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Unit 1 > Unit 1 STRX > Flashcards

Unit 1 STRX Flashcards

1
Q

Explain the pros, cons, and common uses of an X-ray

A

Pros: Inexpensive, portable/mobile, widely used, high spatial resolution (very small structures observed)
Cons: Uses ionizing radiation, low contrast resolution, low temporal resolution (movement ruins images)
Common uses: chest, abdomen, skeletal system

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2
Q

Explain the pros, cons, and common uses of Computed Topography

A

Pros: High spatial resolution, High contrast resolution, post-processing allows for additional manipulation of contrast, can be shown in any plane (axial, sagittal, coronal)
Cons: low temporal resolution, expensive, uses ionizing radiation
Common uses: wide variety of uses

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3
Q

Explain the pros, cons, and common uses of Ultrasound

A

Pros: High temporal resolution, medium-high spatial resolution, medium contrast resolution, inexpensive, portable, widely used, no radiation, very safe
Cons: Limited visualization
Common uses: first choice in female pelvic and pediatric patients

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4
Q

Explain the pros, cons, and common uses of MRI

A

Pros: High contrast resolution, medium-high spatial resolution, no radiation
Cons: low temporal resolution, very expensive, safety issues (giant magnet)
Common uses: Neurologic imaging and soft tissue

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5
Q

Explain the pros, cons, and common uses of Flouroscopy

A

Pros: medium spatial resolution, high temporal resolution (real time visualization), can be mobile
Cons: low contrast resolution, substantially higher radiation than Xray
Common uses: GI, IR, surgical navigation

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6
Q

Explain the pros, cons, and common uses of Nuclear Medicine

A

Pros: allows to concentrate on specific body tissues
Cons: Low spatial, contrast, and temporal resolution, uses radiation (CT machine, radioisotopes)
Common uses: diagnosing/treating hyperthyroidism, thyroid cancer, lymphomas, bone cancer

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7
Q

Explain the pros, cons, and common uses of Positron Emission Tomography (PET-CT)

A

Pros: High spatial resolution, high contrast resolution, locates hidden metastases
Cons: Low temporal resolution, uses radiation (positron), VERY expensive
Common uses: diagnosis and follow up of cancer, heart disorders, and brain disorders

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8
Q

Put the following in order of density how it would appear on imaging: fat, calcium, air, metal, soft tissue/fluid

A

Air (least dense, blackest)
Fat
Soft Tissue/Fluid
Calcium
Metal (most dense, whitest)

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9
Q

What is seen as the cornerstone of cross-sectional imaging?

A

CT

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10
Q

What is seen as the cornerstone of cross-sectional imaging?

A

CT

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11
Q

Explain how the following images are created: Xray, CT, MRI, Ultrasound, Fluoroscopy, Nuclear Medicine, PET

A

X-ray: Beam of ionizing radiation is passed through pt, the beams not absorbed by the body are projected onto image plate

CT: Rotating X-ray displays 3D image via computer algorithms

MRI: Uses potential energy of body’s hydrogen atoms

Ultrasound: uses acoustic energy above the audible frequency to create sound waves, the reflected waves create an image on the screen

Fluoroscopy: Continuously emits X-ray beams

Nuclear Medicine: radiopharmaceuticals are injected, swallowed or inhaled and travels through the body emitting gamma rays which are detected by camera

PET: positron-producing radiopharmaceutical injected into pt and the positron decay is tracked to construct an image

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12
Q

Describe the steps of collection and submission of tissue for pathological evaluation.

A

Selection, Processing (Fixation, Dehydration, Clearing, Infiltration), Embedding, Trimming, Staining, Interpretation

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13
Q

Describe the steps preparing tissue for examination (Processing, Embedding, Sectioning, Staining)

A

Fixation: tissue placed in solution which inactivates degrative enzymes and cross-link proteins to preserve cell and tissue structure (formalin)
Dehydration: Tissue transferred through increasing strengths of ethanol
Clearing: Alcohol removed with xyline
Infiltration: tissue placed in paraffin until completely infiltrated with wax
Embedding: Tissue placed in small mold to harden in correct orientation
Staining: Different stains used for different parts of tissue

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14
Q

What is the purpose of processing tissue and what could happen if tissue is not processed properly?

A

To make tissue “cuttable” and “mountable” to maintain the anatomic integrity through slicing process
Tissue could lose anatomic integrity, wrong diagnoses made, wrong pt informed

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15
Q

Contrast the sampling methods of cytology

A

Exfoliative: scraping, brushing, or falling off into fluid (urine)
Aspiration: collecting cells via fine needle or endoscopically (joints, pancreas)
Pap Smear: invasively scraping cells of cervix

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16
Q

Explain the pros, cons, and common uses of Dual Energy X-ray Absorptiometry (DEXA)

A

Pros: Generates quantitative information about bone-density, non-invasive, low cost
Cons: Uses radiation
Common uses: bone density

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17
Q

Superficial extrinsic back muscles

A

Trapezius, Latissimus dorsi, Levator scapulae, Rhomboids

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18
Q

Intermediate extrinsic back muscles

A

Serratus posterior superior, serratus posterior inferior

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19
Q

Intrinsic back muscles

A

Superficial layer: splenius muscle (cervicis and capitis)
Intermediate layer: iliocostalis, longissimus, spinalis
Deep layer: semispinalis, multifidus, rotatores

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20
Q

What back muscles origin is the fascia of the back?

