FAMS Exam 1

Question 1

What drives the bus for the history of a dairy cow (i.e. what’s the most important information to get for a dairy cow’s history)?

Answer 1

(Days in milk)

Question 2

What does LUMMAR stand for (i.e. the main 6 things to evaluate for a dairy cow)?

Answer 2

(Lungs, uterus, mammary, metabolic, abomasum, rumen)

Question 3

What is the worst-built portion of the bovine?

Answer 3

(The lungs)

Question 4

Where should you default if you find nothing else wrong with a cow with a fever of unknown origin?

Answer 4

(Lungs)

Question 5

The uterus is a common cause of problems/pathology in a cow for the first how many weeks postpartum?

Answer 5

(2 weeks)

Question 6

(T/F) Milk production can be used to distinguish between local and systemic mastitis.

Answer 6

(F, milk production is not a good indicator of whether the problem is local or systemic)

Question 7

What presentation defines subclinical mastitis (what does the cow look like, what does the milk look like)?

Answer 7

(Normal cow, milk with elevated somatic cells)

Question 8

What presentation defines systemic mastitis (what does the cow look like, what does the milk look like)?

Answer 8

(8-10% dehydrated, depressed, feverish cow down in milk (>50%) and watery to brown/orange milk)

Question 9

What two organisms are typically the cause of systemic/toxic mastitis?

Answer 9

(Coliforms - E. coli and Klebsiella)

Question 10

How are systemic/toxic mastitis-causing organisms obtained?

Answer 10

(From the environment)

Question 11

Cows with severe systemic illness may have sub/normal/elevated temperatures (choose one).

Answer 11

(All of the above)

Question 12

Describe a normal rumen contraction (how many in how many minutes and what it should feel like).

Answer 12

(3 contractions every 2 minutes, your hand and stethoscope should be pushed outward during the contraction)

Question 13

(T/F) There are no normal pings on the left side of a cow.

Answer 13

(T)

Question 14

(T/F) Lung fields are much wider in cattle than other species.

Answer 14

(F, much narrower)

Question 15

If a cow’s eyes are sunken, you can assume they are at least what percent dehydrated?

Answer 15

(7%)

Question 16

Subclinical ketosis usually occurs secondarily to another pathology causing what clinical sign in cows?

Answer 16

(Anorexia)

Question 17

What are the two ways to distinguish between a normal and abnormal ping on the right side of a cow?

Answer 17

(The size, a normal ping is typically no larger than a flat hand and an abnormal ping can span 3-4 ribs/rib spaces; consistency, a normal ping is typically inconsistent while an RDA/RTA ping is prominent and consistent)

Question 18

You tent the skin on a cow and the skin stays tented for 4 seconds, what percent dehydrated is this cow?

Answer 18

(4%)

Question 19

How do you distinguish between an RDA/RTA versus a cecal torsion via pinging?

Answer 19

(The pings for a cecal torsion should extend into the paralumbar fossa whereas RDA/RTA pings do not)

Question 20

Scars have decreased strength/vascularity/cellularity (choose).

Answer 20

(All three)

Question 21

What is the difference between a contaminated and dirty wound?

Answer 21

(A dirty wound has an active infection present, contaminated just has debris or spillage but not an infection (yet))

Question 22

What is the benefit to choosing vertical mattress sutures over horizontal?

Answer 22

(Horizontal can impinge on peripheral healing capillaries)

Question 23

What are three ways to manage dead space?

Answer 23

(Suturing all tissue planes separately and accurately, use of drains, and pressure dressing)

Question 24

How do hematomas increase risk of infection in wounds?

Answer 24

(Blood is a great growth media for bacteria)

Question 25

What is the advantage to ruminants having increased vascular density in their bones and enhanced osteogenic layer in their periosteum with lots of osteoblasts?

Answer 25

(They have a great potential for bone healing)

Question 26

Should you start or end your farm visit/day with a necropsy?

