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Food Animal Med Surg > FAMS Exam 1 > Flashcards

FAMS Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What drives the bus for the history of a dairy cow (i.e. what’s the most important information to get for a dairy cow’s history)?

A

(Days in milk)

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2
Q

What does LUMMAR stand for (i.e. the main 6 things to evaluate for a dairy cow)?

A

(Lungs, uterus, mammary, metabolic, abomasum, rumen)

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3
Q

What is the worst-built portion of the bovine?

A

(The lungs)

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4
Q

Where should you default if you find nothing else wrong with a cow with a fever of unknown origin?

A

(Lungs)

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5
Q

The uterus is a common cause of problems/pathology in a cow for the first how many weeks postpartum?

A

(2 weeks)

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6
Q

(T/F) Milk production can be used to distinguish between local and systemic mastitis.

A

(F, milk production is not a good indicator of whether the problem is local or systemic)

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7
Q

What presentation defines subclinical mastitis (what does the cow look like, what does the milk look like)?

A

(Normal cow, milk with elevated somatic cells)

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8
Q

What presentation defines systemic mastitis (what does the cow look like, what does the milk look like)?

A

(8-10% dehydrated, depressed, feverish cow down in milk (>50%) and watery to brown/orange milk)

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9
Q

What two organisms are typically the cause of systemic/toxic mastitis?

A

(Coliforms - E. coli and Klebsiella)

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10
Q

How are systemic/toxic mastitis-causing organisms obtained?

A

(From the environment)

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11
Q

Cows with severe systemic illness may have sub/normal/elevated temperatures (choose one).

A

(All of the above)

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12
Q

Describe a normal rumen contraction (how many in how many minutes and what it should feel like).

A

(3 contractions every 2 minutes, your hand and stethoscope should be pushed outward during the contraction)

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13
Q

(T/F) There are no normal pings on the left side of a cow.

A

(T)

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14
Q

(T/F) Lung fields are much wider in cattle than other species.

A

(F, much narrower)

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15
Q

If a cow’s eyes are sunken, you can assume they are at least what percent dehydrated?

A

(7%)

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16
Q

Subclinical ketosis usually occurs secondarily to another pathology causing what clinical sign in cows?

A

(Anorexia)

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17
Q

What are the two ways to distinguish between a normal and abnormal ping on the right side of a cow?

A

(The size, a normal ping is typically no larger than a flat hand and an abnormal ping can span 3-4 ribs/rib spaces; consistency, a normal ping is typically inconsistent while an RDA/RTA ping is prominent and consistent)

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18
Q

You tent the skin on a cow and the skin stays tented for 4 seconds, what percent dehydrated is this cow?

A

(4%)

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19
Q

How do you distinguish between an RDA/RTA versus a cecal torsion via pinging?

A

(The pings for a cecal torsion should extend into the paralumbar fossa whereas RDA/RTA pings do not)

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20
Q

Scars have decreased strength/vascularity/cellularity (choose).

A

(All three)

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21
Q

What is the difference between a contaminated and dirty wound?

A

(A dirty wound has an active infection present, contaminated just has debris or spillage but not an infection (yet))

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22
Q

What is the benefit to choosing vertical mattress sutures over horizontal?

A

(Horizontal can impinge on peripheral healing capillaries)

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23
Q

What are three ways to manage dead space?

A

(Suturing all tissue planes separately and accurately, use of drains, and pressure dressing)

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24
Q

How do hematomas increase risk of infection in wounds?

A

(Blood is a great growth media for bacteria)

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25
Q

What is the advantage to ruminants having increased vascular density in their bones and enhanced osteogenic layer in their periosteum with lots of osteoblasts?

A

(They have a great potential for bone healing)

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26
Q

Should you start or end your farm visit/day with a necropsy?

A

(End, and if live sick animals test healthy then sick then dead)

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27
Q

Formalin fixed tissue should be no more than how many centimeters thick?

A

(3-6 cm)

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28
Q

How should solid organs be cut for submitting after a necropsy?

A

(Bread loaf style)

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29
Q

(T/F) All veterinary diagnostic specimens are considered a category B infectious substance for shipping purposes and need a special label.

A

(T)

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30
Q

Optimally, samples submitted for microbiology and/or toxicology should be fixed/fresh (choose).

A

(Fresh)

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31
Q

What are the five locations that you will most likely encounter lymphosarcoma in a cow?

A

(Hearts, abomasum, uterus, lymph nodes, and spine)

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32
Q

You are presented with a cow with a mandibular mass. You palpate it, it is hard and bony, what is likely the diagnosis and what is the causative agent?

