Lecture 16- Blood Flashcards

1
Q

Blood is a specialized CT that has a fluid ECM called ______ that allows it to circulate

A

Plasma

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2
Q

What is plasma composed of

A

Mostly water (90%), plasma proteins (antibodies/clotting factors)

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3
Q

What is plasma

A

Blood extra cellular matrix

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4
Q

What are formed elements

A

Blood cells (RBC’s, WBC’s, platelets)

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5
Q

Serum is plasma without the ______

A

Clotting factors

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6
Q

What is a RBC count

A

The number of RBCs in a specified volume of blood

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7
Q

RBC’s lack what/ last for how long

A

No nucleus or major organelles, roughly 120 days

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8
Q

Hemolysis occurs where & by what

A

Macrophages, in bone marrow and spleen

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9
Q

What are reticulocytes

A

Larger, rounder, immature RBCs

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10
Q

When are reticulocytes released

A

Released from bone marrow in times of hypoxia (bleeding, anemia)

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11
Q

What does a high reticulocyte indicate

A

Bleeding or anemia

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12
Q

WBC count:

A

Number of WBCs in a specified volume of blood

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13
Q

Why do leukocytes stand out in blood smears

A

Because they are the only nucleated cells in blood

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14
Q

Types of WBCs are discussed with

A

White cell differentials.

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15
Q

Elevated white blood cell count is called what

A

Leukocytosis

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16
Q

What does leukocytosis reflect

A

Infection, allergic reaction, leukemia, or other disorders.

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17
Q

What are low counts of white blood cells called & what do they reflect

A

Leukopenia, immunosuppressive
drugs or chemotherapy

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18
Q

Platelets (thrombocytes) play a role in

A

Hemostasis to limit hemorrhaging

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19
Q

What are platelets

A

Cell fragments (have mitochondria, secretory vesicles, no nucleus)

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20
Q

What do platelets secrete

A

Clotting mediators (vasoconstrictors, coagulation factors, fibrinolytic factors, and angiogenic factors)

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21
Q

What is it called when platelets adhere to collagen in injured vessels

A

Platelet plug

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22
Q

Elevated platelets are called what/ what could it lead to

A

Thrombocytosis, may lead to blood clotting

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23
Q

Low platelets are called what/ what could it lead to

A

Thrombocytopenia and may present as spontaneous bruising or bleeding, or tarry stool.

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24
Q

Hemoglobin count (HBC):

A

Grams of hemoglobin in a volume of blood

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25
Q

Low HBC is the basis for diagnosis of
________. Causes include ________

A

Anemia, iron deficiency, bleeding, or
hemolysis of defective RBCs

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26
Q

Hematocrit (HCT):

A

Percent of blood volume comprised of RBCs

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27
Q

Another term for hematocrit is what

A

Packed cell volume

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28
Q

Why would hematocrit be elevated

A

RBC neoplasia (polycythemia vera)

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29
Q

HCT- Secondary polycythemia is due to increased ______, usually from chronic _____ (bleeding, COPD, anemia, etc.).

A

EPO secretion, hypoxia. Bleeding and anemia may also be reflected by low HCT

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30
Q

Mean corpuscle volume (MCV):

A

Average size of RBCs

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31
Q

MCV includes what

A

Mature erythrocytes and reticulocytes

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32
Q

(small MCV) Microcytosis

A

RBCs are small in size due to iron deficiency or some type of structural defect

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33
Q

(Large MCV) Macrocytosis:

A

RBCs are large if there is a high percentage of reticulocytes in blood since they are larger than mature RBCs

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34
Q

An atypical MCV is typically found with _______

A

Anemia

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35
Q

Microcytic hypochromic anemia:

A

Small, pale RBCs caused by iron deficiency or thalassemia, an inherited hemoglobin defect

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36
Q

Normocytic normochromic anemia:

A

Normal RBCs but low HBC because of acute RBC loss from acute bleeding or acute hemolytic anemia, which is the pathologic destruction of RBCs

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37
Q

Macrocytic normochromic anemia:

A

Loss of RBCs from chronic bleeding or chronic hemolytic anemia leads to release of large, immature RBCs called reticulocytes

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38
Q

Too many RBCs is called

A

Polycythemia vera

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39
Q

RBCs that are small and have an overly large pale center may indicate ______

A

Anemia

40
Q

Abnormal cell shape may indicate

A

Hemoglobinopathy

41
Q

WBC differential:

