Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

EC135 GroundSchool > Adv Syst > Flashcards

Adv Syst Flashcards

1
Q

Name the materials used in the construction of the EC135 T2+ fuselage

A

Aluminium
Composite materials
Acrylic Plastic
Titanium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the 3 main fuselage sections?

A

Cabin structure
Main fuselage structure
Rear structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The primary function of the centre (or control) post is to?

A

House vertical pushrods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

In forward flight, the horizontal stabiliser creates a downforce, which will then pitch the nose of the aircraft?

A

Up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The cabin roof structure is constructed from composite materials, there for it is a ( ) area.

A

No-Step

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The body structure, which carries the flight and landing gear loads is composed primarily of what material?

A

Aluminium allow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The horizontal stabiliser end-plates, the vertical stabiliser and the tail bumper are all canted to one side in order to?

A

Prove lift in order to counter the torque effect produced by the main rotor system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Cargo door can only be operated from?

A

Outside the aircraft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The cockpit doors can be placed in the spoiler position in order to?

A

Allow for increased forward speeds wit hthe main cabin doors open.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

According to RFM 9.2-61, the cockpit doors are only to be jettisoned after?

A

Touchdown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

All six doors in the HATS EC135 are constructed of?

A

Composite material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In an emergency, the entire main cabin sliding door can be jettisoned. (T/F)

A

FALSE
Only the window can be jettisoned

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The gas springs, used on the cockpit and cargo doors, are used to hold these doors…

A

Open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The main cabin doors can only be locked in the clocked position (T/F)

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Maintenance steps must be _____ in order to prevent damage to the cabin sliding door when the cabin door is being opened.

A

Closed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The three hand operated access panels on each side of the fairing assembly are:

A

Transmission / oil cooler
Forward engine
Aft engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

An engine cowling latch left open, will displat what colour to an outside observer?

A

Red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The fuel filler neck access door must be opened with a ?

A

Key

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The external power receptacle access door / point should be opened with your _____ and has an _____ connection point.

A

Hand
Intercommunications System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The landing gear provides a mounting point for what 3 other items?

A

Wire deflectors
Emergency float system floats
Ground handling wheels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The landing skids are structurally attached to the aluminium cross tubes via?

A

Shoes with clamping rings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In order to provide additional ground clearance the HATS EC135 aircraft is fitted with the _______ height landing gear.

A

Intermediate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The skids plates are installed on the landing gear in order to provide a ___________ for the landing gear

A

Sacrificial wear surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Grounding straps electrically connect the fuselage to the cross tubes and the crosstubes to the ?

A

Skids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The purpose of the wire strike protection system (WSPS) is to?

A

Provide a measure of protection against collision with horizontally strung wires and cables.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Cockpit seats have a ___ point restraint harness

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Cabin seats have a __ point restraint harness

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Cabin seats can/cannot be adjusted for/aft and vertically by the crew.

A

Cannot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Cockpit seats have a _____ shoulder harness inertia reel, unlike the cabin seats

A

Lockable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

List 3 characteristics of the cockpit seats.

A

Five point restraint harness
Shoulder belts with lockable interia reel
Adjustable lumbar support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

List 3 characteristrics of the Martin-Baker main cabin seats

A

Four point restraint harness
Shoulder belts wth lockable inertia reel
Rotatable for 360 degrees.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Stowage under seating in the EC 135 is ____

A

Prohibited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Max floor loading is _____ kg/m2

A

600

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

One common characteristic of both the cockpit and Martin-Baker seats is that they are both ______ attenuating

A

Crash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Aircraft documentation must be stored in the _____ -hand door pockets as this mass/location has already been taken into account for aircaft weight and balance purposes.

A

Right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Each tie-down ring is rated at ____ Kg when correctly installed in the floor.

A

100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the three sections of the instrument panel called?

A

Left hand section
Centre Section
Right hand section

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Venting lines allow the equalisation of ____ across the different tanks

A

Pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Thermal expansion of fuel will cause the excess fuel to flow into the _____ tank, which can hold 14L

A

Expansion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The RH (No. 2 engine) supply tanks is _____Kgs smaller than the LH tank due to a foam core.

A

4.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the total fuel in the tanks

A

Main tank 474.5
LH Supply Tank 49
RH Supply tank 44.5
Total 568
Unusable 7.6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

If we burn 200kg/hr how much fuel do we burn in a minute?

A

3.3 kgs/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which supply tank has a foam core in it and why?