Answer 26

(End, and if live sick animals test healthy then sick then dead)

Question 27

Formalin fixed tissue should be no more than how many centimeters thick?

Answer 27

(3-6 cm)

Question 28

How should solid organs be cut for submitting after a necropsy?

Answer 28

(Bread loaf style)

Question 29

(T/F) All veterinary diagnostic specimens are considered a category B infectious substance for shipping purposes and need a special label.

Answer 29

(T)

Question 30

Optimally, samples submitted for microbiology and/or toxicology should be fixed/fresh (choose).

Answer 30

(Fresh)

Question 31

What are the five locations that you will most likely encounter lymphosarcoma in a cow?

Answer 31

(Hearts, abomasum, uterus, lymph nodes, and spine)

Question 32

You are presented with a cow with a mandibular mass. You palpate it, it is hard and bony, what is likely the diagnosis and what is the causative agent?

Answer 32

(Lumpy jaw, actinomyces bovis)

Question 33

What is the treatment for bovine papilloma virus?

Answer 33

(Leave it alone)

Question 34

(T/F) Melanomas in cows are usually ulcerated, fairly movable, painful, and about as firm as a testicle.

Answer 34

(F, melanomas in cows can be ulcerated or not, are fairly moveable, are non-painful, and about as firm as a testicle)

Question 35

What are two ways to distinguish between a penile hematoma and water belly in cows?

Answer 35

(Penile hematoma → firm and penile prolapse, water belly → soft and no penile prolapse usually)

Question 36

A lump or bump on the jaw area of a small ruminant is what until proven otherwise?

Answer 36

(Caseous lymphadenitis)

Question 37

What is the most common location where squamous cell carcinoma pops up in small ruminants?

Answer 37

(Vulva)

Question 38

You are presented with a vulvar mass in a small ruminant, what are you most likely to suspect it is?

Answer 38

(SCC)

Question 39

Treatment success results from the joint action of what two things (one is applied by you the vet and the other has to do with the animal you are treating)?

Answer 39

(Animal defenses and appropriate drug treatments → no antibiotic is good enough without help from the animal)

Question 40

You are treating calves on a farm which have previously been treated as apart of a large group in an attempt to prevent disease (metaphylaxis) with draxxin, which of the following drugs could/should you now be treating the calves with? There may or may not be multiple answers that are correct.

Zactran
Micotil
Excede
Nuflor

Answer 40

(Excede (ceftiofur/cephalosporin) or nuflor (florfenicol), the other two are in the same class as draxxin (macrolide))

Question 41

If you expect ____ (a percentage) of calves or greater to be at risk for respiratory disease upon arrival to a farm, you should use metaphylaxis.

Answer 41

(35%)

Question 42

You are currently dealing with an outbreak of respiratory disease in a herd of calves. At this time, you are still just treating individually identified sick calves but in what two situations would you pursue metaphylaxis?

Answer 42

(If you were to treat 25% or greater of the calves in the herd in one day OR if for three consecutive days, you have to treat 10% of the calves in the herd)

Question 43

What three areas of the body are targeted by mycoplasma?

Answer 43

(Lungs (pneumonia), joints (lameness), and ears (ear infections, head tilt))

Question 44

Why might calves with Mycoplasma infections be harder to identify for respiratory disease when compared to calves with Mannheimia infections?

Answer 44

(Mycoplasma does not produce the leukotoxin that Mannheimia does so calves with myco are usually not as ADR or off-feed like those with Mannheimia infections)

Question 45

(T/F) Once a calf has joint issues related to a Mycoplasma infection, they will not be able to recover and should be euthanized.

Answer 45

(F, most calves will recover if given enough time and the appropriate husbandry (small lot with easy access to feed/water); myco attacks the joint capsules, not the cartilage itself)

Question 46

What is the treatment for Histophilus somni?

Answer 46

(Prevention with CTC, 1 gm per 100 lbs body weight for 5 days)

Question 47

Optimally how long would you wait and get the producer to wait after administering a long acting antibiotic prior to switching and treating with another antibiotic?

