controlled?

A

By roll spoilers only

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69
Q

What different MODES or operation do we have in NORMAL LAW?

A
  • Ground mode
  • Flight mode
  • Flare mode
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70
Q

How does the control surfaces move in Ground Mode in NORMAL LAW?

A

Proportional movement to sidestick input

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71
Q

What are the elevator movement limits in Ground Mode in NORMAL LAW?

A

30 deg UP and 15 deg down
Changes to 20 deg UP and 15 deg down at 70 kts

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72
Q

What is inhibited at more than a 33 deg bank angle?

A

Auto pitch trim

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73
Q

What are the pitch attitude limits with different flap configurations?

A

Config 0-3 : 30 deg UP, 25 deg at low speed
Full: 25 deg UP, 20 deg at low speed
Max 15 deg DOWN at all configurations

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74
Q

What is the lowest achievable speed with the sidestick fully aft?

A

V alpha max

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75
Q

What does sidestick movement command below Va prot?

A

It commands AOA directly

76
Q

When is high speed protection activated?

A

At or above VMO +6 kts or MMO +0.01

77
Q

What happens if, at Va Max, the sidestick is released to neutral?

A

AOA returns to Alpha prot and stays there

78
Q

What happens to the THS if high speed protection is activated?

A

THS setting is limited between the setting at the aircrafts entry into this protection and 11 deg nose UP

79
Q

What happens if, in high speed protection, the sidestick is pushed forward?

A

Aircraft would accelerate to Vmo +30 or MMO +0.07 when nose would come up and decelerate to Vmo+16 or MMO +0.04

80
Q

What happens to the FD if more than 45 deg AOB is applied?

A

A/P disconnects and the F/D bars disappear. The F/D will return when AOB decreases to less than 40 deg

81
Q

What is the maximum AOB in High Speed Protection and Alpha Protection?

A

High Speed: 40 deg AOB
Alpha prot: 45 deg AOB

82
Q

Is Alpha Floor protection available in ALTERNATE LAW?

A

No, but you will get aural stallwarning

83
Q

What protections do we have in DIRECT LAW?

A

No protections
You do have Aural Stallwarning and Overspeed Warning

84
Q

Are stabilities always available for the flightcontrol ALTERNATE LAW?

A

No, it depends on the failures

85
Q

In ALTERNATE LAW, alpha protection is lost. What replaces it?

A

Artificial low speed stability replaces NORMAL LAW protections.

86
Q

What is Vsw and what happens there?

A

V stall warning in ALTERNATE LAW.
Is at the top of barbers pole
Audio stall warning (crickets+stall) is activated at an appropriate margin from the actual stall

87
Q

Can the pilots override the high speed stability in ALTERNATE LAW?

A

Yes

88
Q

What happens if sidestick priority button is pressed and held?

A

It deactivates the other sidestick

89
Q

What does the other pilot see when you take over his sidestick?

A

A red arrow pointing to the pilot having control

90
Q

If your side stick control has been taken over by the other pilot, what happens if you try to move your sidestick?

A

A green CAPT/FO light illuminates on the side of the pilot that have control

91
Q

How long do you have to hold the sidestick priority button to lock the priority?

A

40 sec or more

92
Q

What happens if both sidesticks are moved at the same time?

A

Inputs are added up algebraically, but not more than the max input of one sidestick
A voice message: DUAL INPUT is heard

93
Q

What happens to sidestick priority is both pilots press the sidestick at almost the same time?

A

Whoever press the button last will get priority

94
Q

How is a deactivated sidestick re-activated again?

A

Pressing the takeover push button on either stick

95
Q

What is a SFCC and how many do we have?

A

Slat Flap Control Computer
We have two of them

96
Q

How many channels are there in each SFCC?

A

2 channels. One slat channel and one flap channel

97
Q

What happens if both channels in one SFCC fails?

A

Slats and Flaps both operates at 1/2 speed

98
Q

What causes a Wing Tip Brake to activate?

A

Activated in case of asymmetry, mechanism overspeed and uncommanded movement.

99
Q

How is Wing Tip Brakes de-activated?

A

On the ground by an engineer

100
Q

Does the Slats and Flaps have separate Wing Tip Brakes?

A

Yes

101
Q

Is there any automatic slat retraction function?

A

No

102
Q

What surfaces are moving with a flap selection to Config 1 on ground and in the air?

A

On ground they move to 1+F
In the air they move the slats

103
Q

What is the effect of increasing airspeed on the sidestick/rudder pedals with the autopilot engaged?

A

Increases the forces to move them

104
Q

What is Vfe next?

A

Max speed to select the next stage of flaps

105
Q

What are the Flap speed configuration limits?

A

Config 1: 230
Config 1+F : 215
Config 2: 200
Config 3: 185
FULL: 177

106
Q

What is the maximum altitude for flap extension?