A

The right (SYS II) tank
So that both engines dont flame out at once and allows us 1 more minute to land.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Crash worthy adaptations of the EC135 fuel system.

A

Flexible, impact resistant fuel tanks
Flexible hoses for supply and ventiation
Suction type fuel feed to the engines
Fuel supply shut-off in the case of engine fire
Fuselage structure supporting the tanks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Fuel is provided from the main tank to the two supply tanks through the use of two _____ pumps

A

Transfer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Fuel is provided under pressure from the supply tanks to the engines during start by the ______ pumps

A

Prime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The F PUMP AFT/FWD caution light will appear after the pump has not pumped any fuel for ____ minutes

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Another way to shut off fuel to the engines, besides the ENG-IDLE-FLIGHT switch, would be to depress the ___ button on the warning panel.

A

EMER OFF SW (FIRE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Once an engine has been started, turning off the PRIME pumps will?

A

Do nothing to the engine as the engine will now draw fuel from the supply tank on its own.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How much fuel remains in the supply tanks when a ‘FUEL’ caution on the CAD appears

A

36 kgs SYS I
32 kgs SYS II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How much fuel remains in the supply tanks when a ‘LOW FUEL’ warning light comes on?

A

32 kgs in SYS I or 28 kgs in SYS II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How much flight time do you have when the LOW FUEL warning light comes on?

A

10 min as per RFM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How long will a transfer pump “run dry” for before indicating on the CAD?

A

3 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

If both transfer pumps failed, the only fuel you would be able to access would be the fuel in the ____ tanks

A

Supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

If the CAD lane fails, would you have any remaining indications of fuel quantity?

A

Yes, LOW FUEL (SYS I SYS II) warning and gong will still work.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

If the CAD displats 300Kg of fuel remaining, but the LOW FUEL warning has come on, which is assumed to be correct?

A

The warning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

To turn on all lights in the main cabin, the pilot would select PAX/CARGO switch to the ________ position

A

PAX/CARGO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The standby horizon lighting setting is ________ of instrument lighting setting

A

Independent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Placing the Emergency Exit (HEEL) cockpit switch on will activate the EXIT and HEEL lights (excluding ________)

A

Sliding doors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are the three settings for the instrument lights?

A

Day, night, NVG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Can the overhead panel instrument light brightness be adjusted?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

The HEEL switch in the cockpit, when placed in the ARM position will allow the HEEL system to be activated when?

A

Total power loss
Crash landing
Contact with water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Can you see the white position light when an EC135 is flying directly at you?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Are the position lights, anti-cols and formation lights NVD compatible

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Can the landing light be slewed in any direction?

A

No it is fixed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Can the search light be slewed?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Do both the landing and search light have an IR operating mode or just the search light?

A

No, only the search light has an IR mode.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What two indications are available in the cockpit as a warning for the fire detecting system?

A

Visual warning on the warning panel and Audio (Bell)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

How many fire detectors are on each engine?

A

Two on each

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the main purpose of the engine fire wall?

A

To prevent the fire from spreading

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

The engine fire extinguisher system consists of ____ extinguishing agent bottle(s) and tubing to both engines

A

One

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

The fire detection elements are located under what engine components?

A

Under the starter generators and combustion chamber casing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Pressing the FIRE button will always release the extinguishing agent? (T/F)

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Once the floats have been activated, how long do they take to inflate?

A

4 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the max permissible airspeed with floats inflated?

A

80 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Where and how are the floats activated?

A

Pilot and Co-pilot collective headbutton - lift flap and depress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is the maximum height for float inflation?

A

5000ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the maximum airspeed with the OFF-ARM-TEST switch in the ARM position?

A

Vne

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Where are the float circuit breakers located?

A

Essential bus 1 and 2 on the overhead panel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

For calm water operations, what is the recommended touch down speed with EFS activated?

A

Up to 30 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is the maximum rate of climb with the floats inflated?

A

1500ft/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What additional item must be fitted to the skids when the floats and hoist are fitted?

A

Cable deflector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is the purpose of the HEEL system?

A

To guide crew / passengers to exits in the event of ditched or submerged helicopter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

The extinguishing agent in the portable fire extinguisher is:

A

HALON

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

The ELT transmits on what frequencies?

A

406 and 121.5 MHz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

The ELT will transmit a GPS location even when removed from the aircraft. (T/F)

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

The portable fire extinguisher gauge must be within the _____ band to be considered servicable

A

Green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Where is the FAK

A

Clam shell door left hand side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is the main purpose of the cockpit camera?

