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MBBS Y5 > Surgery - General Surgery > Flashcards

Surgery - General Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

define a fistula

A

an abnormal connection between 2 epithelial surfaces

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2
Q

what does a “mercedes benz” scar on the abdomen indicate?

A

liver transplant

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3
Q

what does a hockey stick scar indicate?

A

renal transplant

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4
Q

at which 3 stages is the surgical safety checklist carried out?

A

NAME?

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5
Q

what is the ASA grade?

A

a scoring system to classify the physical status of a patient for anaesthesia

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6
Q

indications for a pre-op ECG?

A
  • possible CVD| - aged >65
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7
Q

how long should the patient have been nil by mouth for pre-surgery

A

6 hours of no food and 2 hours of no fluids (true NBM)

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8
Q

pre-op management of pts on warfarin?

A

NAME?

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9
Q

when should contraception with oestrogen in it be stopped pre-op?

A

4 weeks before surgery

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10
Q

peri-op management of pts on long term steroids?

A
  • additional IV hydrocortisone at induction| - double normal steroid dose post-op
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11
Q

drugs to be stopped pre-op?

A

NAME?

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12
Q

diabetes drugs and their complications peri-op?

A

NAME?

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13
Q

management of insulin peri-op?

A
  • long acting: reduce dose- short acting: stop - start “sliding scale”
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14
Q

what is a “sliding scale”?

A

variable rate insulin infusion along with glucose, NaCl and K+ infusions

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15
Q

what are the options for VTE prophylaxis?

A

NAME?

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16
Q

what are the 4 components of having the capacity to make a decision?

A

NAME?

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17
Q

what is a lasting power of attorney (LPA)?

A

when a person legally nominates someone to make decisions on their behalf IF they lack mental capacity

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18
Q

in which settings is a deprivation of liberty safeguards (DoLS) valid? what does this mean?

A

NAME?

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19
Q

what are the 4 types of consent form?

A
  • 1: pt consenting - 2: parent consenting on behalf of child- 3: pt will not lose consciousness for the procedure- 4: pt lacks capacity
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20
Q

NSAIDs are contraindicated in….

A

NAME?

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21
Q

what is patient controlled analgesia (PCA)?

A

NAME?

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22
Q

examples of strong opiates?

A

NAME?

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23
Q

risk factors for post-op nausea and vomiting (PONV)?

A

NAME?

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24
Q

which anti-emetics can be used prophylactically post-op?

A

NAME?

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25
Q

MOA of ondansetron? it should be avoided in….

A
  • serotonin receptor antagonist| - pts at risk of long QT interval
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26
Q

dexamethasone drug class? it should be used with caution in…

A
  • corticosteroid| - diabetes, immunocompromised pts
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27
Q

MOA of cyclizine? it should be used with caution in….

A
  • histamine receptor antagonist| - HF, elderly
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28
Q

which antiemetics can be used for episodes of PONV?

A

NAME?

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29
Q

MOA of prochloperazine? it must be avoided in…

A
  • dopamine receptor antagonist| - parkinson’s!!!!
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30
Q

non-drug management of PONV?

A

pressure on P6 acupuncture point of wrist

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31
Q

3 methods of enteral feeding?

A

NAME?

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32
Q

what is total parenteral nutrition (TPN)?

A
  • IV infusion of all nutrients| - done via central line
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33
Q

potential post-op complications?

A

NAME?

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34
Q

what is a “third space”? give some examples

A
  • space in body where there shouldn’t be any fluid- peritoneal cavity (ascites)- pleural cavity (pleural effusion)- pericardial cavity (pericardial effusion)- joints (effusion)
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35
Q

which pts require fluid restriction?

A
  • HF- CKD- hyponatraemia (low Na+)
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36
Q

examples of insensible fluid loss?

A

NAME?

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37
Q

signs of hypovolaemia?