Answer 47

(48 hours, look for an improvement in attitude and appetite and a reduction in fever if there is one)

Question 48

Of the following options, which is most important in preventing BRDC?
A - Vaccination programs
B - Metaphylaxis upon calf arrival
C - Appropriate calf purchasing, nutrition, and preventing other stressors

Answer 48

(C)

Question 49

What are preconditioned calves?

Answer 49

(Calves that have been vaccinated at least 2 weeks prior to shipping, weaned for at least 45 days, and trained to eat and drink from a trough)

Question 50

What vaccines should a preconditioned calf have received?

Answer 50

(IBR/BVD 1+2/PI3/BRSV combo, Mannheimia hemolytica, and 7-way clostridial/black leg)

Question 51

What is appropriate processing for category 1 calves upon arrival to a new facility?

Answer 51

(Deworm them, delice them, and give them a coccidiostat)

Question 52

What is appropriate processing for category 2 calves upon arrival to a new facility?

Answer 52

(Vaccinate with 5-way and 7-way within 24 hours of arrival, same parasite control as category 1)

Question 53

Should metaphylaxis be considered for appropriate processing for category 3 calves upon arrival at a new facility?

Answer 53

(Yes, in addition to removing them from the market asap, providing fresh, clean water and free choice excellent quality hay, vaccinating them, administering parasite control and selenium, and +/- administering Pasteurella toxoid vax)

Question 54

What is the most common sample taken for BVD testing?

Answer 54

(An ear notch, can then perform ELISA or IHC)

Question 55

What is the toxic agent associated with wild cherries?

Answer 55

(Cyanide)

Question 56

How does the toxin associated with wild cherries cause damage in the body?

Answer 56

(It irreversible binds oxygen to hemoglobin → venous blood will be bright ‘cherry’ red)

Question 57

The onset of wild cherry toxicosis is within minutes/hours/days (choose).

Answer 57

(Minutes → 15-20 to be specific)

Question 58

(T/F) Wild cherries are toxic in any stage and any part of the plant.

Answer 58

(F, only the wilted leaves are toxic)

Question 59

What is the treatment for wild cherry toxicosis?

Answer 59

(Sodium thiosulfate and sodium nitrate combo, 100-250ml IV)

Question 60

The onset of Japanese yew toxicosis is within minutes/hours/days (choose).

Answer 60

(Hours → 1-3 to be specific)

Question 61

What is the toxic agent associated with Japanese yew plants?

Answer 61

(Taxine)

Question 62

What are the clinical signs associated with buckeye toxicosis? Two answers.

Answer 62

(Stilted gait/goose stepping and down with hyperesthesia)

Question 63

What are the two principle toxins associated with buckeye toxicosis?

Answer 63

(Aesculin and fraxin, both are glycosides)

Question 64

What organ is affected by Japanese yew toxicosis?

Answer 64

(The heart)

Question 65

What organ is affected by buckeye toxicosis?

Answer 65

(The brain)

Question 66

The onset of buckeye toxicosis is within minutes/hours/days (choose).

Answer 66

(Hours → 12-24)

Question 67

What is the treatment for buckeye toxicosis?

Answer 67

(Sedation (xylazine/acepromazine) and monitoring to prevent injury until the toxins leave their system)

Question 68

What organ is affected by acorn toxicosis?

Answer 68

(Kidney, causes renal tubular necrosis; also GI but that’s not what kills them, causes watery black diarrhea)

Question 69

The onset of acorn toxicosis is within minutes/hours/days (choose).

Answer 69

(Days until clinical signs are apparent)

Question 70

What is the treatment for acorn toxicosis?

Answer 70

(Supportive (IV and oral fluids), usually unrewarding)

Question 71

What is the typical presentation of a cow with acorn toxicity?

Answer 71

(ADR with dark diarrhea +/- ruminal distension d/t fluid)

Question 72

What is the toxic agent associated with acorns?

