Assessment Quiz Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is a standardized, self-administered assessment of general mental ability that is frequently used in business settings and the NFL as an aptitude test for prospective employees/players?

A

Wonderlic Personnel Test (WPT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Intelligence test items assessing which of the following provide a measure of crystallized intelligence?

A

Language comprehension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following uses computer software to select behavioral statements for rating based on the rater’s previous responses?

A

Computerized Adaptive Rating Scales (CARS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which assessment measure of working memory and executive functioning, particularly inhibition, requires an examinee to move disks, one at a time, so that they end up in a particular goal configuration?

A

The Tower of London

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The Cattell-Horn-Carroll theory of cognitive abilities distinguishes between ___ broad abilities and over ___ narrow abilities.

A

10; 70

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In the context of the Rorschach test, form quality refers to:

A

the degree of congruence between the response and reality.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following instruments would be appropriate to assess the severity of stereotyped behaviors and communication impairment in a 4-year old?

A

GARS 2 (Gilliam Autism Rating Scale)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following is a multivariate data analysis method for finding the linear combination of variables that best describes the classification of groups into discrete categories?

A

Discriminant analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following are tests designed to assess the examinee’s potential for learning or their ability to perform in an area without specific training?

A

Aptitude tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

_______ is the degree to which an obtained measure of effect has a practical value or can guide clinical judgments.

A

Clinical significance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

____________ refers to the variability in amount and type of information derived from interviews with individuals.

A

Information variance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What refers to the degree to which test scores are free from the effects of measurement error?

A

Validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

: ____________ occurs when the validity coefficients and criterion performance for different groups are the same but their mean scores on the predictor differ.

A

Intercept bias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following measures an examinee’s reasoning abilities, is appropriate for students in grades K through 12, and is used to determine a student’s eligibility for placement in a gifted/talented program?

A

Cognitive Abilities Test (CogAT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test - 4th Edition (PPVT-4) measures which of the following?

A

Receptive vocabulary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The Kuder Occupational Interest Survey provides scores on:

A

College Major Scales

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When using Holland’s Self-Directed Search (SDS), the degree of match between an examinee’s expressed interests and measured interests are referred to as:

A

congruence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Curriculum-based measures are useful for:

A

monitoring a student’s progress to evaluate instructional effectiveness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Factor analyses have indicated that psychomotor skills:

A

Are highly independent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

____________ refers to how intact an individual’s physical sensory processes are to receiving and integrating information.

A

Sensorium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Computer-assisted administration and interpretation in neuropsychology have developed mainly in large organizational contexts and focuses on specialized problems. Specifically, ____________ has been used in the selection of airline pilots to quickly assess deficits or changes in attention, immediate- and short-term memory, visual perceptual functions, sequencing functions, logical problem-solving, calculation skills, reaction time, simultaneous information processing abilities, and executive functions.

A

CogScreen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A large number of tests are available for the early detection and diagnosis of dementia. Which of the following is widely used to measure behavioral disturbances experienced in those with dementia?

A

The Neuropsychiatric Inventory (NPI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

____________ tests are applied to assess the failure of inhibitory responses, or stimulus-boundedness—for example, asking a patient to tap twice in response to a single tap given by the examiner.

A

Go-No-Go

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the following scales on the MMPI-2 is a measure of consistency in responding and consists of paired items that would be expected to be answered in the same direction?

A

Variable Response Inconsistency (VRIN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The assumption that ambiguous and unstructured stimuli can elicit meaningful information about an examinee’s personality and underlying conflicts is termed:

A

Projective hypothesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The ____________ describes psychopathy as a constellation of interpersonal, affective, and behavioral characteristics.

A

Psychopathy Checklist-Revised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Common validity scale configurations on the MMPI-2 seen in clinical settings are determined using the L, F, and K scales. Which of the following configurations is characteristic of clients that admit to personal and emotional difficulties, request assistance with their problems, and are unsure of their own capabilities for dealing with their problems?

A

The L scale and the K scale are below a T score of 50, and the F scale is at or above a T score of 65.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Development of the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) was based on which of the following?

A

Theory of needs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which of the following is the tendency to be influenced by one’s knowledge about the world in evaluating conclusions and to accept them as true because they are believable rather than because they are logically valid?

A

Belief bias

30
Q

Which of the following occurs when two assessment instruments contain the same or semantically similar elements and the magnitude of shared variance between the two instruments overestimate the relation between the two constructs due to the overlapping items?

A

Item contamination

31
Q

_________ is a reduction in estimates of true covariance between measured constructs, usually as a result of measurement error, low reliability of measures, or a restricted range of obtained measures.

A

attenuation

32
Q

Which of the following measures the “Big Five” personality traits and is used to assess trait levels of anxiety and depression?

A

NEO Personality Inventory-R (NEO-PI-R)

33
Q

Which type of assessment focuses on inter-unit information that allows for comparison of a specific unit of analyses (e.g., teams, organizations) to data gathered from similar assessments across multiple units on an identified construct of interest (e.g., anxiety symptoms)?

A

Nomothetic assessment

34
Q

Traumatic brain injury (TBI) is likely to have the most detrimental effect on which of the following WAIS-IV Indexes?

A

PSI

35
Q

A high score on which of the following MMPI-2 scales indicates a high degree of defensiveness or denial, a desire to “fake good,” or responding “false” to all items and is associated with resistance and poor treatment prognosis?