A
  • systolic BP <100- HR >90- CRT >2 secs- RR >20- cold peripheries- dry mucous mems, loss of skin turgor, sunken eyes- reduced body weight - reduced UO
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38
Q

signs of fluid overload?

A

NAME?

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39
Q

signs O/E of pulmonary oedema?

A

NAME?

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40
Q

what are the 3 main indications for IV fluids?

A

NAME?

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41
Q

indications for fluid resuscitation?

A
  • sepsis| - hypotension
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42
Q

examples of indications for fluid replacement?

A
  • vomiting| - diarrhoea
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43
Q

example of indication for maintenance fluids?

A

NBM due to bowel obstruction

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44
Q

what are the 2 types of IV fluid?

A
  • crystalloid| - colloid
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45
Q

examples of crystalloid fluids?

A
  • 0.9% NaCl (normal saline)- 5% dextrose- hartmann’s solution - plasma-lyte 148
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46
Q

which condition benefits from being given human albumin solution?

A

decompensated liver disease

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47
Q

what type of fluid is used in resuscitation? give some examples

A

isotonic ones:- 0.9% saline - hartmann’s solution- plasma-lyte 148

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48
Q

how is fluid resuscitation carried out?

A
  • A-E assessment to find out fluid status- initial 500ml fluid bolus over 15 mins (stat)- repeat A-E assessment - repeat fluid bolus if necessary- seek expert help if no response after 2L of fluid
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49
Q

which fluids can never be infused rapidly?

A
  • any containing high K+ conc| - risk of arrhythmia or cardiac arrest
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50
Q

principles of using maintenance fluids?

A

NAME?

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51
Q

examples of when maintenance fluids would be needed?

A

negative fluid balance unable to take PO fluids:- NBM waiting for surgery- bowel obstruction

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52
Q

what should be included in maintenance fluids?

A
  • 25-30ml / kg / day water- 1 mmol / kg / day Na+, K+ and Cl- - 50-100g / day glucose
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53
Q

why is glucose included in maintenance fluids?

A
  • to prevent ketosis| - NOT to meet nutritional needs
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54
Q

how is overprescribing of maintenance fluids in obese patients prevented?

A

use ideal body weight instead of BMI

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55
Q

monitoring requirements of maintenance fluids?

A

to be done at least daily: - fluid status assessment - look at fluid balance chart- UEs

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56
Q

in which patient groups should maintenance fluids be prescribed with caution?

A

NAME?

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57
Q

differentials for generalised abdominal pain?

A

NAME?

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58
Q

differentials for RUQ pain?

A

NAME?

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59
Q

differentials for epigastric pain?

A

NAME?

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60
Q

differentials for central abdominal pain?

A

NAME?

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61
Q

differentials for RIF pain?

A
  • appendicitis (later)- ectopic pregnancy- ruptured ovarian cyst- ovarian torsion- meckel’s diverticulitis
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62
Q

differentials for LIF pain?

A

NAME?

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63
Q

differentials for suprapubic pain?

A

NAME?

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64
Q

differentials for loin to groin pain?

A

NAME?

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65
Q

differentials for testicular pain?

A
  • testicular torsion| - epididymo-orchitis
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66
Q

signs of peritonitis?

A

NAME?

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67
Q

how can peritonitis be classified?

A

NAME?

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68
Q

prognosis in SBP?

A

poor

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69
Q

management of the acute abdomen patient?

A

NAME?

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70
Q

pre-surgical management of acute abdomen?

A

NAME?

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71
Q

peak incidence of appendicitis?

A
  • ages 10-20| - less common in young children and >50s
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72
Q

where is the appendix found?

A
  • arises from caecum| - where the 3 teniae coli meet (longitudinal colon muscles)
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73
Q

what happens when the appendix ruptures?

A

NAME?

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74
Q

presentation of appendicitis?

