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ULTIMATE Military Compilation > FMFWO study guide > Flashcards

FMFWO study guide Flashcards

1
Q

Sergent John C Quick

A

Medal of Honor for semaphoning an emergency lift of the naval bombardment while under Spanish and American shellfire

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2
Q

Smedley D. Butler

A

Major General who got 2 Medals of Honor
- Veracruz
- First Caco War in Haiti.

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3
Q

Battle of Guadacanal

A

August 1942
- first US land offensive of WWII
- first combat test of the new amphibious doctrine
- cruicial turning point of the war in the Pacific by providing a base to launcher further invasions of Japnese held islands

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4
Q

Battle of Tarawa

A

Gilbert Islans were the first inteh line of advance fo rthe offensive in the Central Pacific
*Japanese said it would take a million Americans 100 years to conquor it
*1943- Marines secured the island in 76hrs
- extended reef so we had to load offshore - death from enemy fire and drowing

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5
Q

purpose of the Battle of Mariana Islands

A

Air Force needed airfields and Navy needed advanced bases

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6
Q

WWII battle involving Guam

A

Battle of Mariana Islands
- 1943
b/c Air Force needed airfields & Navy needed advanced bases

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7
Q

WWII battle on Saipan, Guam, & TInian

A

Battle of Mariana Islands
1943
for Air Force airstrips & Navy advanced bases

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8
Q

Battle of Bougainville

A

1943
to neutralize Rabaul, a hub for Japanese air power in the Pacific

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9
Q

WWII battle to neutralize Rabaul

A

Battle of Bougainville
1943
to neutrailze Rabaul, a Japanes air power

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10
Q

led the Landing at Inchon

A

1950
Major General Oliver P Smith

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11
Q

Oliver P. Smith

A

Major General
commanded the 1950 amphibious landing at Incheon

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12
Q

Battle of Chosin Reservior

A

1950
retrograde movement, brought out all operable equipment, properly evacuated their wounded/dead, maintained tactical integrity, and smashed seven of the 10 North Korean divisions sent to anhiliate them

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13
Q

Korean War movements involving Marines

A

1950
- Incheon amphibious landing w/Major General Oliver P. Smith
- retrograde movement w/preserved tactical integrity at Battle of Chosin Reservoir

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14
Q

2 Vietnam War battles involving Marines

A

Second Battle of Khe Sanh 1968
Battle of Hue City (Tet) 1968

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15
Q

Tet Offensive battle

A

Battle of Hue City 1968

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16
Q

what happened at the Battle of Hue City

A

1968
Vietnamese holiday of Tet, Communists launched a surprise offensive by infiltrating a large number of their troops into the major population centers of Hue City, South Vietnam
- first time the Marines fought in built up areas since Korean war
- house to house fightin

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17
Q

Battle of An-Nasiriya

A

2003
Nasiriya, Iraq
first large-scale battle fought by the US Marines in OPeration IRai Freedom

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18
Q

first large-scale battle fought by Marins in Operation Iraqi Freedom

A

Battle of An-Nasiriya
2003

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19
Q

sword of the Marine Corps

A

Mamelukes: elite muslim military force from northern Africa
Presley O
Bannen was prsented it during his Tripoli expedition

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20
Q

E-8

A

Master Sergent
First Sergent

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21
Q

E-9

A

Master Gunnery Sergent
Sergent Major
Sergent Major of the Marine Corp

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22
Q

O-4

A

Major

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23
Q

O-5

A

Lieutenant Colonel

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24
Q

O-6

A

COlonel

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25
Q

one star MC

A

Brigidier General

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26
Q

two star MC

A

Major General

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27
Q

three star MC

A

Lieutenant General

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28
Q

four start MC

A

General

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29
Q

Generals of the MC

A

O-7: Brigidier General
Major General
Lieutenant General
General
BMLG

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30
Q

difference between Marine Corp
roles
&
functions

A

roles: broad and enduring purposes Congress established by law for the Services

functions: specific responsibilities assigned to the Services by teh presient/SecDef to enable the Serivces to fulfill their legally established roles