A

To record video and audio to it’s internal media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Video from the cockpit camera can only be viewed

A

On the ground through the external playback software

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

EMER EX LT switch to ARM - activated the EXIT-lights and the HEEL system in case of a total power loss, a crash landing or ________

A

Contact with water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Where is the CVFDR located?

A

On the tail boom. underneath the left hand side engine cowl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

The purpose of the data transfer unit is to?

A

Record maintenance data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

MARMS is utilised for what?

A

Acquires and stores flight data and usage monitoring of components

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

The cockpit camera (Does/does not) send information over to the CVFDR

A

Does NOT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

The CVFDR will record cockpit voice info for ____ minutes before it is overwritten

A

120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

The Data Tranfer Unit records the UMS data on a ____________ for further analysis by maintenance.

A

PCMCIA card

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What does the engine provide for the aircraft?

A

TQ, bleed air and electrical power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Is the Gas Generator shaft connected to the Power Turbine shaft?

A

No, completely independent of eachother (Free turbine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Principle of operation for Turbomeca ARRIUS 2B2 Engine

A

Suck squeeze bang blow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What does the N1 figure on the VEMD indicate

A

Gas generator rpm as a percentage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What N is the power turbine referred to as

A

N2, because it is powered after the gas generator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Which shafts drive the reduction and accessory geartrains, respectively

A

N1 for accessory (Gas generator)
N2 for reduction geartrain (Power turbine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Where is N1 displayed?

A

VEMD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What does the N2 needle on the triple tacho indicate

A

N2 rpm as a percentage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What is the purpose of the reduction geartrain?

A

Reduces the power turbine speed to a suitable speed for the main transmission input

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What is the purpose of the accessory drivetrain?

A

Provide appropriate speed reduction to turn all engine accessories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What items does the engine accessory drivetrain drive?

A

Starter/generator, oil pump, alternator and the fuel pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

When acting as a starter, the starter/generator will turn which “N”

A

The N1, to run up the gas generator assembly for engine start

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What is the purpose of the oil system?

A

To ensure lubrication and cooling of the engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

If we see ENG CHIP on the left side of the CAD what does that mean?

A

Engine 1 has metal particles caught by one of the 2 magnetic plugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

How many times can we activate the ENGO CHIP switch

A

Only once per chip caution indication. ie. if it goes away you may do a second

Follow checklist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What do you do if the engine oil is not between MIN/MAX?

A

Contact maintenance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What are the oil cooling fans driven by?

A

Main transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

This pump draws oil from the tank and delibers it to the engine areas that require lubrication and cooling?

A

Pressure pump draws oil from the tank and delibers it under pressure to the engine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

How many pressure pumps vs scavenge pumps are in the system?

A

1x pressure
2x scavenge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What is the purpose of the Fuel Pump Unit?

A

It supplies fuel under determined conditions of pressure and flow set by the FADEC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Where are the engine fuel pumps and what are they driven by?

A

Theyre mounted on the front face of the reduction gearbox and driven by the N1 geartrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

If you see the FUEL FILT on the right side of the CAD, what does this mean?

A

The fuel filter caution on the CAD indicates an impending opening of the #2 engine by-pass due to a clogged filter element

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

How many and what sort of injectors are utilised in the fuel injection system?

A

12 total
9 main injectors
1 preference injector and
2 additional starter injectors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Which injectors are utilised during engine start?

A

Only the 2 starter injectors deliver fuel until 50% N1
After 50% N1 the main/preference injectors take over delibering fuel to the combustion chamber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What is special about the 1 preference injector during normal ops?

A

If fuel flow is reduced significantly the main injectors stop however the 1 preference injector continues delivering fuel to avoid engine flame out.

123
Q

What are the three different operating modes that the Fuel Metering Unit can be in?

A

Auto, manual, mixed

124
Q

Which twist grip manually controls the LH and RH engines?

A

LH is TOP TWIST (slide)
RH is BOTTOM TWIST (bumpy)

125
Q

What button must you press on the collective if you were to manually cut fuel to an engine?

A

The OFF or STOP MIN FUEL button

126
Q

What ocntrols the engine start sequence?

A

EECU which activates the ignition system

127
Q

On engine start, at what n1 speed does the ignition system shut off?

A

After reaching 50% the starter control relay disconnects the ignition circuit

Changes to generator mode

128
Q

How much voltage and where does the ignition system get its energy from for the engine start sequence?