A
  • abdo pain which starts off central, then moves to RIF within 24h- tenderness at mcburney’s point - anorexia, N+V- low-grade fever- rovsing’s sign- guarding - rebound tenderness- tender to percuss
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75
Q

where is mcburney’s point

A

1/3 of the way from the ASIS to the umbilicus

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76
Q

describe rovsing’s sign. where is this seen?

A
  • palpating the LIF causes pain in the RIF| - appendicitis
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77
Q

how is appendicitis diagnosed?

A

NAME?

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78
Q

key differentials for appendicitis?

A
  • ectopic pregnancy (check bHCG)- ovarian cysts- meckel’s diverticulum - mesenteric adenitis
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79
Q

describe meckel’s diverticulum. which complications could it cause?

A

NAME?

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80
Q

what is mesenteric adenitis? which conditions is it associated with?

A

NAME?

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81
Q

what causes an appendix mass?

A
  • when the omentum sticks to the inflamed appendix| - forms mass in RIF
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82
Q

management of appendicitis?

A

NAME?

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83
Q

advantages of laparoscopic surgery over open surgery for appendicitis?

A
  • fewer risks| - faster recovery
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84
Q

complications of appendicectomy?

A

NAME?

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85
Q

which type of bowel obstruction is more common, small or large?

A

small

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86
Q

how does bowel obstruction result in fluid loss? what determines the severity of this?

A
  • colon should be absorbing fluid but the fluid cannot reach it because of blockage- results in “third spacing”- higher up the obstruction, the worse the third spacing
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87
Q

3 main causes of bowel obstruction?

A

NAME?

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88
Q

less common causes of bowel obstruction?

A
  • volvulus (large bowel)- diverticular disease- strictures secondary to Crohn’s- intusussception
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89
Q

causes of adhesions?

A

NAME?

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90
Q

presentation of bowel obstruction?

A
  • green, bilious vomiting- abdo distension- diffuse abdo pain- obstipation- “tinkling” bowel sounds in early stages
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91
Q

initial investigation of choice and findings in bowel obstruction?

A

NAME?

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92
Q

complications of bowel obstruction?

A

NAME?

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93
Q

findings on bloods in bowel obstruction?

A

NAME?

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94
Q

initial management of a bowel obstruction?

A

NAME?

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95
Q

investigations for bowel obstruction?

A

NAME?

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96
Q

surgical management of bowel obstruction?

A
  • exploratory surgery if cause unclearotherwise depends on cause:- adhesiolysis- hernia repair- emergency resection - stent to move tumour out of way if Ca cause
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97
Q

pathophysiology of ileus?

A

temporary cessation of peristalsis in the small bowel

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98
Q

causes of ileus?

A

NAME?

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99
Q

which electrolyte imbalances could cause ileus?

A
  • hypokalaemia| - hyponatraemia
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100
Q

commonest time to have ileus? prognosis?

A
  • straight after abdo surgery| - self-resolves within a few days
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101
Q

presentation of ileus?

A

literally identical to that of BO: - green, bilious vomiting- abdo distension- diffuse abdo pain- obstipation- ABSENT bowel sounds instead of tinkling

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102
Q

management of ileus?

A

NAME?

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103
Q

pathophysiology of volvulus?

A
  • bowel twists around on itself and surrounding mesentery| - causes closed-loop obstruction
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104
Q

what is a closed loop bowel obstruction?

A

when an area of bowl is isolated by obstruction on either side of it

105
Q

types of volvulus? hint: where they happen

A
  • sigmoid volvulus| - caecal volvulus
106
Q

most common type of volvulus? typical demographic affected?

A
  • sigmoid volvulus| - elderly
107
Q

risk factors for volvulus?

A
  • parkinson’s - being a nursing home resident- chronic constipation - high fibre diet- pregnancy- presence of adhesions
108
Q

presentation of volvulus? hint: same as BO

A

NAME?

109
Q

how is volvulus diagnosed?