A

Latissimus dorsi

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21
Q

What artery supplies the serratus posterior muscles?

A

Intercostal arteries

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22
Q

What are the four tissue types, their functions, and their levels of ECF?

A

Epithelium - line cavities, secretion - little ECF, tightly packed together
Connective - protection, support - a lot of ECF, needs for movement
Muscle - contraction, peristalsis - moderate ECF
Nervous - sending electrochemical signals - very little ECF

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23
Q

Characterize the structure and function of this tissue.

A

Epithelium - lining of cavities, tightly packed, acts as a barrier to only allow certain substances in, little ECF

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24
Q

Characterize the structure and function of this tissue.

A

Nervous - sends electrochemical signals - very little ECF

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25
Q

Characterize the structure and function of this tissue.

A

Muscle - contraction, peristalsis - moderate ECF

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26
Q

Characterize the structure and function of this tissue.

A

Connective - provides protection and support - needs a lot of ECF for movement

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27
Q

Identify the patients that potentially have Sickle Cell Disease

A

Lane 5 - homozygous of SCD

Lanes 7, 9, 11 - Sickle Cell Trait

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28
Q

Describe and differentiate Southern, Northern and Western blotting.

A

Southern - DNA probe on DNA target molecule
Northern - DNA probe on RNA target molecule
Western - Antibody probe on Protein target molecule

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29
Q

What are the basic steps in a PCR reaction?

A

Denaturation (95C), Annealing (15C), Elongation (72C)

30
Q

What bones form via Intramembranous ossification?

Which form via Endochondral ossification?

A

Clavicle, flat bones of the face, skull bones

Literally everything else

31
Q

When reading a CT scan, which direction do you view the radiograph from?

A

From the feet looking toward the head

32
Q

Appearance of an MRI - general shading

A

Air and bone - black
Tissues with moderate signal (more water) - grey
Tissues with high signal (less water) - white

33
Q

What structures do somatic nerves innervate?

A

Skeletal muscle (efferent to skeletal muscle)

34
Q

What structures do autonomic nerves innervate?

A

Smooth muscle (organs, blood vessels), cardiac muscle, glands

35
Q

How many efferent neurons are involved in somatic pathways?

Autonomic pathways?

A

One neuron

Two neurons - preganglionic and postganglionic

36
Q

What NT are involved in somatic pathways?

Autonomic?

A

Ach

Sympathetic: Ach and NE
Parasympathetic: Ach

37
Q

What spinal levels correlate with the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems?

A

Sympathetic: T1-L2 thoracolumbar

Parasympathetic: cranium and S2-S4 craniosacral

38
Q

Briefly describe the sympathetic pathway of an efferent neuron to a blood vessel or sweat gland of the body wall or extremities.

A

Synapse in the sympathetic ganglion (paravertebral)
Same level - postganglionic exits through grey communicating rami

Different level - travels up/down sympathetic trunk, then exits through GCR

39
Q

Briefly describe the sympathetic pathway of an efferent neuron to a thoracic organ (above the diaphragm).

A

Synapse in the sympathetic ganglion (paravertebral)

Postganglionic exits through visceral nerve to synapse on plexus

40
Q

Briefly describe the sympathetic pathway of an efferent neuron to an abdominal organ (below the diaphragm).

A

Synapse in the prevertebral ganglion

Postganglionic exits through named nerve

41
Q

Briefly describe the sympathetic pathway of an efferent neuron to a suprarenal gland

A

Synapse in the gland itself

42
Q

Briefly describe the sympathetic pathway of an afferent neuron from a visceral organ back to the spinal cord.

A

Unipolar neuron follows sympathetic efferent pathway back, through white communicating rami, to dorsal root ganglia

43
Q

Briefly describe the parasympathetic pathway of an efferent nerve to the blood vessels of the pelvis

A

Leaves ventral horn, passes or passes through WCR and sympathetic trunk (without synapsing), exits through splanchnic nerve, synapses on terminal ganglia in blood vessel

44
Q

What is the function of this connective tissue?

A

Type 1 Collagen makes up tendons, ligaments, ECM

most abundant proteins in the body

45
Q

What is the function of this connective tissue?

A

Reticulin fibers often support individual cells

best seen with silver stain

46
Q

What is the function of this connective tissue?