A

20’000 ft

107
Q

Can a pilot override the overspeed protection pitch-up moment at Vmo +6/Mmo +.01?

A

Yes, and then push it to Vmo +30 or Mmo +.07. Then pitch will bring it back to Vmo +16 / Mmo +.04

108
Q

Can you override the high or low stabilities in ALTERNATE LAW?

A

Yes

109
Q

If you’re in Pitch ALTERNATE LAW, what law would Roll be in?

A

DIRECT LAW

110
Q

How do you get into ABNORMAL LAW?

A

By exceeding approximately double the NORMAL LAW limits

111
Q

Can the aircraft be stalled in NORMAL LAW?

A

No

112
Q

How is the plane controlled in ABNORMAL LAW in Pitch, Yaw and Roll?

A

Pitch: Alternate Law
Yaw: Direct
Roll: Direct

113
Q

Will ABNORMAL LAW revert to DIRECT LAW when landing gear is extended?

A

No, because the ABNORMAL LAW retains the Flare Mode

114
Q

Can the aircraft be flown with loss of all flight control computers?

A

Yes, in MECHANICAL LAW

115
Q

How is the aircraft controlled in MECHANICAL BACK-UP LAW?

A

Pitch: Trim wheel
Yaw: Rudder
Roll: Asymmetric thrust

116
Q

What is the indication the you are in MECHANICAL BACK-UP LAW?

A

“USE MAN PITCH TRIM” on PFD

117
Q

What is the meaning of “USE MAN PITCH TRIM” message?

A

You are in DIRECT LAW

118
Q

What does the active ELAC control?

A

Aileron
Elevator
THS
It also functions as the primary flight computer and sends direction for roll to the SEC:s and rudder inputs to the FAC:s

119
Q

What does the FAC:s do?

A

Yaw damping
Turn co-ordination
Rudder limiting and rudder trim
Autothrust, alpha floor
Windshear protection
Low energy warning

120
Q

How many spoilers does the A320 have?

A

5 on each wing, so 10 in total

121
Q

Which spoilers are used as speed brakes?

A

The middle 3

122
Q

Which spoilers are used for roll control?

A

The outer 4

123
Q

Which spoilers are used as ground spoilers?

A

All 5

124
Q

What does the message “WING TIP BRK ON” mean?

A

A hydraulic device locks the flap in their present position

125
Q

Can the crew make a flight control input that will overstress the airplane in DIRECT LAW?

A

No, the protections won’t allow for that

126
Q

Which hydraulic systems drives the Flaps?

A

GREEN-YELLOW

127
Q

Which hydraulic systems drives the Slats?

A

GREEN and BLUE

128
Q

What is the function of the FCDC (Flight Control Data Concentrators)

A

They aquire data from the ELAC:s and SEC:s and sends it to the EIS (Electronic Instrument System) and the CFDS (Centralized Fault Display System)

129
Q

What is the maximum aileron deflection?

A

25 deg

130
Q

Will the ailerons droop with Flap extension and if so, by how much?

A

Yes they will droop by 5 deg

131
Q

If both FAC:s fail, what happens to the rudder limiter?

A

Limits are frozen, but can be regained when slats are extended

132
Q

Do you need any hydraulic power to control the rudder in MECHANICAL BACKUP LAW?

A

Yes, at least one hydraulic system has to be active

133
Q

Can autopilot be engaged if the rudder is significantly displaced?

A

No, it has to be trimmed to within limits before autopilot can be engaged?

134
Q

Which flight computer is the primary for elevator control?

A

ELAC:s

135
Q

Which flight control computer is secondary for elevator control?

A

SEC:s

136
Q

Is full rudder deflection available all the time?

A

No, rudder deflection is a function of airspeed

137
Q

Is there a trim tab on the rudder or does the whole rudder surface move as you trim?

A

There is no trim tab

138
Q

When rudder is trimming, will the rudder pedals move?

A

Yes

139
Q

Is there any rudder pedal feedback for yawdamping and turn co-ordination?

A

No

140
Q

Do you have sidestick position indication on the PFD all the time?

A

No, only on the ground. It will disappear when in Flight Mode

141
Q

What happens in the event of a single ELAC fault?

A

The other will take over

142
Q

Which hydraulic systems provides power to the rudder?

A

All 3

143
Q

Which hydraulic systems controls the elevator?

A

Left: GREEN and BLUE
Right: BLUE and YELLOW

144
Q

Can SEC nr 3 provide back up for a complete ELAC failure?

A

No, only 1 and 2 can do that

145
Q

Which hydraulic systems power the THS?

A

GREEN and YELLOW

146
Q

Which flight computer is primary/secondary for controling the THS.

A

Primary is ELAC nr 2 +1
Secondary is SEC 1 or 2

147
Q

What happens to roll control if both ELAC fails?