Answer 72

(Tannins)

Question 73

(T/F) If pregnant cows ingest a non-lethal amount of acorns, it can result in birth defects in the calf.

Answer 73

(T)

Question 74

Why does fescue cause early embryonic death in cows that are bred during the summer?

Answer 74

(Because fescue raises body temp by 1-2 degrees and in addition to the heat of the summer, makes the cows body temp incompatible for an embryo)

Question 75

You are presented with a goat that has generalized weakness. While you are examining it, the goat projectile vomits all over you. What is wrong with this goat?

Answer 75

(It has rhododendron toxicosis, tx is supportive care)

Question 76

What is the pathogenesis of nitrate toxicity?

Answer 76

(Hemoglobin gets converted into methemoglobin, can no longer bind oxygen and patient will be anoxic → exercise intolerant, down, ‘seizures’, and belligerent)

Question 77

What is the treatment for nitrate toxicity?

Answer 77

(Methylene blue IV (1% solution at 10mg/kg; or 1cc vitamin C per 5 pounds if methylene blue unavailable)

Question 78

If you are presented with a cow that has an ulcer that reaches the edge of the sclera, what differential diagnosis will be higher on your list?

Answer 78

(Foreign body)

Question 79

If you are presented with a cow with unilateral, central ulcers of the eye, what are two possible infectious etiologies?

Answer 79

(IBK and listeriosis)

Question 80

What is the main worry associated with infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis?

Answer 80

(Weight loss associated with the pain of the eye lesion)

Question 81

(T/F) Pinkeye can be associated with decreased milk production in cows and therefore less growth in calves.

Answer 81

(T)

Question 82

What are the main ocular signs of pinkeye? Seven answers :).

Answer 82

(Epiphora, scleral injection, corneal edema, central corneal ulcer, and neovascularization; will also see photophobia and blepharospasm)

Question 83

What results from a cow being down for too long?

Answer 83

(Compartment syndrome)

Question 84

If a cow is down, what is a simple diagnostic test you can perform to rule in or out certain general categories of disease?

Answer 84

(Offer them grain, if they eat it leans towards a certain group of dzs and a different group if they don’t eat)

Question 85

If you offer a down cow grain and they eat, what are the three general diseases that may be affecting this cow?

Answer 85

(Musculoskeletal injury, peripheral/spinal nerve injury, or starvation)

Question 86

If you offer a down cow grain and they do not eat, what are the three general diseases that may be affecting this cow?

Answer 86

(Septicemia, mineral deficiency, or toxicity)

Question 87

One of the important questions you should ask when presented with a down cow is where are they in their production cycle; if the cow is in the last two months of gestation, what diseases are more likely? Three answers.

Answer 87

(Starvation, musculoskeletal injury, or winter tetany)

Question 88

One of the important questions you should ask when presented with a down cow is where are they in their production cycle; if the cow is down immediately post calving what diseases are more likely? Three answers.

Answer 88

(Musculoskeletal injury, mineral deficiency, and toxic mastitis)

Question 89

One of the important questions you should ask when presented with a down cow is where are they in their production cycle; if the cow is 2-30 days post partum what diseases are more likely? Four answers.

Answer 89

(Musculoskeletal injury, mineral deficiency, toxic mastitis, or toxic metritis)

Question 90

What is the typical presentation of a calf that results in calving paralysis in its dam?

Answer 90

(Dead, if the calf is alive it will have a swollen head and bruised gums)

Question 91

If a cow with calving paralysis is able to stand after calving (which is rare), where do they tend to knuckle their rear legs due to their injury?

Answer 91

(At the fetlock)

Question 92

What is the treatment for calving paralysis?

Answer 92

(Prevent compartment syndrome and anti-inflammatories; start with dex in the beginning and follow up with NSAIDs)

Question 93

T/F) Spinal nerve damage, often due to lymphosarcoma, disc disease, or abscesses, treatment is unrewarding.

Answer 93

(T)

Question 94

How does the treatment for milk fever and grass tetany differ?