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31
Q

source of the official mission of the Marine Corp

A

1952 Amendment tot he National Security Act of 1947

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32
Q

definition of a MARDIV

A

groudn force of combat and combat support units organized and equipped primarily for amphibous operations
- 3 infantry regiments
- 1 artillergy regiment
- combat support battalions

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33
Q

HQ of 3D MAW

A

Miramar, California

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34
Q

role of MLG

A

provides tactical logistics above the organic capability of supproted units to all elements of the unit, supply chain management and a link to operational and theatre level logitic agencies capable of supporting the MEF

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35
Q

key feature of the MAGTF

A

“expandability”
- able to expand the original force -rather than replacing it with a larger one- promotes continuity of operations

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36
Q

SPMAGTF

A

special-purpose MAGTF nonstanding MAGTF temporaily formed to conduct a specific mission.

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37
Q

PTP

A

Predeployment Trainign Plan

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38
Q

purpose of a MEU

A

embarked aboard an ARG, a deployed MEU gives PRez/SecDef/CCDR a quick sea-based reaction for a wide variety of situations.
- often first on the scene for crisis
- can conduct enabling actins for larger follow-on forces
- visible/credible presence in trouble spots & shows US commitment to protect interests abroad

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39
Q

GFMIG

A

Global Force Managemetn Implementation Guidance

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40
Q

Navy component of a MEU

A

PHIBRON: amphibious squadron
NSE: Navy Support Element
LHD/LHA, LPD, LSD

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41
Q

MEU Mission Esential Tasks

A

-Amphibious assault & raid
- MIO/VBSS
- Advance Force Operations

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42
Q

GCE of MEB

A

Regimental Landing Team

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43
Q

ACE of MEB

A

Marine Air Group

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44
Q

definition of a MEF

A

priniciple warfighting organization of the Marien Corp, capable of conducting and sustaining expeditioanry oeprations in any geographic evnvironmetn

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45
Q

what does the Maritime Prepositioning Force consist of

A

MPSRON (marintime prepositioning ship squadron)
NSE (navy support element)
MAGTF FIE (fly0in eschelon)

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46
Q

number of days of supplies a MPSRON carries

A

Maritime PRpositioning Ships Squadron carries equipment/supplies for 30 days of comabt ops by a MEB

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47
Q

inherent risk

A

risk is inherent in every phase of tasking, missions, and operations due to today’s complex and dynamic enviornment

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48
Q

4 basic principles of risk management

A
  • accept risk when risk outweights costs
  • accept no unnecessary risk
  • anticipate and manage risk by planning
  • make risk decisions at the right level
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49
Q

5 steps of operational risk management

A
  1. ID the hazards
  2. assess the hazards
  3. make risk decisions
  4. implement controls
  5. supervise
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50
Q

3 steps in step 1 of operational risk managemetn

A
  1. ID the hazards
    -conduct an operational analysis
    • conduct a preliminary hazard analysis
    • determine root causes of hazards
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51
Q

3 steps in step 2 of operational risk management

A
  1. assess the hazards
    • determine severity
    • determien probability
    • assign the risk assessment code
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52
Q

RAC

A

Risk Assessment Code
- in step 2 of ORM “assess the hazards”, this code is the expression of risk that combines the elements of hazard severity and mishap probability

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53
Q

hearing protection decibels

A

over 85 weighted decibels (dBA)
140 dB Peak

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54
Q

PKP as an extinguishing agent

A

potassium bicarbonate

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55
Q

control a class B fire

A

MOST IMPORTANT is securing the flow of gas
- AFFF, Halon, PKP
- never extinguish flammable gases unles sthere is a good chance that the flow fo gas can be secured

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56
Q

Service Chain of Command

A

Prez
SecDef
SECNAV
Commodant of Marine Corp
to MC units not assigned to the CCDR

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57
Q

Job of the highest ranking Marine

A

Commodant of hteMC
member of Joint Chiefs of Staff
- organization, policy, plans, and programs for the MC
- advices the President, SecDef, NSC, HSC, SecNav or matters involving the MC