A

24VDC from MSTR BAT, EPU or other engine generator

129
Q

Besides a FADEC malfunction, what are 2 methods that can take the engines out of automode

A

Engine mode set to MAN

Twist grip moved away from neutral position

130
Q

If we had a double generator failure, would the FADEC stop working?

A

No the alternator from the accessory geartrain provides power to the FADEC regardless of generator output

131
Q

If the engines were running, what would happen if you turned the engines control panel FADEC switch off?

A

The FADEC would remain on. Greator than 50% N1, powered by alternator which is driven by the accessory gear train.

132
Q

What does setting the VENT/OFF switch to VENT on the engine mode select panel do?

A

The starter/generator will run up the gas generator assembly to approx 20% N1 byt the engine ignition system is deactivated and the fuel remains shut off

133
Q

What happens to the fuel flow of an engine if it is entered into manual mode?

A

It freezes at the point it enters manual mode, no change to fuel flow until it is incurred by the pilot

134
Q

What components make up the FADEC?

A

EECU and manual back-up mode (Collective grips)

135
Q

What is the FADECs primary task?

A

Controls the corresponding turbo shaft engine and provides interfaces to the other FADEC as well as to the aircraft for data interchange

136
Q

What are 2 of the FADEC primary functions?

A

Fuel supply,
auto engine control,
auto torque matching,
engine and power monitoring
power turbine over-speed protection
governs Nr according to DA

137
Q

What is the crosstalk capability and what does it provide?

A

Allows the engines to cross reference eachother and detects manual mode
OEI situations,
Training mode activation,
Auto bleed shutoff
Auto torque matching

138
Q

wWhat is meant by the term power sharing

A

When the system governs and optimizes the performance of the engines and adjusts relative to each other.
The datum is N2 set to 100.5 under normal flight conditions

138
Q

When does the engine become self sustaining?

A

50% N1

139
Q

When do we turn engien fuel prime pumps off?

A

IAW checklist

140
Q

At what DA does N2 automatically increase?

A

DA from 4500ft to 9500ft the n2 speed is automatically increased from 100.5% to approx 103.5

141
Q

If you beep the ENG TRIM switch on the collective to the left, what occurs?

A

The TQ on the LH eng accelerates and the RH Eng decelerates

142
Q

What 2 things are required to return the engine fuel system back into the normal auto mode?

A

Check NORM on the overhead panel and twist grips back to neutral

143
Q

What is droop compensation and how does it work?

A

To prevent a decrease in NR the FADEC anticipates this situation using signals from LVDTs

144
Q

When is HI NR mode activated in civilian EC135?

A

Gross mass above 2835kg

145
Q

When does 723sqn activate HI NR

A

Always

146
Q

If HI NR is selected, what airspeed does HI NR deactivate/activate

A

Deactivates 55KIAS
Activates 50KIAS

147
Q

Where does the HI NR receive its airspeed data from and what happens if this information is blocked?

A

ADC 2. HI NR automatically activates if the HI NR pushbutton is on

148
Q

What happens to torque as NR slows from 95% and 90% in OEI

A

TQ increases 1% for every NR 1% decrease

149
Q

What does it mean if you see OVSP and ENG FAIL?

A

Engine is shut down due to overspeed

150
Q

Name the components of a hydraulic system

A

Sight glass
Fluid level indicator
Reservoir
Hydraulic line
Hydraulic pump
Valve block

151
Q

What flight control actuator will no longer be boosted with a loss of #2 hydraulic system?

A

Tail rotor

152
Q

Both hydraulic pumps are driven by?

A

Transmission accessory drive gearboxes

153
Q

The hydraulic reservoir sightglass must display what percentage?

A

50%

154
Q

With the HYD test switch selected to SYS 2, what cockpit and flight control indication would you expect to see or feel?

A

SYS 1 Caution as it has been closed
Nil change to flight control feel

155
Q

The HYD Test can only be performed when?

A

On the ground

156
Q

Where no control input is present in a follow up HYD system, which compenent blocks the pumps pressure from reaching the boost cylinder?

A

The control spool

157
Q

What AFCS control systems can provide an input signal into an EHA?

A

SAS and auto pilot inputs

158
Q

The Pitch, collective and roll hydraulic actuators are __ stage actuators

A

Dual/2

159
Q

Which hydraulic system supplies the electro-hydraulic component of the EHAs?