Answer 94

(They don’t, both get 1-2 500ml bottles of CMPK (if you said to tell the farmer to follow up with oral magnesium for grass tetany cases, here’s a star, collect 5 and I’ll bake you cookies))

Question 95

What three minerals are deficient in winter tetany cases?

Answer 95

(Calcium, magnesium, and potassium → all will be low but not low enough to cause the cow to be down, it’s the combo that gets ya)

Question 96

What are the parameters of beef cow BCS for idiots?

Answer 96

(Fat in the tail head six or greater, no fat in the tail head, five or less!; make sure you make a song out of it and you won’t forget)

Question 97

Where do you see prominent fat in beef cows with a BCS of 8 or greater?

Answer 97

(The brisket)

Question 98

Is it easier or harder to have a fall calving cow at a good BCS during calving?

Answer 98

(Easier, lots of good grass mid to late gestation in fall calving cows; it is hard for them to gain weight during the breeding season which can decrease fertility)

Question 99

Is it easier or harder to have a spring calving cow gaining weight during breeding season?

Answer 99

(Easier, lots of good grass around breeding time for spring calving cows; it is hard for them to have a good BCS at calving which can increase their time to cycling post calving)

Question 100

How can you tell the difference between an abscess or lumpy jaw causing a unilateral swelling of a cow’s jaw?

Answer 100

(Abscess will be freely movable, cannot move lumpy jaw lesions because they are associated with the bone)

Question 101

How can you tell the difference between lumpy jaw and bottle jaw?

Answer 101

(Bottle jaw will be in the center of the mandible, lumpy jaw will usually be unilateral)

Question 102

What are the main clinical signs seen in early infections with Mycobacterium paratuberculosis in cows?

Answer 102

(Diarrhea, and weight loss with a normal diet)

Question 103

Fecal culture for Johne’s disease has been replaced with what test which is more expensive but much faster for testing individual animals?

Answer 103

(Fecal PCR)

Question 104

What are the two fundamental principles to controlling Mycobacterium paratuberculosis on a farm?

Answer 104

(Prevent newborns/young calves from ingesting feces and getting rid of sick cattle asap to reduce total farm environmental contamination)

Question 105

What clinical sign is associated with spiny pigweed toxicosis?

Answer 105

(ADR)

Question 106

What organ system is affected by spiny pigweed toxicosis?

Answer 106

(Kidneys)

Question 107

What clinical signs are associated with jimson weed toxicosis?

Answer 107

(Increased resp rate, increased heart rate, and frequent urination and defecation)

Question 108

What clinical sign is associated with perilla mint toxicosis?

Answer 108

(Causes acute resp distress → panting)

Question 109

What are the two types of pili that Moraxella bovis can have and what do those pili do?

Answer 109

(Q pili → enhance attachment of bacteria to corneal cells; I pili → local persistence and establishment of infection)

Question 110

What is the ocular treatment for pinkeye in cattle?

Answer 110

(Bulbar scleral injection with penicillin procaine g +/- dexamethasone)

Question 111

Finding SCC lesions on which two locations associated with the eye are often more aggressive?

Answer 111

(Nictitating membrane and lower eyelid)

Question 112

If you’re looking at a herd of beef cattle and notice the majority are 3 or 4 BCS, where must the issue lie?

Answer 112

(Nutrition)

Question 113

What are the two pathophysiologic causes of bottle jaw?

Answer 113

(Hypoproteinemia (Johne’s) and right sided heart failure)

Question 114

What are the three clinical signs of traumatic reticulopericarditis?

Answer 114

(Bottle jaw, murmur, and distended jugular veins)

Question 115

After M. paratuberculosis is ingested, the bacteria are taken up by cells in what organ where they multiply and cause thickening and chronic inflammation?

Answer 115

(The ileum)

Question 116

Why does hypoproteinemia result from an infection of Mycobacterium paratuberculosis?

