14

Question 1

12. Ivermectin doesn’t kill
    a. anoplocephala
    b. gasterophilus
    c. small strongyles

Answer 1

a. anoplocephala (horse tapeworm)

Question 2

13. Salmon poisoning is DX by
    a. aspirating LN looking for intracellular neorickettsia and fecal float looking for nanophytes fluke ova
    b. Biopsy LN look for rickettsial agent, fecal for adult nanophytes

Answer 2

a. aspirating LN looking for intracellular neorickettsia and fecal float looking for nanophytes fluke ova

Question 3

14. Abortion in dogs
    a. prolactin inhibitors
    b. May use dex and

Answer 3

a. prolactin inhibitors (Dopamine agonists = bromocryptine)

Question 4

15. What drug is used for treating conjunctivitis due to chlamydophila tx
    a. Tetracycline
    b. Neomycin
    c. Amikacin
    d. Gentamicin

Answer 4

a. Tetracycline

Question 5

16. Physaloptera =

Answer 5

stomach roundworm of dogs/ cats

Question 6

17. Transmission of WEE to humans is:
    a. rare occurrence
    b. Often if interacting with viremic horse
    c. Rare if horse is subclinical
    d. Rare because horses die acutely

Answer 6

a. rare occurrence

Question 7

13. Acepromazine is given as a preanesthetic:
    a. Decreases seizure threshold (increases actually)
    b. Hypotension and tachycardia
    c. Easily temporarily reversible by stimulating patient
    d. It potentiates general anesthetic drugs

Answer 7

d. It potentiates general anesthetic drugs

Question 8

19. Liver disease patient anesthesia protocol = nothing with barbiturate
    a. Ace, thio, iso
    b. Morphine, ket/val, iso
    c. Ace, thio, halothane

Answer 8

b. Morphine, ket/val, iso

Question 9

20. Eye surgery = non-depolarizing NMBA (atracurium)
    a. Propofol
    b. Ketamine

Answer 9

a. Propofol

Question 10

21. Canary presents for voice change and has lesions in liver, lung, spleen and heart. What is the diagnosis?
    a. Aspergillus
    b. Avian pox
    c. Polyoma virus
    d. Pacheco’s disease

Answer 10

c. Polyoma virus

Question 11

22. Polyarthritis in dogs = RMSF (Rickettsia rickettsii), Canine Granulocytic ehrlichosis (Anaplasma phagocytophilum), Lyme Disease (Borrelia burgdorferi),
    a. Coccidioidiomycosis
    b. Blastomycosis
    c. Histoplasma
    d. E. canis

Answer 11

a. Coccidioidiomycosis

Question 12

23. Lymphadenopathy, fever, inclusions in neutrophils (granulocytes), icterus in cow =

Answer 12

Bovine Granulocytic ehrlichiosis caused by Anaplasma phagocytophilum transmitted by Ixodes pacificus in CA

Question 13

24. What pathogen is a major concern in milk?
    a. Leptospirosis
    b. Brucella
    c. Salmonella

Answer 13

b. Brucella

Question 14

25. Horse with dental disease of caudal maxillary molars. Where can this spread to?
    a. maxillary sinusitis
    b. TMG
    c. Eyes

Answer 14

a. maxillary sinusitis

Question 15

26. Budgerigar colony with increased death, lesions in heart, lungs, spleen, liver =

Answer 15

polyoma virus

Question 16

27. Pregnant mare with T=100.2, P=48, R=20
    a. Normal
    b. Normal temp, increase P and R
    c. Febrile, high P and R

Answer 16

b. Normal temp, increase P and R

Question 17

1. Diagnosing feline pancreatitis
   a. TLI
   b. Amylase
   c. ALP
   d. Triglycerides

Answer 17

a. TLI

Question 18

2. 9 month old Filly with mandibular swelling, stridor, respiratory distress. What do you do?
   a. Insufflate with O2, treat with penicillin
   b. Insufflate with O2, treat with gentamicin
   c. Perform tracheostomy and treat with penicillin
   d. Perform tracheostomy and treat with gentamicin

Answer 18

(STRANGLES?)

c. Perform tracheostomy and treat with penicillin

Question 19

3. How do you treat a rabbit with perineal myiasis?
   a. Mechanical removal
   b. Ivermectin
   c. Flush with chlorhex
   d. Put some Tyzzer’s on it to combat the maggots

Answer 19

a. Mechanical removal

Question 20

4. Area of ping for LDA?
   a. Entire paralumbar fossa bilaterally
   b. Entire left paralumbar fossa, extending to vertebrae
   c. Left paralumbar fossa from tuber coxae cranial to 13th rib
   d. Left paralumbar fossa extending cranial to 11th rib (RDA)

Answer 20

c. Left paralumbar fossa from tuber coxae cranial to 13th rib

Question 21

5. Area of lesions on necropsy of horse that died of sand colic?
   a. Small intestine
   b. Large colon
   c. Cecum
   d. Epiploic foramen

Answer 21

b. Large colon

Question 22

6. Hound gets attacked by a bear one week prior to presentation with generalized muscle rigidity, lips pulled back and ears erect?
   a. Tetanus
   b. Distemper
   c. Rabies
   d. Smiler’s disease

Answer 22

a. Tetanus

Question 23

7. What is the only legal course of action for a dairy cow that has fractured its metacarpus, is down and the owner doesn’t want to treat it?
   a. Transport to federal slaughter house and notify of condition beforehand
   b. Transport to state slaughter house
   c. Euthanize and dispose of carcass according to state and county regs
   d. Slaughter on the dairy for meat consumption