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58
Q

term of the Commodant of the Marine Corp

A

4 years nominated byt eh PRsident.
4 star

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59
Q

supporting commander

A

APCS
CDR who provides augmentation forces of other support to a supported commander
- the CDR who aids, protects, complements, or sustains another commander’s force and who is responsible for providing the assistance required byt eh supported commander

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60
Q

what authority is support

A

support is a command authority

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61
Q

covered in the directive that defines the support relationship

A
  • purpose of the support relationship
  • effect desired
  • scope of action to be taken
  • forces/resources allocated to the supporting effort
  • time/place/level/duration of the supporting effort
  • relative priority of the supporting effort
  • authority, if any, to modify the supporting CDR inthe event of exceptional opportunity or an emergency
  • degree of authority granted to the supported CDR over the supporting efgort
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62
Q

examples of ADCON

A

resources
equipment
personnel management
logistics
individual/unit training
readiness
mobilization
demobilization
discipline

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63
Q

OPCON

A

authority to perform those functions of command over subordinatns forces involving organizing and emploing commands/forces,
assigning tasks,
designating objectives, and
giving authoritative direction necessary to accomplish teh mission

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64
Q

TACON

A

authority over assigned/attached forces or commands, or military capability/forces made available for tasking,

that is limited to thedetailed direction and control over movements/maneuvers wthing the operational area

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65
Q

DIRLAUTH

A

Direct Liaison Authority
- authority granted by a CDR to a subordinatnt to directly consult or coordinate an action
**a coordination relationship not a authroity through which command may be executed

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66
Q

coalition

A

arrangemetn between 2 or more nations for a common action/objective

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67
Q

DRRS

A

Defense Readiness Reporting System

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68
Q

5 PIllars of Institutional Readiness

A

unit readiness
capability & capacity to meet requirements
high quality people
infrastructure sustainment
equipment modernization

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69
Q

P-level

A

lower percentage of the personnel strength and military occupational speciality fill cauculatinos

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70
Q

T-level

A

“Training”
assessmetn of the unit’s training to accomplish its mission
- reporting units wio base their T-level on the percentage of METs trained to standard

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71
Q

role of the ACE

A

MAGTF CDR principal advisor/SME on aviation activities

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72
Q

6 main functions of Marine Corp Aviation

A

assault support
air reconaissance
AAW

OAS
EW
control of aircraft and mission

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73
Q

subfunctions of “Anti-Air Warfar” of Marine Corp aviation

A

OAAW
air defense (active & passive)

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74
Q

subfunctions of “OAS” of Marine Corp Aviation

A

CAS
DAS (air interdiction, armed reconnaissance)

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75
Q

subfunctions of “Control of Aircraft and Missiles”

A

Air Direction
Air Control (Airspace Managemnt, Airspace Control)

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76
Q

definition of OAS

A

offensive air support
- operations conducted against enemy installations/facilities/personnel in order to directly assist in teh attainment of MAGTF objectives by destroying enemy resources or isolating enemy military forces

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77
Q

VMA

A

Marine Attack Squadron

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78
Q

VMFA

A

Marine Fighter/Attack Squadrons

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79
Q

VMU

A

Marine Unmanned Aerial Vehicle Squadrons

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80
Q

DAS where you attack a known target that is briefed in advance

A

air interdiction operation

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81
Q

aviation attack against targets of opportunity not briefed in advance

A

DAS = armed reconnaissance operation

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82
Q

AAW

A

antiair warfare
- gain/maintain air superiority
- actions used to destory/reduce the enemy air and missile defense to an acceptable level

83
Q

mission of the TAOC

A

Tactical Air Operations Center
mission: detect, identify, and control the interception of hostile aircraft and missiles

84
Q

definition of OAAW

A

offensive anti-air warfare
- operations conducted against enemy air assets and air defense systems before they can be launched or assume an attacking role