A

(Lumpy jaw, actinomyces bovis)

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33
Q

What is the treatment for bovine papilloma virus?

A

(Leave it alone)

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34
Q

(T/F) Melanomas in cows are usually ulcerated, fairly movable, painful, and about as firm as a testicle.

A

(F, melanomas in cows can be ulcerated or not, are fairly moveable, are non-painful, and about as firm as a testicle)

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35
Q

What are two ways to distinguish between a penile hematoma and water belly in cows?

A

(Penile hematoma → firm and penile prolapse, water belly → soft and no penile prolapse usually)

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36
Q

A lump or bump on the jaw area of a small ruminant is what until proven otherwise?

A

(Caseous lymphadenitis)

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37
Q

What is the most common location where squamous cell carcinoma pops up in small ruminants?

A

(Vulva)

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38
Q

You are presented with a vulvar mass in a small ruminant, what are you most likely to suspect it is?

A

(SCC)

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39
Q

Treatment success results from the joint action of what two things (one is applied by you the vet and the other has to do with the animal you are treating)?

A

(Animal defenses and appropriate drug treatments → no antibiotic is good enough without help from the animal)

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40
Q

You are treating calves on a farm which have previously been treated as apart of a large group in an attempt to prevent disease (metaphylaxis) with draxxin, which of the following drugs could/should you now be treating the calves with? There may or may not be multiple answers that are correct.

Zactran
Micotil
Excede
Nuflor

A

(Excede (ceftiofur/cephalosporin) or nuflor (florfenicol), the other two are in the same class as draxxin (macrolide))

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41
Q

If you expect ____ (a percentage) of calves or greater to be at risk for respiratory disease upon arrival to a farm, you should use metaphylaxis.

A

(35%)

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42
Q

You are currently dealing with an outbreak of respiratory disease in a herd of calves. At this time, you are still just treating individually identified sick calves but in what two situations would you pursue metaphylaxis?

A

(If you were to treat 25% or greater of the calves in the herd in one day OR if for three consecutive days, you have to treat 10% of the calves in the herd)

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43
Q

What three areas of the body are targeted by mycoplasma?

A

(Lungs (pneumonia), joints (lameness), and ears (ear infections, head tilt))

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44
Q

Why might calves with Mycoplasma infections be harder to identify for respiratory disease when compared to calves with Mannheimia infections?

A

(Mycoplasma does not produce the leukotoxin that Mannheimia does so calves with myco are usually not as ADR or off-feed like those with Mannheimia infections)

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45
Q

(T/F) Once a calf has joint issues related to a Mycoplasma infection, they will not be able to recover and should be euthanized.

A

(F, most calves will recover if given enough time and the appropriate husbandry (small lot with easy access to feed/water); myco attacks the joint capsules, not the cartilage itself)

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46
Q

What is the treatment for Histophilus somni?

A

(Prevention with CTC, 1 gm per 100 lbs body weight for 5 days)

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47
Q

Optimally how long would you wait and get the producer to wait after administering a long acting antibiotic prior to switching and treating with another antibiotic?

A

(48 hours, look for an improvement in attitude and appetite and a reduction in fever if there is one)

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48
Q

Of the following options, which is most important in preventing BRDC?
A - Vaccination programs
B - Metaphylaxis upon calf arrival
C - Appropriate calf purchasing, nutrition, and preventing other stressors

A

(C)

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49
Q

What are preconditioned calves?

A

(Calves that have been vaccinated at least 2 weeks prior to shipping, weaned for at least 45 days, and trained to eat and drink from a trough)

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50
Q

What vaccines should a preconditioned calf have received?

A

(IBR/BVD 1+2/PI3/BRSV combo, Mannheimia hemolytica, and 7-way clostridial/black leg)

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51
Q

What is appropriate processing for category 1 calves upon arrival to a new facility?

A

(Deworm them, delice them, and give them a coccidiostat)

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52
Q

What is appropriate processing for category 2 calves upon arrival to a new facility?

A

(Vaccinate with 5-way and 7-way within 24 hours of arrival, same parasite control as category 1)

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53
Q

Should metaphylaxis be considered for appropriate processing for category 3 calves upon arrival at a new facility?

A

(Yes, in addition to removing them from the market asap, providing fresh, clean water and free choice excellent quality hay, vaccinating them, administering parasite control and selenium, and +/- administering Pasteurella toxoid vax)

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54
Q

What is the most common sample taken for BVD testing?