Answer 116

(The ileum cannot absorb amino acids d/t inflammation and there is also a loss of protein into the intestinal tract at the ileum)

Question 117

What are four cardiovascular reasons for sudden death in cattle?

Answer 117

(Selenium deficiency (usually associated with young animals and exertion followed by sudden death), ruptured great vessel (aorta, cranial mesenteric, or uterine), cardiac tamponade (hardware, heart tumor), or arrythmias)

Question 118

What are two respiratory reasons for sudden death in cattle?

Answer 118

(Pneumonia (lack of observation) and bloat (diet, position, or choke))

Question 119

(T/F) In cattle that you necropsy, finding a bloat line indicates they died from bloat.

Answer 119

(F, could just be a post-mortem artifact because most dead ruminants will eventually bloat, takes hours in the summer and days in the winter)

Question 120

What is a gastrointestinal reason for sudden death in cattle?

Answer 120

(Ruptured abomasal or cecal ulcer, usually due to copper deficiency or Clostridium perfringens infection)

Question 121

Mastitis involving gram negative bacteria, Salmonella infections, and grain overload result in what pathology that causes sudden death in cattle?

Answer 121

(Endotoxemia)

Question 122

(T/F) Clostridium perfringens infections are associated with endotoxemia.

Answer 122

(F, enterotoxemia)

Question 123

What are three metabolic reasons for sudden death in cattle?

Answer 123

(Hypocalcemia → can either bloat or have heart failure; hypomagnesemia → will usually note a hx of new pasture and no mg supplementation, and there will be disturbed ground around the head and feet of dead cows; salt intoxication)

Question 124

In an older horned animal with bigger horns, how much of the skin around the horn should be removed/devitalized to ensure you are getting all of the germinal epithelium?

Answer 124

(¼-½ inch around the entire horn)

Question 125

What are the two sites that can be used for local anesthesia for castration?

Answer 125

(Spermatic cord or intratesticular)

Question 126

Elastrator bands can be used on calves up to what weight?

Answer 126

(150 lbs)

Question 127

What tool is used for a bloodless castration in which the scrotum stays and instead testicular circulation is disrupted and the testes atrophy?

Answer 127

(Burdizzo)

Question 128

Where should fly spray be applied after castration?

Answer 128

(Fly spray should be applied around the scrotum and on the hocks)

Question 129

The cornual branch of what nerve needs to be blocked for dehorning purposes in cattle?

Answer 129

(Zygomaticotemporal nerve, runs under the temporal ridge so place 1-3 ml of lidocaine in that area)

Question 130

Why should dehorning not be performed on adult goats?

Answer 130

(High risk of sinusitis)

Question 131

(T/F) Calf castration cannot occur at birth because the testicles need a few days to descend.

Answer 131

(F, testes should be descended at birth)

Question 132

What is a good general rule for when dehorning should occur?

Answer 132

(Before the base of the horn is greater than 1 inch in diameter)

Question 133

What two nerves have cornual branches in goats that both need to be anesthetized for dehorning purposes?

Answer 133

(Infratrochlear and lacrimal nerves)

Question 134

How long will it take for the scrotum and testes to necrose and fall off when using elastrator bands?

Answer 134

(1-3 weeks)

Question 135

Of rams and bucks, which tend to bleed more when being castrated?

Answer 135

(Bucks)

Question 136

If you choose to use intratesticular pentobarbital as your anesthesia for a pig castration, which testicle should be removed first?

Answer 136

(The one you injected, this will prevent them from getting too sleepy)

Question 137

Why should angora goats not be dehorned?

Answer 137

(They use their horns to regulate their heat)

Question 138

If there is symmetrical swelling above the coronary band in cattle, it is what until proven otherwise?

Answer 138

(Foot rot)

Question 139

In cattle, what area of the upper leg is associated with the most problems?

Answer 139

(The stifle)

Question 140

Which of the claws (medial or lateral) is typically the culprit for corkscrew claw in the fore and hindlimbs?

Answer 140

(Forelimb → medial, hindlimb → lateral)