A

K (correction)

Saying everything is “k” as in “okay”

36
Q

The primary investigator of a study utilizes a cross-sectional design to assess the effects of age on reaction time. The investigator asks adults belonging to different age groups to respond to visual stimuli on a computer screen. A colleague of the investigator suggests the results might be confounded because older participants may have less experience using computers than younger participants. This potential source of error is best described as a:

A

Cohort effect

37
Q

Raven’s Progressive Matrices are:

A

nonverbal measures of general intelligence

38
Q

An examinee whose highest clinical scale scores on the MMPI-2 are on scales ________ may have a history of alcohol and drug abuse, antisocial behavior, and/or sex offenses.

A

4 and 9

39
Q

When administering the Rorschach Inkblot Test, the purpose of the inquiry phase is to:

A

obtain information needed to score the test

40
Q

When an interest test yields ipsative scores, this means that scores indicate:

A

the relative strengths of an examinee’s interests

41
Q

According to Sternberg (1996), “successful intelligence” consists of:

A

three abilities (analytical, creative, and practical)

42
Q

A psychologist would use the Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE) to:

A

evaluate the cognitive functioning of an older adult

43
Q

When empirical criterion keying is used to develop a test, items chosen for inclusion are those that:

A

distinguish between preselected groups or subgroups

44
Q

Which of the following WAIS-IV indexes is least sensitive to (least adversely affected by) Alzheimer’s dementia?

A

Verbal Comprehension

45
Q

Which of the following methods was used to identify the “big five” personality traits?

A

Atheoretical lexical approach

46
Q

To determine if a predictor is biased against members of a particular group, you would compare:

A

the regression lines for the different groups (slope)

47
Q

The Occupational Scales of the Kuder Occupational Interest Survey:

A

provide information on the similarity of the examinees interests with those of satisfied workers in different occupations

48
Q

An examinee’s score on the Benton Visual Retention Test (BVRT) reflects their ability to:

A

reproduce geometric figures from memory

49
Q

Factor analyses of tests designed to measure psychomotor skills have found that these skills:

A

are relatively independent

50
Q

A person who received a Level IV rating on the Rancho Scale of Cognitive Functioning:

A

is confused and incoherent, may exhibit bizarre behavior, and is unable to care of themselves

51
Q

Which of the following is the best conclusion that can be drawn from the research comparing actuarial and clinical approaches to test score interpretation?

A

The actuarial method is more accurate than the clinical method.

52
Q

The Leiter-3 would be most useful for measuring the intelligence of:

A

children with hearing impairments

53
Q

The Slosson Intelligence Test - Revised 3rd Edition for Children and Adults was developed to be a:

A

screening test for crystallized intelligence

SIT - on a crystal throne

54
Q

The ____________ provides information on the four cognitive abilities identified by Luria (1980) - i.e., planning, attention, simultaneous processing, and sequential processing.

A

Cognitive Assessment System

PASS by CAS

55
Q

Administration of the ________________ involves asking the examinee to make up stories about pictures that include one or more human figures in order to obtain information about unconscious aspects of the examinee’s personality.

A

Thematic Apperception Test

56
Q

Development of which of the following personality tests was based on Murray’s 15 needs (e.g., achievement, autonomy, exhibitionism)?

A

EPPS

57
Q

Which of the following MMPI-2 scales is considered to be a “suppressor” variable?

A

K (Correction) Scale

58
Q

skills and knowledge derived from formal and informal education are referred to as

A

Crystallized intelligence

59
Q

The concordance rate for IQ for fraternal twins reared together is approximately:

A

0.58

60
Q

The Fagan Test of Intelligence assesses which of the following?

A

Selective attention to novel stimuli

61
Q

The Differential Aptitude Test (DAT) is used to:

A

assist in educational and career counseling for adolescents

62
Q

An examinee answers all items on the MMPI-2 randomly. This will produce which of the following score patterns?

A

A very high score on the F scale and elevated scores on most or all clinical scales

63
Q

Administration of the __________ involves two phases – the copy phase and the recall phase.

A

Bender-Gestalt

64
Q

Development of the Illinois Test of Psycholinguistic Abilities, Third Edition (ITPA-3) was based on:

A

Horn and Cattell’s fluid-crystallized theory

65
Q

The Embedded Figures Test is a measure of:

A

field dependence/independence

66
Q

The General Occupational Themes (GOT) scale of the current version of the Strong Interest Inventory provides information on which of the following?

A

Holland’s occupational themes

67
Q

A “general representative sample” was used to develop which of the following Strong Interest Inventory scales?

A

Occupational Scales

68
Q

To assess the reading, spelling, and arithmetic skills of an elementary-school child who may have a learning disability, you would use which of the following?

A

WRAT

69
Q

Research on the universality of the “Big Five” personality traits has generally found that the traits are cross-culturally valid. However, of the five traits, empirical evidence for the universality of __________ is least compelling.

A

Openness to experience

70
Q

High scores on Scales 1 and 3 of the MMPI with a low score on Scale 2 are most suggestive of which of the following?

A

somatoform disorder

71
Q

A child with Autism Spectrum Disorder would most likely obtain a higher score than a peer without autism on which of the following?

A

Embedded Figures Test