A
  • abdo XR shows “coffee bean” sign in sigmoid volvulus| - confirmed with contrast CT
110
Q

initial management of volvulus?

A

same initial management as BO:- make NBM- NG tube- IV fluids

111
Q

conservative management of volvulus?

A

endoscopic decompression

112
Q

surgical management of volvulus?

A
  • laparotomy - hartmann’s procedure- ileocaecal resection / right hemicolectomy if caecal
113
Q

presentation of abdominal wall hernia?

A

NAME?

114
Q

complications of hernias?

A

NAME?

115
Q

how does a strangulated hernia present? what’s the significance of this?

A
  • pain and tenderness over lump| - needs emergency surgery, bowel will be dead in hours
116
Q

describe a maydl’s hernia

A

a hernia with 2 different loops of bowel in it

117
Q

describe a richter’s hernia

A

NAME?

118
Q

management options for a hernia?

A

NAME?

119
Q

which hernias can be managed conservatively?

A
  • hernias with a wide neck (low risk of complications)| - where pts have too many comorbidities for surgery
120
Q

how can inguinal hernias be classified?

A
  • direct| - indirect
121
Q

differentials for lump in inguinal region?

A

NAME?

122
Q

what is an indirect inguinal hernia?

A

bowel herniating through the inguinal canal

123
Q

what is the inguinal canal? where does it run between?

A

NAME?

124
Q

describe the course of the round ligament in females?

A

NAME?

125
Q

where is the deep inguinal ring found?

A

halfway between ASIS and pubic tubercle

126
Q

how can an indirect inguinal hernia be differentiated from a direct one?

A

NAME?

127
Q

what causes direct inguinal hernias to form?

A

weakness of the abdo wall at hesselbach’s triangle

128
Q

RIP: borders of hesselbach’s triangle?

A
  • rectus abdominis- inferior epigastric vessels- poupart’s (inguinal) ligament
129
Q

describe a femoral hernia

A

abdo contents herniating through the femoral canal

130
Q

FLIP: boundaries of the femoral canal?

A

NAME?

131
Q

what is the femoral triangle?

A

large area at top of thigh which contains the femoral canal

132
Q

where do incisional hernias occur?

A

at the site of incision of past surgery

133
Q

typical demographic affected by umbilical hernias? prognosis?

A
  • neonates| - good, self-resolving
134
Q

describe a hiatus hernia

A

stomach herniating through hole in diaphragm

135
Q

4 types of hiatus hernia?

A

NAME?

136
Q

risk factors for hiatus hernia?

A

NAME?

137
Q

presentation of hiatus hernia?

A

NAME?

138
Q

investigations for hiatus hernia?

A

NAME?

139
Q

management of hiatus hernia?

A
  • conservative| - surgical laparoscopic fundoplication
140
Q

what is a haemorrhoid?

A

an enlarged anal vascular cushion

141
Q

risk factors for haemorrhoids?

A

NAME?

142
Q

give examples of how intra-abdominal pressure could be raised

A
  • weightlifting| - chronic coughing
143
Q

how can haemorrhoids be classified?

A
  • 1st deg: no prolapse- 2nd deg: prolapse when straining, disappears on relaxing- 3rd deg: prolapse when straining and does NOT disappear on relaxing, but can be pushed back- 4th deg: prolapsed permanently
144
Q

presentation of haemorrhoids?

A

NAME?

145
Q

signs O/E of haemorrhoids?

A
  • external ones are visible on inspection| - internal ones may be felt on PR exam
146
Q

differentials for rectal bleeding?

A

NAME?

147
Q

non-surgical management of haemorrhoids?

A

NAME?

148
Q

surgical management of haemorrhoids?

A

NAME?

149
Q

what causes a haemorrhoid to become thrombosed?

A

when there is strangulation at the base of the haemorrhoid

150
Q

presentation of thrombosed haemorrhoid?