A

HYD system 1

160
Q

What type of hydraulic actuator does the collective have and what is its location within the main rotor hydraulic pack?

A

MHA
In the middle

161
Q

How many boost pistons are there in a single EC 135 T2+ MHA/EHA?

A

1

161
Q

Loss of the #1 hydraulic system will result in the degredation of the _____ and _____ Stability Augmentation System (SAS) channels.

A

Pitch, roll

162
Q

Hydraulic systems work due to the underlying principles that liquids do not?

A

Compress

163
Q

The single-stage tail rotor hydraulic actuator receives hydraiulic pressure only from the ________ hydraulic system

A

2

164
Q

In the event of a loss of the #2 hydraulic system, the tail rotor will

A

Be controlled as normal, but with higher control forces

165
Q

The tail rotor actuators use the same follow-up principle as the MHA/EHA (T/F)

A

TRUE

166
Q

The collective lever changes the pitch angle of the main rotor blades ______ and at the same ____

A

Equally; time

167
Q

Cyclic controls change the angle of incidence of ________ blades as they pass ______ in the main rotor disc

A

the individual;
a position

168
Q

Yaw pedal input change the pitch angle of each tail rotor blade ___ and at the same _____

A

equally;
time

169
Q

Components of a collective

A

Collective pitch lever
Collective shaft
Control Rod
Upper guidance unit
horizontal control rod
main rotor actuator

170
Q

Components of cyclic

A

Cyclic control run
Cyclic stick
lower horizontal pitch control rod
lower guidance unit
vertical push rod (roll and pitch)
upper guidance unit
upper horizontal control rod
main rotor actuator and EHA

171
Q

What colour is the collective control rod?

A

White

172
Q

What colour is the Cyclic-roll control rod

A

Red band

173
Q

What colour is the Cyclic- Pitch control rod

A

Black

174
Q

The cyclic centring device and collective lock are used in what flight regime?

A

None. Ground turn use only

175
Q

Looking forward name the MHA/EHAs from left to right

A

(LH SIDE) Roll, collective, (RH SIDE) pitch

176
Q

EHA are located on what control channels?

A

Pitch and roll

177
Q

What does the vibration decoupling linkage do?

A

Tilt upper guidance unit forward/aft to prevent control inputs caused by flight load induced transmission movement

178
Q

Name the swashplate components

A

Sliding sleeve
Cardan ring - gimbal
Control ring
Bearing ring

179
Q

Function of the swashplate assembly is to?

A

Convert stationary control inputs into rotating outputs

180
Q

The collective fork will lift up which swashplates when the collective is raised?

A

Both stationary and rotating swashplates

181
Q

Components of the rotor head?

A

Short control rod
Control ring
Bearing ring
Scissor assembly
Rotating control rods
Pitch horn

182
Q

What function does the mast moment indicator provide?

A

Measures and indicates in the cockpit any rotor mast bending moments

183
Q

Flex beam purpose

A

Lead lag flap feather

184
Q

What feature allows the discharge of static electricity from the helicopter

A

Static discharger riveted to the blade trailing edge in the blade tip area
Electrical conductive strap

185
Q

What sort of main rotor system does the HATS EC135 T2+ have?

A

A bearing-less, hinge-less 4-blade main rotor head

186
Q

Tail rotor purpose

A

Used to control the amount of thrust that is produced by the tail rotor

187
Q

The tail rotor unit performs the function of a ______ for the tail rotor.

A

Swashplate

188
Q

The ____ cable transmits the control movements from the pilots bellcrank to the dual yaw actuators in the fenestron structure

A

Flexball

189
Q

How many small blades does the tail rotor have

A

10 stator
10 tail rotor

190
Q

What does the shroud do?

A

Reduce drag

191
Q

Components of the tail rotor system

A

Pitch control/yaw SEMA
Stator blade (10)
Tail rotor blade (10)
Pitch horn
Tail rotor gear box
Sight glass (oil)
Track and balance sensors
Chip detector

192
Q

The trim system provides an artificial control feel to the cyclic system through the use of

A

Force gradiant springs

193
Q

Front and back trim motors do?

A

Longitudal - Pitch(front)
Latitudal - ROLL (Back)

194
Q

What are the power sources for the essential busbar and which provides power during normal AEO operations?

A

Generators and battery
Generator provides power during normal AEO operations with battery as a backup.

195
Q

Electrical systems that in the event of an electrical power loss are still necessary for safe flight are termed to be?