85
Q

transportation of personnel/equipment from FOB/remote areas

A

air evacuation

86
Q

VMAQ

A

Marine Electronic Warfare Squadron

87
Q

ATARS

A

advanced tactical aerial reconaissance system

88
Q

air direction

A

authority to regulate the employment of air resources to maintain a balance between their availability and the priorities assigned for their use

89
Q

air control

A

authority to direct the physical maneuver of aircraft in flight or to direct an aircraft/surface to air weapons unit to engage a specific target
- includes: airspace management & airspace control

90
Q

airspace control

A

authority to direct the maneuver of aircraft so that the best use is made of assigned airspace
- coordination, integration, regulation, and identification

91
Q

airspace management

A

coordination, integration, and regulation oof the use of airspace based on defined dimensions

92
Q

characteristic of the MAG

A

smallest aviation unit designed to conduct operations with no outside assistence except access to its source of supplies

93
Q

aviation logistics to MAG

A

MALS - Marine Aviation Logistical Squadron

94
Q

primary task of VMGR

A

Marine Aerial Refueler Transport Squadron

95
Q

VMGR

A

Marine Aerial Refuel Transport Squadron

96
Q

FSCC

A

Frie Support Coordination Center

97
Q

VMFA

A

Marine Fighter/Attack Squadron

98
Q

3 tasks of VMFA

A

Marine Figher/Attack Squadron
- intercept/destroy enemy aircraft & surface targets
- escort friendly aircraft
- capability to deploy/operate from advanced bases and aircraft carreirs
- SEAD operations
- day/night CAS under all types of weather
- can do extended range operations by utilizing aerial refueling

99
Q

platform that provides helicopter escort

A

VMA
Marine Attack Squadron

100
Q

roles of the VMA platform

A

Marine Attack Squadron
- attacks/destroys surface targets
- helicopter escort
- air defense operations

101
Q

VMM

A

Marine Medium Tilt-Rotor Squadron

102
Q

primary function of VMM

A

Marine Medium Tilt-Rotor Squadron
- provide combat assault troop transprot
- combat assault transport of supplies/equipment

103
Q

HMH

A

Marine Heavy Helicopter Squadron
CH-53E

104
Q

LAAD

A

low altitude air defense
- close-in, low-altitude, surface to air weapon fires in defense of MAGTF assets

105
Q

3 types of UAS

A

RQ-__
Puma, Raven, Wasp

106
Q

aka Osprey

A

MV-22B

107
Q

speed of Osprey
(cruise/max)

A

cruise = 266 knots
max = 280 knots

108
Q

liters in Osprey

A

12 liters

109
Q

combat radius of Osprey

A

420nm

110
Q

empty weight of the OSprey

A

35,000 lbs

111
Q

total passengers of Osprey

A

24 passengers
12 liter

112
Q

air ambulance liter capacity of the C-130

A

“Hercules”
74 liter capcacity

113
Q

mission of the MARDIV

A

provide forces for amphibious assaults/execute other operations as directed

114
Q

CEB

A

Combat Engineer Battalion

115
Q

LAR

A

Light Armored Reconaissance Battalion

116
Q

MARDIV organization

A

HQ
tank Bn
Assault Amphibian Battalion
LAR Bn (light armored reconaissance battalion)
CEB: combat engineer batakion
REconnaissance Bn
Infantry Refiment
ARtillery

117
Q

what is the BLT built around

A

Battalion Landing Team
- infantry battalion

118
Q

primary mission of the infantry regiment

A

locate, close with, and destroy the enemy by fire and maneuver or to repel his assualts by fire and close comat

119
Q

major element of close combat power of the MARDIV

A

infantry reigment

120
Q

“nucleus” of the BLT

A

the battalion is the basic tactical unit of ground combat power and the nucleus of the BLT

121
Q

basic tactical unit in the infantry battalion by which teh battalion accomplishes its mission

A

rifle companies

122
Q

primary mission of the infantry battalion

A

locate, close with, and destory the enemy by fire and maneuver or to repel his assauolt by fire and close comabt

