Chapter 56 - Musculoskeletal Infections and Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

what is the most common pathogen in septic arthritis in all age groups and risk categories with the exception of children <4yo?

A

staph aureus

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2
Q

What two groups are at higher risk of group B strep (strep agalactiae) septic arthritis?

A
  1. neonates
    2 elderly, infirm, DIABETICS
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3
Q

what are the most common gram negative cocci implicated in septic arthritis?

A

N. gonorrhoeae
N. meningitidis

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4
Q

what is arthritis-dermatitis syndrome?

A

triad of
1. dermatitis - small erythemtous papules that progress to pustules
2. tenosynovitis
3. migratory/additive poly-arthritis

2/2 N. gonorrhoeae infection

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5
Q

Gram stain for N. gonorrhoeae

A

PMNs with intracellular gram neg diplococci

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6
Q

at risk groups for GNR septic arthritis

A
  1. neonates
  2. IVDA
  3. elderly/immunocompromised
  4. diabetics
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7
Q

what bugs are IVDA patients susceptible to for septic arthritis

A
  1. staph is still the most common
  2. pseudomonas
  3. s. epi
  4. serratia
  5. polymicrobial
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8
Q

what bacteria is most causative for osteoarticular infections in kids between 6mo-4yr

A

Kingella Kingae
- slow growing, gram negative coccobacillus
- best isolated on blood culture media
- must hold specimen for two weeks
- PCR is best way to detect
- resistant to vanc/clinda
- tx with 2nd or 3rd gen cephalosporin

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9
Q

increased virulence with staph aureus is accomplished via:

A
  1. Protein A secretion - inactivated IgG
  2. Capsular Polysaccharide production - prevents opsonization and phagocytosis
  3. biofilm production
  4. PVL - panton valentine leukocidin - cytotoxin that lyses WBCs - increases DVT, PE, more common in community acquired MRSA
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10
Q

Characteristic posture of infants with septic arthritis of the hip

A

flexion, abduction, external rotation

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11
Q

kocher criteria

A

fever >101.3
refusal to bear weight
wbc >12k
ESR >40

if 3 are positive 93% incidence of septic arthritis
99.6% if 4/4

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12
Q

what are the intra-articular physes

A
  1. proximal femur
  2. proximal humerus
  3. proximal radius
  4. distal fibula
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13
Q

histopathology of acute osteomyelitis

A

replacement of fatty marrow by polymorphous field of PMNs, lymphocytes, and plasma cells

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14
Q

osteomyelitis on MRI

A

dark on t1
bright on t2 and stir

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15
Q

dosing for treatment of pediatric AHO

A

vancomycin 15mg/kg ever 6 hours

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16
Q

pearls for use of rifampin

A

should never be used as monotherapy - rapid resistance develops
- additive therapy for MSSA and MRSA
- excellent bone penetration and bactericidal

17
Q

C.diff infection is most likely to follow what antibiotic use?

A
  • gram positive, anaerobic, spore forming bacillus
  • most associated with prophylactic use of cefuroxime (second generation cephalosporin)
  • treat with oral vanc or fidaxomicin
18
Q

pearls with using vanc for surgical prophylaxis

A

should be given 2 hours prior to incision time 2/2 long infusion time

19
Q

what percent of the community is colonized with MRSA in their nares?

A

1%

20
Q

how to treat nares found to be colonized with MRSA

A
  • mupirocin ointment x 5 days pre-op
    or
  • betadine swab the morning of surgery
21
Q

indicators of malnutrition

A

serum albumin <3.5
transferrin <200
total lymphocyte count <1500
zinc ***

22
Q

independent risk factors for SSI

A
  • surgery >2hrs
  • hypothermia
    postoperative hyperglycemia >140
    HgbA1c >7
23
Q

each unit of allogenic transfusion increases the risk of SSI by how much?

A

9%