A
  • purplish, very tender lumps around anus| - PR impossible due to pain
151
Q

what is a diverticulum?

A

a pouch in the bowel wall

152
Q

what is the difference between diverticulosis / diverticular disease and diverticulitis?

A

NAME?

153
Q

which parts of the bowel wall are most susceptible to diverticula forming?

A

areas where there are no teniae coli

154
Q

most commonly affected portion of the bowel in diverticulosis?

A

sigmoid colon

155
Q

risk factors for diverticulosis?

A

NAME?

156
Q

how is diverticulosis diagnosed?

A

usually asymptomatic, incidental finding on colonoscopy / CT scans

157
Q

how could diverticulosis present?

A

NAME?

158
Q

management of diverticulosis?

A

NAME?

159
Q

how does acute diverticulitis present?

A

NAME?

160
Q

management of uncomplicated diverticulitis?

A
  • no need for admission- PO co-amox for 5 days- analgesia, but avoid NSAIDs and opiates- clear liquid diet until symptoms improve - follow up in 2 days to review symptoms
161
Q

management of severe diverticulitis?

A

NAME?

162
Q

complications of acute diverticulitis?

A

NAME?

163
Q

3 main arteries supplying abdominal arteries?

A

NAME?

164
Q

presentation of chronic mesenteric ischaemia? hint: triad

A

NAME?

165
Q

describe the abdo pain felt in chronic mesenteric ischaemia

A
  • central- colicky- comes on 30 mins after eating- lasts 1-2 hours
166
Q

how does chronic mesenteric ischaemia result in weight loss?

A

food avoidance due to pain after eating

167
Q

risk factors for chronic mesenteric ischaemia?

A

same as any other cardiovascular disease:- ageing- FHx- smoking- DM- HTN- raised cholesterol

168
Q

how is chronic mesenteric ischaemia diagnosed?

A

on CT angiography

169
Q

management of chronic mesenteric ischaemia?

A

NAME?

170
Q

how is revascularisation performed for chronic mesenteric ischaemia?

A

either:- endovascular (percutaneous mesenteric artery stenting), 1st line- open surgery (endarterectomy or bypass)

171
Q

key risk factor for acute mesenteric ischaemia?

A

AF (basically an embolic stroke but in the gut)

172
Q

early presentation of acute mesenteric ischaemia?

A

NAME?

173
Q

later presentation of acute mesenteric ischaemia?

A

NAME?

174
Q

first line investigation in acute mesenteric ischaemia?

A

contrast CT

175
Q

findings on bloods in acute mesenteric ischaemia?

A
  • metabolic acidosis| - raised lactate
176
Q

management of acute mesenteric ischaemia?

A

surgery to remove bowel and remove / bypass thrombus in artery

177
Q

prognosis in acute mesenteric ischaemia?

A
  • poor| - >50% mortality rate !
178
Q

risk factors for bowel Ca?

A

NAME?

179
Q

which aspects of diet can increase risk of bowel Ca?

A

NAME?

180
Q

what does FAP result in? pattern of inheritance?

A
  • adenomas (polyps) develop in the large intestine- polyps can become malignant, usually before age of 40- autosomal dominant
181
Q

how can bowel Ca be prevented in someone with FAP?

A

entire large intestine removed

182
Q

which familial conditions increase the risk of bowel Ca?

A
  • FAP| - HNPCC (esp colorectal Ca)
183
Q

presentation of bowel Ca?

A

NAME?

184
Q

2WW criteria for bowel Ca?

A
  • > 40 with abdo pain and unexplained weight loss- >50 with unexplained PR bleeding- >60 with change in bowel habit or Fe def anaemia
185
Q

what does FIT testing look for? what is it used for?

A
  • amount of human Hb in stool| - to screen for bowel Ca
186
Q

why is the FOB test for bowel Ca not very accurate?

A
  • just detects any form of blood| - false positives from red meat blood
187
Q

who gets screened for bowel Ca? how often is this done?