A

Aileron control is lost, there is no back up.
But the spoilers will continue to work as long as the SEC is working

148
Q

What hydraulic systems power the ailerons?

A

BLUE and GREEN on both sides.

149
Q

What hydraulic systems power the spoilers?

A

All 3, but each spoiler panel is controlled by only one system

150
Q

What is the maximum THS deflection?

A

13,5 deg UP
4 deg DN

151
Q

Does the rudder trim rotary switch function when the autopilot is engaged?

A

No

152
Q

How much is the rudder trim moving when holding the rudder trim rotary switch?

A

By one degree of rudder travel per second

153
Q

How fast will the rudder trim center when the RESET Pushbutton is pressed on the RUD TRIM Panel

A

By 1,5 deg/sec

154
Q

How are the flight control surfaces controlled and actuated?

A

Electrically controlled and Hydraulically actuated

155
Q

Can you move the PITCH trim wheel if all systems are working normally?

A

Yes, manual inputs have priority over computer inputs. Autopilot will disconnect

156
Q

What happens to the THS after landing?

A

It resets to zero

157
Q

When is automatic pitch trim available?

A

In flight under NORMAL LAW with bank angle less than 33 deg with or without autopilot engaged

158
Q

What does the rudder PEDAL DISC button on the steering hand wheel do?

A

Pressing the button removes control of the nose wheel steering from the rudder pedals until released

159
Q

When using the rudder pedals for steering, when does the steering angle begin to reduce?

A

Starts reduction at 40 kts and progressively reduces to zero at 130 kts

160
Q

When the WTB (Wing Tip Brake) activates due to a flap asymmetry can the slats still operate?

A

Yes, only flap operation is inhibited

161
Q

What happens to the ailerons when the flaps are extended?

A

The ailerons droop 5 degrees

162
Q

When would you press the FLAP MODE pushbutton?

A

To avoid nuisance warning when landing with flaps less than 3

163
Q

With spoilers not being armed, will they deploy for an RTO?

A

Yes, when at least one engine is in reverse

164
Q

What will happen to Vls and V-alpha Prot with speedbrakes extension?

A

Both will increase with more speedbrake deflection

165
Q

What happens to Vls, V-alpha Prot and Green Dot speed with an increase in bank angle?

A

V-alpha Prot increases due load factor increase
Vls and Green Dot stays the same as they are not a function of angle of attack

166
Q

What happens to V-alpha Prot during and EXP climb?

A

It increases

167
Q

What will happen to Auto Thrust when thrust lever is set to idle?

A

ATHR will disengage

168
Q

What happens to the Autopilot at V-alpha Prot?

A

It disengages

169
Q

When will ALPHA FLOOR engage?

A

Alpha Prot + 1 deg more AOA

170
Q

Which two flight control systems are backed up by all HYD SYSTEMS?

A

SPD BRAKE and RUDDER

171
Q

What hydraulic systems drives the WTB for flaps and slats?

A

Flaps WTB uses G+Y
Slats WTB uses G+B

172
Q

If the WTB for the slats are activated, can you use the flaps?

A

Yes, and vice versa

173
Q

What has to happen before the system will apply the WTB?

A

Both SFCCs has to agree about the problem

174
Q

What causes the FLT CTLS SD to appear automatically on taxi-out?

A

Sidestick >3degrees in pitch or roll, rudder >22degrees.

175
Q

What is the difference between centering the “ball” vs the beta target?

A

Centering the ball will achieve minimum sideslip while centering the beta target will minimize the total aircraft drag

176
Q

What will a centered beta target indicator achieve?

A

Best optimum climb performance

177
Q

Is manual rudder trim functioning with the auto pilot engaged?

A

No, that is why you have to trim before you engage the auto pilot when having an engine failure

178
Q

What is the maximum elevator deflection?

A

30 deg UP
17 deg DN

179
Q

Which computer primarily controls the ailerons?

A

ELAC 1 with ELAC 2 as stand-by

180
Q

Which computers controls the spoilers?

A

SEC3 controls SPLR 2
SEC1 controls SPLR 3+4
SEC 2 controls SPLR 5

181
Q

What happens to a spoiler which controlling SEC fails?

A

That spoiler automatically retracts

182
Q

When is rotation mode active

A

From 70 kts until 10 sec after lift-off

183
Q

At what pitch angle will the FDs disappear from the PFD?
When will they return?

A

Over 25 deg up and 13 deg down
Will return when pitch is back to 22 deg up and 10 deg down

184
Q

At what values does ABNORMAL ATTITUDE LAW become active?

A

Becomes active at:
Bank angles over 125 deg
Pitch is above 50 deg UP or 30 deg DN.
AOA over 40 deg
Mach over M0.91

185
Q

What happens when hi speed protection is reached?

A

Auto pilot disconnects
Wings roll level
Pitch up is induced that can be overridden

AIRBUS A320 (33 decks)

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