Answer 23

c. Euthanize and dispose of carcass according to state and county regs

Question 24

8. Cat in carrier sitting quietly, then attacks the front of the carrier. What group of diseases should be considered?
   a. Rabies, hepatic encephalopathy, lead poisoning
   b. Rabies, tetanus, lead poisoning

Answer 24

b. Rabies, tetanus, lead poisoning

Question 25

9. Kitten presents with obtundation, ventrolateral strabismus, a noticeable fontanelle. What do you suspect? a. Hydrocephalus b. Toxoplasmosis

Answer 25

a. Hydrocephalus

Question 26

10. Normal incubation for Rhodococcus equi? a. 1-2 days b. 7-10 days c. 14-21 days d. 4 weeks

Answer 26

c. 14-21 days (according to VIN)

Question 27

11. 10 yo Cocker presents for hind leg weakness and has diffuse edema of pelvic limbs. What diagnostic steps should you take? a. Palpate LN, cardiac auscultation, abdominal rads b. Palpate LN, electrocardiogram (ECG), abdominal u/s or rads c. Lymphography, LN aspirate, abdominal u/s d. Lymphography, auscult heart, something else

Answer 27

a. Palpate LN, cardiac auscultation, abdominal rads

Question 28

12. Horse has been treated and is ready to go. Client refuses to pay bill as he is going bankrupt. What can you legally do? a. Hold horse and charge for board b. Refuse client entry to clinic c. Claim horse as yours d. Euthanize the horse with a swift kick to the larynx e. With the five point open palmed exploding heart technique

Answer 28

a. Hold horse and charge for board (Lien laws)

Question 29

13. Cat in a shelter, has a positive ELISA for FeLV. How do you confirm cat has FeLV? a. ELISA test after 6 months b. Isolate positive animals and perform IFA in a few months.

Answer 29

a. ELISA test after 6 months | b. Isolate positive animals and perform IFA in a few months.

Question 30

14. How long after 1st rabies vaccination before animal is considered vaccinated?

Answer 30

a. 28 days

Question 31

15. Who is vet responsible for with radiographs?

Answer 31

a. People under 18 yo, owner, pregnant women, responsible for making sure employees have on radiation detection badges

Question 32

16. What by law is DVM required to post on their door?

Answer 32

a. E. coli or strep. Species that's not strep agalactiae

Question 33

18. What is incubation period for strangles (Strep equi equi)?

Answer 33

a. 3-10days (3-14 days according to Merck)

Question 34

19. Goat has polyarthritis with white chalky material coming from joints . What is it? a. Mycoplasma (M. mycoides spp. Mycoides causes polyarthritis with necrosis) b. Bluetongue c. CAEV

Answer 34

c. CAEV ( causes polyarthritis with calcification)

Question 35

What kind of ovulators are Rabbits, ferrets, cats, and camelids?

Answer 35

Induced

Question 36

21. Where do you give an injection in a turtle?

Answer 36

Amikacin IM in front leg

Question 37

22. Horse has hooks on premolars and molars. What causes this? a. Soft feed b. Missing teeth c. Jaw grown wrong

Answer 37

c. Jaw grown wrong (points in front of the front cheek teeth and in the back of the back caudal teeth)

Question 38

23. Sheep has caseous lymphadenopathy. What is this?

Answer 38

a. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

Question 39

24. A horse with sarcoids (tumors of eye, skin, genitals). What is NOT a treatment? a. Vaccine b. Ointment (xxterra)

Answer 39

TX IS USUALLY benign neglect or sx, chemo, cryo, radiation a. Vaccine

Question 40

25. Horse with Anaplasma (Equine Granulocytic Ehrlichiosis). How do you dx? a. Serum Ab b. Buffy coat(intracellular inclusion bodies in neutrophils and eosinophils) c. RBC smear d. Infected neutrophils

Answer 40

b. Buffy coat(intracellular inclusion bodies in neutrophils and eosinophils) d. Infected neutrophils

Question 41

26. Rabbit has headtilt. What infectious disease causes this?

Answer 41

a. P. multocida and E. cuniculi

Question 42

27. Horse with anterior uveitis. What are signs of anterior uveitis?

Answer 42

a. Miosis, blepharospasm, low intraocular pressure, hyperemia

Question 43

28. Foal with Ca, Phos, protein values listed. Are these values high or low(Values given on test were low)?

Answer 43

a. Normal: (protein=14-16%, Ca=1% , Phos=0.75%; Ca:P = 1:3)

Question 44

29. Cat with ethylene glycol poisoning. How do you treat?

Answer 44

Ethanol

Question 45

30. Dog with hip problems. Has hyperreflexia of patella and pelvic limb propreception abnormalities, other abnormalities. Where do you localize the lesion to?

Answer 45

a. T3-L3

Question 46

31. Dog in DIC. Where are the symptoms of DIC?

Answer 46

a. Thrombocytopenia, decreased fibrinogen, increased D-dimers, increased PT/PTT, increased FDP

Question 47

32. Dog with fractured tibia. Where do you make the incision?

Answer 47

a. Craniomedial

Question 48

33. Geese with floppy neck. What is it?

Answer 48

a. Botulism

Question 49

34. Cow with Strep agalactia (contagious mastitis). How do you treat it?

Answer 49

a. Quaratine, intramammary cefa during lactation, post-dip teats and cull if chronic

Question 50

35. What is common cause of mastitis?

Answer 50

a. Contagious: Strep agalactiae, S. aureus, M. bovis b. Environmental: E. coli, Strep dysagalactiae, strep uberus c. DX: elevated SCC (nucleated cells found in milk >600,000), CMT (>1+), culture d. TX: frequent milking, intramammary (Cefa) and systemic antibiotics, fluids, NSAIDs (banamine); cull if chronic