A

Percentage of each type of WBC

42
Q

What is a WBC differential used to diagnose

A

Types of infection, allergic reactions, leukemia, and to monitor the effectiveness of treatments

43
Q

What are the 2 ways that a WBC differential is divided

A

Divided into those with cytoplasmic granules (granulocytes) and those without (agranulocytes)

44
Q

Identify

A
45
Q

Identify

A
46
Q

Identify

A
47
Q

What are the 3 types of granulocytes

A

Basophils, eosinophils, neutrophils

48
Q

Identify

A
49
Q

Identify

A
50
Q

What are the 2 types of agranulocytes

A

Monocytes, lymphocytes

51
Q

Elevated neutrophils indicate _______

A

Bacterial infection

52
Q

What do neutrophils do and where are they found

A

Phagocytose debris, main component of pus

53
Q

Elevated lymphocytes would be found in what

A

Virally infected cells, foreign cells, tumors

54
Q

What are the precursors to all macrophages

A

Monocytes

55
Q

Monocytosis (elevated monocytes) would be found when

A

Chronic infections

56
Q

Eosinophils fight what

A

Parasitic worms and fungal infections

57
Q

Eosinophils secrete enzymes that do what

A

Inactivate inflammatory cells (mast cells)

58
Q

Eosinophils phagocytose what

A

Antigen-antibody complexes

59
Q

Eosinophils would be elevated during what

A

Asthma and allergic reactions (and fungal/ parasitic infections)

60
Q

Basophils are associated with what

A

ANAPHYLAXIS

61
Q

Basophils secrete what 2 kinds of granules and for what purpose

A

Histamine, leukotriene. To mediate inflammation

62
Q
A

Polycythemia vera

63
Q
A

Neutrophils

64
Q
A

Lymphocytes

65
Q
A

Monocytes

66
Q
A

Eosinophils

67
Q
A

Basophils

68
Q

Where does hematopoiesis mainly occur

A

Bone marrow

69
Q

Blood cell production occurs in _____ marrow,
which is largely replaced by _____
marrow in adults.

A

Red, fatty yellow

70
Q

Constitutive hematopoiesis is ____

A

Ongoing

71
Q

Inductive hematopoiesis is

A

An increase in blood cells in response to hypoxia,
inflammation, or infection.

72
Q

During a hematopoietic crisis, the
liver or spleen can become _______

A

Hematogenous in adults.

73
Q

Aspiration biopsy:

A

Red marrow aspiration with a syringe, usually from the sternum or iliac crest

74
Q

Trephine (needle) biopsy:

A

Core of bone is removed, usually from the iliac crest, mounted on a slide, and stained. Bone is
visible in the section. This method keeps the reticular CT structure of the marrow intact but is more time consuming and invasive.

75
Q

What type of biopsy is this

A
76
Q

What type of biopsy is this

A
77
Q

Hematopoietic stem cells can become what kind of cells

A

All types

78
Q

Deficiency of vitamin _______ or ________, which is needed for DNA synthesis during cell proliferation, reduces or inhibits hematopoiesis. Result is pancytopenia.

A

B12 or folate

79
Q

The stromal cells in marrow constitutively secrete ______ to continue the process of hematopoiesis

A

SCF (stem cell factor)

80
Q

Stem cell factor maintains what

A

The population of hematopoietic stem cells

81
Q

The kidney secretes _______ when stimulated by _______

A

Erythropoietin, hypoxia

82
Q

What does erythropoietin encourage

A

Erythropoiesis

83
Q

Immune cells secrete ______ when stimulated by ______

A

CSF (colony stimulating factor), infection

84
Q

CSF (colony stimulating factor) encourages what process

A

Leukopoiesis

85
Q

The liver secretes _________ when stimulated by _______

A

Thrombopoietin, low platelet count

86
Q

Thrombopoietin encourages what process

A

Thrombopoiesis

87
Q

Platelets are small cell fragments derived from what

A

Megakaryocytes

88
Q

A deficiency of ______ will reduce or inhibit erythropoiesis

A

Iron

89
Q

Reticulocytes are a precursor to what cells

A

Erythrocytes

90
Q

What is thrombopoiesis

A

Making platelets from megakaryocytes

91
Q

Granulocytes are generated by what process

A

Granulopoiesis

92
Q

What is a left shift

A

When you start seeing premature neutrophils (band/ stab neutrophils) in blood from inflammation or infection

93
Q

Platelets pool in the ______ for 2-4 days before circulating

A

Spleen

94
Q

Sequestration in the spleen can cause

A

Thrombocytopenia

95
Q
A