A

(An ear notch, can then perform ELISA or IHC)

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55
Q

What is the toxic agent associated with wild cherries?

A

(Cyanide)

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56
Q

How does the toxin associated with wild cherries cause damage in the body?

A

(It irreversible binds oxygen to hemoglobin → venous blood will be bright ‘cherry’ red)

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57
Q

The onset of wild cherry toxicosis is within minutes/hours/days (choose).

A

(Minutes → 15-20 to be specific)

58
Q

(T/F) Wild cherries are toxic in any stage and any part of the plant.

A

(F, only the wilted leaves are toxic)

59
Q

What is the treatment for wild cherry toxicosis?

A

(Sodium thiosulfate and sodium nitrate combo, 100-250ml IV)

60
Q

The onset of Japanese yew toxicosis is within minutes/hours/days (choose).

A

(Hours → 1-3 to be specific)

61
Q

What is the toxic agent associated with Japanese yew plants?

A

(Taxine)

62
Q

What are the clinical signs associated with buckeye toxicosis? Two answers.

A

(Stilted gait/goose stepping and down with hyperesthesia)

63
Q

What are the two principle toxins associated with buckeye toxicosis?

A

(Aesculin and fraxin, both are glycosides)

64
Q

What organ is affected by Japanese yew toxicosis?

A

(The heart)

65
Q

What organ is affected by buckeye toxicosis?

A

(The brain)

66
Q

The onset of buckeye toxicosis is within minutes/hours/days (choose).

A

(Hours → 12-24)

67
Q

What is the treatment for buckeye toxicosis?

A

(Sedation (xylazine/acepromazine) and monitoring to prevent injury until the toxins leave their system)

68
Q

What organ is affected by acorn toxicosis?

A

(Kidney, causes renal tubular necrosis; also GI but that’s not what kills them, causes watery black diarrhea)

69
Q

The onset of acorn toxicosis is within minutes/hours/days (choose).

A

(Days until clinical signs are apparent)

70
Q

What is the treatment for acorn toxicosis?

A

(Supportive (IV and oral fluids), usually unrewarding)

71
Q

What is the typical presentation of a cow with acorn toxicity?

A

(ADR with dark diarrhea +/- ruminal distension d/t fluid)

72
Q

What is the toxic agent associated with acorns?

A

(Tannins)

73
Q

(T/F) If pregnant cows ingest a non-lethal amount of acorns, it can result in birth defects in the calf.

A

(T)

74
Q

Why does fescue cause early embryonic death in cows that are bred during the summer?

A

(Because fescue raises body temp by 1-2 degrees and in addition to the heat of the summer, makes the cows body temp incompatible for an embryo)

75
Q

You are presented with a goat that has generalized weakness. While you are examining it, the goat projectile vomits all over you. What is wrong with this goat?

A

(It has rhododendron toxicosis, tx is supportive care)

76
Q

What is the pathogenesis of nitrate toxicity?

A

(Hemoglobin gets converted into methemoglobin, can no longer bind oxygen and patient will be anoxic → exercise intolerant, down, ‘seizures’, and belligerent)

77
Q

What is the treatment for nitrate toxicity?

A

(Methylene blue IV (1% solution at 10mg/kg; or 1cc vitamin C per 5 pounds if methylene blue unavailable)

78
Q

If you are presented with a cow that has an ulcer that reaches the edge of the sclera, what differential diagnosis will be higher on your list?

A

(Foreign body)

79
Q

If you are presented with a cow with unilateral, central ulcers of the eye, what are two possible infectious etiologies?

A

(IBK and listeriosis)

80
Q

What is the main worry associated with infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis?

A

(Weight loss associated with the pain of the eye lesion)

81
Q

(T/F) Pinkeye can be associated with decreased milk production in cows and therefore less growth in calves.

A

(T)

82
Q

What are the main ocular signs of pinkeye? Seven answers :).

A

(Epiphora, scleral injection, corneal edema, central corneal ulcer, and neovascularization; will also see photophobia and blepharospasm)

83
Q

What results from a cow being down for too long?

A

(Compartment syndrome)

84
Q

If a cow is down, what is a simple diagnostic test you can perform to rule in or out certain general categories of disease?

A

(Offer them grain, if they eat it leans towards a certain group of dzs and a different group if they don’t eat)

85
Q

If you offer a down cow grain and they eat, what are the three general diseases that may be affecting this cow?

A

(Musculoskeletal injury, peripheral/spinal nerve injury, or starvation)

86
Q

If you offer a down cow grain and they do not eat, what are the three general diseases that may be affecting this cow?