123
Q

mission of the artillery in the MARDIV

A

furnish close and continuous fire support by neutralizing, destorying, or suppressign targets thtat threatening the success fo the supported unit

124
Q

primary source of fire support for the MARDIV

A

artillery regiment

125
Q

what must employment of the tank battalion take advantage of

A

its organizational speed, mobility, firepower

126
Q

mission of the tank battalion

A

close with and destory the enemy by using armor-protected firepower, shock effect, maneuver, and to provide anti-mechanized fire in support of the MARDIV

127
Q

mission of the Light Armored Reconnaissance Battalion

A

conduct reconnaissance, securityl and economy for force operations and, within capabilities, conduct limited offensive ro delayed operations that exploit teh unit’s mobility and firepower

128
Q

RECON Bn

A

Reconnaissance Battalion
- conduct advance force operations,

battlespace shaping,
amphibious/underwater/ground reconnaissance,

or surveillance to observe, identify and reprot intellige nce information on teh enemyh, weather, and terrain

129
Q

operating range of an AAV

A

300 mile at a cruising speed of 25mph on a flat hard serface road with max land speed of 45mph

130
Q

soil that the AAV can operate in

A

has a ground pressure of 9.1 lbs per square in. so that lets it operate in soil that the M1A1 tank and LAV ant

131
Q

most seaworthy personnel landing craft in military service

A

AAV

132
Q

AAV in water

A
  • most seaworthy personnel landing craft in military service
  • operates in calm to moderate seas
  • can negotiate up to 10ft plunging surf and self-rigth from a 180 degree roll
133
Q

speed of the AAV in waer

A

8.2mph

134
Q

range of AAV in calm seas

A

45 miles at 8.2mph

135
Q

liter kits available for the AAV

A

up to 6 liters

136
Q

important thing to remember about the AAV

A

NOT designed to be an infantry fighting vehicle
- lacks armor protection, stabilized weapon station, low silhuette, means for the infantry to fight from the vehicle without exposing themselves to driect fir

137
Q

SINCGARS

A

single-channel ground and airborne radio syhsetm

138
Q

LAV

A

Light Armored Vehicle

139
Q

flat tires and LAV

A

an LAV can run on a flat tire for 25 miles at 30 mph

140
Q

LAV in water

A

LAV can’t cross the surf line
- can cross bodies of water with current less than 8.2ft per second

141
Q

FCS

A

Fire Support Coordination
- planning/execution of fires so that targets are adequately covered by a suitable weapon or group fo wapons

142
Q

objectives of fire direction

A
  • continuous/accurate/timely fire support under all conditions of weather, visibility, land terrain
  • prompt massing of fires of all available units in any area within range
  • rapid delivery of fires within teh zone ofthe supported unit
143
Q

FSCL

A

Fires Support Coordination Line

144
Q

TOT

A

time on target

145
Q

CLR

A

Combat Logistics Regiment

146
Q

2 types of CLR

A

Direct Support (1 digit number)
General Support (2 digit number)

147
Q

CLR- __ (1 digit number)

A

Combat Logistics Regiment
Direct Support (tactical logistics to the Marine infantry division beyond its organic capabilities)

148
Q

CLR-_ (2 digit number)

A

Combat Logistics Regiment
General Support
general logistic and maintence support to the MEF

149
Q

CLB

A

Combat Logistics Battalion
*tactical logistics to an infantry regiment beyond its organic capabilities

150
Q

CLC

A

Combat Logistics Company

151
Q

LCE for a MEU

A

Combat Logistics Battalion (CLB) is teh LCE for a MEU

152
Q

LCE for a MEB

A

Combat Logistics Regimetn (CLR) is teh LCE for a MEB

153
Q

LCE for a MEF

A

MLG

154
Q

breakdown of LCE in a MAGTF

A

Combat Logistics Battalion (CLB) = MEU
Combat Logistics Regiment (CLR) = MEB
MLG = MEF