A

Elastic fibers have ability to stretch and return to original conformation

abundant in large blood vessels, organs, and ligaments

47
Q

What are the major constituents of the Ground Substance?

A

Water, proteoglycans, glycoproteins, glycosaminoglycans

48
Q

Assume you had 500 children present to your clinic with “strep-like” symptoms last year and all of them were screened with a rapid strep test. Of these, 100 actually had strep throat.

Sensitivity 90%; Specificity 95%

  • How many children with strep infection will have tested positive?
  • How many children with strep infection will have tested negative?
  • How many children without strep infection will have tested positive?
  • How many children without strep infection will have tested negative?
A

90 with strep will test positive

10 with strep will test negative

20 without strep will test positive

380 without strep will test negative

Sensitivity detects true positives
Specificity detects true negatives

49
Q

Where are these nerves going?

A

To innervate the vessels and sweat glands of the body wall

50
Q

Where is this nerve going?

A

To innervate a thoracic organ (above the diaphragm) via the visceral nerve

51
Q

Where is this nerve going?

A

To innervate an abdominal organ (below the diaphragm) via the splanchnic nerve

52
Q

What nerves are these and where are they going?

A

Dark purple is sympathetic efferent going to innervate an abdominal organ (below the diaphragm) via the splanchnic nerve

Light purple is a sympathetic afferent coming from the abdominal organ back to the spinal cord

53
Q

What nerves are these and where are they going?

A

Blue is a parasympathetic efferent going to synapse on a neuron on the cell wall via the splanchnic nerve

Orange is a parasympathetic afferent returning to the spinal cord

54
Q

What are the borders of the femoral triangle?

A

Sartorius
Adductor longus
Inguinal Ligament

55
Q

What is the function of these cells?

A

Goblet cells secrete mucus to protect mucous membranes

56
Q

Label the ligaments

A
  1. Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL)
  2. Lateral Collateral Ligament
  3. Lateral Meniscus
  4. Medial Meniscus
  5. Medial Collateral Ligament
  6. Posterior Cruciate Ligament (PCL)
  7. Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL)
  8. Lateral Collateral Ligament
  9. Lateral Meniscus
  10. Posterior Cruciate Ligament (PCL)
57
Q

What is an open canalicular system?

A

the system where dense and alpha-granules release product into, helps aid in rapid degranulation

58
Q

What are pro-platelets and where are they shed?

A

Cytoplasmic projections from megakaryocytes shed into bone marrow sinusoids

59
Q

Name the body part, imaging modality, orientation, and window

A

CT pulmonary angiogram
CT
Axial
Soft-tissue window

60
Q

Name the body part, imaging modality, orientation, and window

What is the abnormality?

A

Brain
CT
Axial
Brain window

Brain hemorrhage (brain window shows fluid as bright)

61
Q

What is the unhappy triad of knee joint?

A

Medial Collateral Ligament, Medial meniscus, and ACL tear

62
Q

Pathway of lymphatic vessels accompanying great saphenous vein

A

superficial inguinal lymph nodes –> deep inguinal –> external iliac lymph nodes –> common iliac lymph nodes –> lumbar lymphatic trunks

63
Q

Pathway of lymphatic vessels accompanying small saphenous vein

A

popliteal lymph nodes –> deep inguinal lymph nodes –> external iliac lymph nodes –> common iliac lymph nodes –> lumbar lymphatic trunks

64
Q

Deep lymphatic vessel pathway

A

popliteal lymph nodes –> deep inguinal –> external iliac –> common iliac –> lumbar lymphatic trunks

(same as small saph)

65
Q

Gluteal lymphatic pathways

A

Superior and inferior gluteal lymph nodes –> internal, external and common iliac –> lateral lumbar lymph nodes

66
Q

Lymphatic drainage from the foot

A

Popliteal lymph nodes –> deep inguinal –> external iliac –> common iliac –> lumbar trunk

67
Q

What is the function of the ground substance?

A

provides lubrication and allows diffusion of molecules needed for metabolism between cells and the vascular system

68
Q

Identify the nerve roots from which the tibial nerve is derived

A

anterior division of anterior rami of L4-S3

69
Q

A patient severs their tibial nerve, what would be the typical clinical presentation you would expect?

A

Inability to plantarflex (tibial nerve supplies posterior leg) and loss of sensation of sole of foot (medial and lateral plantar n.)

70
Q

What are the attachments of the lateral meniscus?

A

Medial portion of popliteus tendon
Posterior aspect of PCL
medial femoral condyle

71
Q

Why is the ankle more stable in dorsiflexion than plantarflexion?

A

The trochlea of the talus is narrower posteriorly and so articulation with the tibia and fibular is better in dorsiflexion

72
Q

Branches of what nerves supply the ankle joint?

A

Tibial, deep and superficial fibular, saphenous, sural

Unit 1 (9 decks)

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