A

(Septicemia, mineral deficiency, or toxicity)

87
Q

One of the important questions you should ask when presented with a down cow is where are they in their production cycle; if the cow is in the last two months of gestation, what diseases are more likely? Three answers.

A

(Starvation, musculoskeletal injury, or winter tetany)

88
Q

One of the important questions you should ask when presented with a down cow is where are they in their production cycle; if the cow is down immediately post calving what diseases are more likely? Three answers.

A

(Musculoskeletal injury, mineral deficiency, and toxic mastitis)

89
Q

One of the important questions you should ask when presented with a down cow is where are they in their production cycle; if the cow is 2-30 days post partum what diseases are more likely? Four answers.

A

(Musculoskeletal injury, mineral deficiency, toxic mastitis, or toxic metritis)

90
Q

What is the typical presentation of a calf that results in calving paralysis in its dam?

A

(Dead, if the calf is alive it will have a swollen head and bruised gums)

91
Q

If a cow with calving paralysis is able to stand after calving (which is rare), where do they tend to knuckle their rear legs due to their injury?

A

(At the fetlock)

92
Q

What is the treatment for calving paralysis?

A

(Prevent compartment syndrome and anti-inflammatories; start with dex in the beginning and follow up with NSAIDs)

93
Q

T/F) Spinal nerve damage, often due to lymphosarcoma, disc disease, or abscesses, treatment is unrewarding.

A

(T)

94
Q

How does the treatment for milk fever and grass tetany differ?

A

(They don’t, both get 1-2 500ml bottles of CMPK (if you said to tell the farmer to follow up with oral magnesium for grass tetany cases, here’s a star, collect 5 and I’ll bake you cookies))

95
Q

What three minerals are deficient in winter tetany cases?

A

(Calcium, magnesium, and potassium → all will be low but not low enough to cause the cow to be down, it’s the combo that gets ya)

96
Q

What are the parameters of beef cow BCS for idiots?

A

(Fat in the tail head six or greater, no fat in the tail head, five or less!; make sure you make a song out of it and you won’t forget)

97
Q

Where do you see prominent fat in beef cows with a BCS of 8 or greater?

A

(The brisket)

98
Q

Is it easier or harder to have a fall calving cow at a good BCS during calving?

A

(Easier, lots of good grass mid to late gestation in fall calving cows; it is hard for them to gain weight during the breeding season which can decrease fertility)

99
Q

Is it easier or harder to have a spring calving cow gaining weight during breeding season?

A

(Easier, lots of good grass around breeding time for spring calving cows; it is hard for them to have a good BCS at calving which can increase their time to cycling post calving)

100
Q

How can you tell the difference between an abscess or lumpy jaw causing a unilateral swelling of a cow’s jaw?

A

(Abscess will be freely movable, cannot move lumpy jaw lesions because they are associated with the bone)

101
Q

How can you tell the difference between lumpy jaw and bottle jaw?

A

(Bottle jaw will be in the center of the mandible, lumpy jaw will usually be unilateral)

102
Q

What are the main clinical signs seen in early infections with Mycobacterium paratuberculosis in cows?

A

(Diarrhea, and weight loss with a normal diet)

103
Q

Fecal culture for Johne’s disease has been replaced with what test which is more expensive but much faster for testing individual animals?

A

(Fecal PCR)

104
Q

What are the two fundamental principles to controlling Mycobacterium paratuberculosis on a farm?

A

(Prevent newborns/young calves from ingesting feces and getting rid of sick cattle asap to reduce total farm environmental contamination)

105
Q

What clinical sign is associated with spiny pigweed toxicosis?

A

(ADR)

106
Q

What organ system is affected by spiny pigweed toxicosis?

A

(Kidneys)

107
Q

What clinical signs are associated with jimson weed toxicosis?

A

(Increased resp rate, increased heart rate, and frequent urination and defecation)

108
Q

What clinical sign is associated with perilla mint toxicosis?

A

(Causes acute resp distress → panting)

109
Q

What are the two types of pili that Moraxella bovis can have and what do those pili do?

A

(Q pili → enhance attachment of bacteria to corneal cells; I pili → local persistence and establishment of infection)

110
Q

What is the ocular treatment for pinkeye in cattle?

A

(Bulbar scleral injection with penicillin procaine g +/- dexamethasone)

111
Q

Finding SCC lesions on which two locations associated with the eye are often more aggressive?