155
Q

MTVR

A

7-ton/Medium Tactical Vehicle REplacement

156
Q

aka 7-Ton

A

MTVR = Medium Tactical Vehicle Replacement

157
Q

HIMARS

A

High Mobility Artillery Rocket System

158
Q

HMMWV

A

High Mobility Multipurpose Wheeled Vehicle

159
Q

JLTV

A

Joint Light Tactical Vehicle

160
Q

MRAP

A

Mine Resistent Ambush PRotected

161
Q

class I supplies

A

substinence
rations
gratitutous health|welfer

162
Q

class III supplies

A

POL

163
Q

class IV supplies

A

construction

164
Q

class V supplies

A

ammunition

165
Q

class VII

A

major end items

166
Q

class VIII

A

medical supply

167
Q

AAA

A

arrival and assembly area

168
Q

LFSP

A

Landing Force Support Party

169
Q

AAOE

A

Arrival and Assembly Operations Element

170
Q

SLRP

A

Survey Liaison and Reconnaissance Party

171
Q

APOE

A

Aerial Port of Embarkation
- selected locatino for marshalling, staging, and loading aboard aircraft

172
Q

NAVAIDS

A

navigational aids

173
Q

APOD

A

aerial port of debarkation
- airfield wtihin the AAA seleced to offload personnel and material

174
Q

SPOE

A

sea port of embarkation

175
Q

SPOD

A

sea port of debarkation

176
Q

STS

A

ship to shore

177
Q

mission of the CE

A

C2, direct, plan, and coordinate the air, ground, logistics, intelligence, communications, and informatino systems

178
Q

CIS

A

communications and information systems

179
Q

G-8

A

Comptroller

180
Q

G-9

A

Civil Affairs

181
Q

chaplain’s role in OPLAN/OPORD/campaign plans

A

Chaplain prepares Appendix 6 (Chaplain Activities) to Annex E to the OPLAN/OPORD/vampaign planq

182
Q

responsible for financial management

A

Comptroller

183
Q

specific responsibilities of G-1/S-1

A

personnel strength management,
personnel replacement management,
discipline/law/order
POW
HQ management
casualty managemnet
personnel management
morale/personnel services

184
Q

COPS officer

A

current operations

185
Q

FUOPS

A

future operations

186
Q

IO officer

A

information oeperations offiver

187
Q

role of the Command Master Chief

A

enlisted advisor to the command on formulation/implemetation of all policies pertaining to MWR, job satisfaction, discipline, utilization, and training of enlistded personnel

188
Q

BSO

A

Budget Submitting Office

189
Q

MET

A

Mission Essential Tasks

190
Q

MIG

A

Marine Information Group

191
Q

IMINT

A

image intelligenve

192
Q

CAG

A

civil affairs group

193
Q

ANGLICO

A

Air Naval Gunfire Liaison Company

194
Q

sequence of events for amphibous operations

A

planning
embarkation
rehearsal
movement
action

195
Q

CATF

A

commander amphibious task force

196
Q

CbT

A

combatting terrorism

197
Q

force protection

A

preventative measurs to mitigate hostile actions against DOD personnel to include family members, resources, facilities, and critical information

198
Q

authorizations of use of deadily force

A
  • inherent right of self-defense
  • defense of others
  • assets vital to national security
  • inherently dangerous property
  • national critical infrastructure
  • serious offenses against persons
  • arrest/apprehension
  • escape
199
Q

3 circumstances where the MWD will not be released

A
  • no suspect in sight
  • in areas with children except as a last resrt short of the use of a firearm
  • into a crowd of people
200
Q

preferred method to high speed persuit

A

NOT high speed persuit
= roadblocks and tire deflating devices

201
Q

HEMI

A

human electro-muscular incapitation

202
Q

fundamentals of rear area security

A
  • RAS is a MAGTF responsibility
  • units are responsible for their own local security
  • RAS effort places minimum reliance on teh GCE
  • RAS effort is proportional to the threat
203
Q

X

A

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