A
  • those aged 60-74| - they get sent a FIT test every 2 years
188
Q

how is the FIT test result interpreted?

A

if positive, invite them to colonoscopy

189
Q

investigations for bowel Ca?

A
  • colonoscopy (gold standard)- sigmoidoscopy- CT colonography - CT TAP (thorax, abdo, pelvis - done for staging)- CEA tumour marker on bloods
190
Q

how is bowel Ca classified?

A

TNM system or using dukes’ classification:- A: confined to mucosa of bowel wall- B: extends through muscle of wall- C: lymph nodes- D: metastatic disease

191
Q

management of bowel Ca?

A

NAME?

192
Q

what is low anterior resection syndrome? how does it present?

A

NAME?

193
Q

investigations following curative surgery for bowel Ca?

A
  • serum CEA levels| - CT TAP
194
Q

what are most gallstones made of?

A

cholesterol

195
Q

complications of gallstones?

A

NAME?

196
Q

4Fs: risk factors for gallstones?

A

NAME?

197
Q

presentation of gallstones?

A
  • “biliary colic”:- severe RUQ colicky pain- triggered by meals (esp fatty ones)- lasts 30 mins - 8 hours- associated N+V
198
Q

findings on LFTs in gallstones?

A

NAME?

199
Q

first line investigation in gallstones?

A

USS

200
Q

findings on USS in gallstones?

A
  • stones in GB / ducts- bile duct dilatation (should be <6mm diameter)- acute cholecystitis
201
Q

findings on USS indicative of acute cholecystitis?

A

NAME?

202
Q

management of gallstones in bile duct?

A

ERCP

203
Q

complications of ERCP procedure?

A

NAME?

204
Q

management of gallstones?

A

NAME?

205
Q

what is post-cholecystectomy syndrome? features?

A

NAME?

206
Q

what is acute cholecystitis?

A

inflammation of gallbladder

207
Q

causes of acute cholecystitis?

A

anything compressing cystic duct:- gallstones- tumour- infection- fasting (GB not stimulated to move)

208
Q

presentation of acute cholecystitis?

A
  • RUQ pain+/- radiates to R shoulder- fever- N+V
209
Q

findings O/E of acute cholecystitis?

A
  • high HR- high RR- RUQ tenderness- murphy’s sign
210
Q

findings on bloods in acute cholecystitis?

A
  • raised inflamm markers| - raised WCC
211
Q

describe murphy’s sign

A

NAME?

212
Q

first line investigation in acute cholecystitis?

A

abdo USS

213
Q

findings on USS in acute cholecystitis?

A

NAME?

214
Q

management of acute cholecystitis?

A
  • needs emergency admission- make NBM- IV fluids- ABx- NG tube insertion if vomiting - ERCP to remove stones stuck in CBD - cholecystectomy if <72h of symptom onset
215
Q

complications of acute cholecystitis?

A

NAME?

216
Q

what is GB empyema? how is it managed?

A

NAME?

217
Q

what is acute cholangitis?

A
  • infection and inflammation of bile ducts| - surgical emergency
218
Q

2 main causes of acute cholangitis?

A
  • obstruction (e.g. stones) in bile ducts stopping slow| - infection from ERCP procedure
219
Q

commonest causative organisms in acute cholangitis?

A

NAME?

220
Q

presentation of acute cholangitis? hint: triad

A

charcot’s triad:- RUQ pain- fever- jaundice

221
Q

management of acute cholangitis?

A

NAME?

222
Q

key complications of acute cholangitis?

A

NAME?

223
Q

which procedures can be carried out in ERCP for acute cholangitis?

A

NAME?

224
Q

what is a cholangiocarcinoma? what is the most common type?

A
  • Ca of bile ducts| - adenocarcinoma
225
Q

risk factors for cholangiocarcinoma?