A

(Nictitating membrane and lower eyelid)

112
Q

If you’re looking at a herd of beef cattle and notice the majority are 3 or 4 BCS, where must the issue lie?

A

(Nutrition)

113
Q

What are the two pathophysiologic causes of bottle jaw?

A

(Hypoproteinemia (Johne’s) and right sided heart failure)

114
Q

What are the three clinical signs of traumatic reticulopericarditis?

A

(Bottle jaw, murmur, and distended jugular veins)

115
Q

After M. paratuberculosis is ingested, the bacteria are taken up by cells in what organ where they multiply and cause thickening and chronic inflammation?

A

(The ileum)

116
Q

Why does hypoproteinemia result from an infection of Mycobacterium paratuberculosis?

A

(The ileum cannot absorb amino acids d/t inflammation and there is also a loss of protein into the intestinal tract at the ileum)

117
Q

What are four cardiovascular reasons for sudden death in cattle?

A

(Selenium deficiency (usually associated with young animals and exertion followed by sudden death), ruptured great vessel (aorta, cranial mesenteric, or uterine), cardiac tamponade (hardware, heart tumor), or arrythmias)

118
Q

What are two respiratory reasons for sudden death in cattle?

A

(Pneumonia (lack of observation) and bloat (diet, position, or choke))

119
Q

(T/F) In cattle that you necropsy, finding a bloat line indicates they died from bloat.

A

(F, could just be a post-mortem artifact because most dead ruminants will eventually bloat, takes hours in the summer and days in the winter)

120
Q

What is a gastrointestinal reason for sudden death in cattle?

A

(Ruptured abomasal or cecal ulcer, usually due to copper deficiency or Clostridium perfringens infection)

121
Q

Mastitis involving gram negative bacteria, Salmonella infections, and grain overload result in what pathology that causes sudden death in cattle?

A

(Endotoxemia)

122
Q

(T/F) Clostridium perfringens infections are associated with endotoxemia.

A

(F, enterotoxemia)

123
Q

What are three metabolic reasons for sudden death in cattle?

A

(Hypocalcemia → can either bloat or have heart failure; hypomagnesemia → will usually note a hx of new pasture and no mg supplementation, and there will be disturbed ground around the head and feet of dead cows; salt intoxication)

124
Q

In an older horned animal with bigger horns, how much of the skin around the horn should be removed/devitalized to ensure you are getting all of the germinal epithelium?

A

(¼-½ inch around the entire horn)

125
Q

What are the two sites that can be used for local anesthesia for castration?

A

(Spermatic cord or intratesticular)

126
Q

Elastrator bands can be used on calves up to what weight?

A

(150 lbs)

127
Q

What tool is used for a bloodless castration in which the scrotum stays and instead testicular circulation is disrupted and the testes atrophy?

A

(Burdizzo)

128
Q

Where should fly spray be applied after castration?

A

(Fly spray should be applied around the scrotum and on the hocks)

129
Q

The cornual branch of what nerve needs to be blocked for dehorning purposes in cattle?

A

(Zygomaticotemporal nerve, runs under the temporal ridge so place 1-3 ml of lidocaine in that area)

130
Q

Why should dehorning not be performed on adult goats?

A

(High risk of sinusitis)

131
Q

(T/F) Calf castration cannot occur at birth because the testicles need a few days to descend.

A

(F, testes should be descended at birth)

132
Q

What is a good general rule for when dehorning should occur?

A

(Before the base of the horn is greater than 1 inch in diameter)

133
Q

What two nerves have cornual branches in goats that both need to be anesthetized for dehorning purposes?

A

(Infratrochlear and lacrimal nerves)

134
Q

How long will it take for the scrotum and testes to necrose and fall off when using elastrator bands?

A

(1-3 weeks)

135
Q

Of rams and bucks, which tend to bleed more when being castrated?

A

(Bucks)

136
Q

If you choose to use intratesticular pentobarbital as your anesthesia for a pig castration, which testicle should be removed first?

A

(The one you injected, this will prevent them from getting too sleepy)

137
Q

Why should angora goats not be dehorned?

A

(They use their horns to regulate their heat)

138
Q

If there is symmetrical swelling above the coronary band in cattle, it is what until proven otherwise?

A

(Foot rot)

139
Q

In cattle, what area of the upper leg is associated with the most problems?

A

(The stifle)

140
Q

Which of the claws (medial or lateral) is typically the culprit for corkscrew claw in the fore and hindlimbs?

A

(Forelimb → medial, hindlimb → lateral)

Food Animal Med Surg (32 decks)

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