A
  • PSC| - liver flukes (parasitic infection)
226
Q

presentation of cholangiocarcinoma?

A

NAME?

227
Q

signs of obstructive jaundice?

A

NAME?

228
Q

what is courvoisier’s law? what is the significance of this?

A
  • a palpable GB with jaundice is unlikely to be gallstones| - makes cholangiocarcinoma / pancreatic Ca more likely
229
Q

investigations for cholangiocarcinoma?

A
  • CT TAP for staging- CA 19-9 (tumour marker, raised)- MRCP- ERCP to put stent in and relieve obstruction
230
Q

management of cholangiocarcinoma?

A
  • curative surgery in early cases| - rest is palliative
231
Q

commonest site for a pancreatic Ca?

A

head of pancreas

232
Q

prognosis of pancreatic Ca?

A
  • very poor- avg survival = 6m- 5YS = <25%
233
Q

presentation of pancreatic Ca?

A
  • painless obstructive jaundice - non-specific upper abdo / back pain- unintentional weight loss- palpable mass in epigastric region- change in bowel habit- N+/-V- new onset / worsening T2DM
234
Q

describe trosseau’s sign of malignancy. where is it seen?

A
  • migratory thrombophlebitis in someone with Ca| - seen in pancreatic Ca
235
Q

investigations in pancreatic Ca?

A
  • diagnosed on CT with histology from biopsy- CT TAP for staging- CA 19-9- MRCP- ERCP to put stent in- biopsy
236
Q

management of pancreatic Ca?

A
  • 90% of cases are palliative - 10% can have a form of surgery- total / distal pancreatectomy- whipple procedure
237
Q

palliative care options in cholangiocarcinoma and pancreatic Ca?

A

NAME?

238
Q

which structures are removed in whipple procedure?

A

NAME?

239
Q

3 key causes of acute pancreatitis?

A

NAME?

240
Q

which demographics are more likely to get gallstone pancreatitis?

A
  • women| - older pts
241
Q

which demographics are more likely to get alcohol-induced pancreatitis?

A
  • men| - younger pts
242
Q

presentation of acute pancreatitis?

A
  • severe epigastric pain- radiates to back- associated vomiting - abdo tenderness- systemic signs (low-grade fever, tachycardia)
243
Q

how is acute pancreatitis diagnosed?

A
  • clinically| - plus raised amylase level on bloods
244
Q

investigations for acute pancreatitis?

A

NAME?

245
Q

which score can be used to assess severity of acute pancreatitis?

A
  • Glasgow score| - 2 = moderate, 3 = severe
246
Q

management of acute pancreatitis?

A

NAME?

247
Q

complications of acute pancreatitis?

A
  • necrosis of pancreas- infection - abscess - pseudocysts (up to 4w after pancreatitis)- chronic pancreatitis
248
Q

commonest cause of chronic pancreatitis?

A

alcohol

249
Q

complications of chronic pancreatitis?

A

NAME?

250
Q

how does chronic pancreatitis result in diabetes?

A

NAME?

251
Q

management of chronic pancreatitis?

A

NAME?

252
Q

how does chronic pancreatitis result in steatorrhoea?

A

NAME?

253
Q

indications for liver transplant?

A

NAME?

254
Q

who gets priority in liver transplants?

A
  • acute ones| - chronic ones get put on a list, wait approx 5m
255
Q

which patient factors suggest they may not be suitable for a liver transplant?

A
  • severe comorbidities (e.g. bad CKD, HF)- excessive weight loss / malnutrition- active hep B / C- end-stage HIV- active alcohol use
256
Q

how long should a patient have been abstinent for before a liver transplant?

A

at least 6m

257
Q

after care / advice following a liver transplant?

A

NAME?

258
Q

drugs used for immunosuppression post-liver transplant?

A

NAME?

259
Q

signs of liver transplant rejection?

A

NAME?

MBBS Y5 (27 decks)

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