A

Essential

196
Q

Can the starter/generator operate as both a starter and a generator concurrently?

A

No. Operates as a starter until 50% N1 then as a generator

196
Q

Where does the starter get its power from for starting the engine?

A

Battery, epu, or other generator if running

197
Q

What is the purpose of a busbar?

A

To receive then distribute electrical power to a group of aircraft systems

198
Q

In normal AEO operations where do the shedding busbars receive power from?

A

Generators through primary busbars

199
Q

The battery provides how many volts DC?

A

24 volts DC

200
Q

What kind of battery is it? (Materials)

A

Nickel Cadmium

201
Q

The battery master box’s function is to?

A

Control and monitor the operation of the battery

202
Q

The avionics master switches connect power to the avionics sections of which buses?

A

Avionics ESS BUS 1 &2
Avionics SHED BUS 1 & 2

203
Q

If the generator fails or a bus tie is opened, which busbars are automatically disconnected?

A

High Load Busbars

204
Q

The GEN I and GEN II switches are located on the?

A

Engine Switch Assembly

205
Q

Does the battery need to be connected before external power is applied to the aircraft?

A

Yes, to prevent damage to the aircraft electrical system

206
Q

How many generators have to fail before the Shedding buses are automatically disconnected?

A

2

207
Q

What cockpit switch allows you to reconnect the Shedding buses after they have been disconnected?

A

SHED BUS

208
Q

DC power is converter to AC power in the EC135 by use of an?

A

Inverter

209
Q

The inverter is referred to as #2 because it receives DC power from?

A

Essential Busbar #2

210
Q

The inverter converts 28 DC into what VAC and at what frequency?

A

26VAC 400Hz
115VAC 400Hz

211
Q

Name one of the aircraft components mentioned in class that requires AC power

A

AHRS1
Roll SAS
Weather Radar
Ice detector
Pitch SAS

212
Q

The two HATS EC135 high power electrical consumers are??

A

Air Conditioning System
Winch

213
Q

The winch receives its power from the ?

A

1 Primary Bus

214
Q

What is the primary role of the main rotor drives?

A

Transmit power from both engines to the main and tail rotors and auxiliary units

215
Q

What do the flexible couplings at each end of the engine drive shaft do?

A

They correct misalignment between the engine outputs and the main transmission inputs

216
Q

Where are the 2 freewheel units and what do they do for the main transmission?

A

Part of the input drive
They allow power to be transmitted only from the engines to the main transmission. They prevent a reverse power flow from the main transmission to the engines

217
Q

What important component is located between the tail rotor drive shaft and the main transmission?

A

Rotor brake disc adapter

218
Q

What is the primary role of the main transmission gearing?

A

It reduces input RPM to main rotor, tail rotor and accessories

219
Q

What type of oil sump system does the main transmission have and what are the oil systems primary functions?

A

Wet sump oil system for oil lubrication and cooling

220
Q

How many oil pumps does the main transmission oil system have and why?

A

2 in the lower gearbox casing for redundancy

221
Q

If you find the main transmission oil filter pop-up button extended, what does this mean and what would you do?

A

It is the oil filter pre-clogging indicator. Tell maintenance

222
Q

Where are the oil coolers mounted?

A

Directly abeam and either side of the main transmission

223
Q

What draws the air to the oil cooler for cooling?

A

The cooler fans driven by the main transmission accessory drive.

224
Q

If you see XMSN OIL T on the CAD, what does it mean?

A

Main tansmission oil temp outside limits

225
Q

How many chip detectors are there in the main transmission lubrication system and where are they?

A

1 which is fitted in the 1 common suction line for both oil pumps

226
Q

If both main transmission oil pumps had failed, what indications would you receive in the cockpit?

A

XMSN OIL P both sides
XMSN OIL P warning unit
Gong

227
Q

How do you check the oil level of the main transmission and what if the level is outside of the MIN/MAX marks

A

Sight glass at the rear RH side of the transmission below RH input drive. Advise maintenance.

228
Q

How do we activate the rotor brake in the aircraft?

A

By pulling down on the rotor brake lever in the overhead panel.

229
Q

Below what rotor RPM should we operate the rotor break?

A

Below 50% Nr with both engines shut down

230
Q

How much time do we need between rotor break applications?

A

10 minutes

231
Q

What 2 parameters have to be met before ROTOR BRK illuminates on the CAD and why?

A

The rotor brake lever must be engaged and the rotor turning
The microswitch is only depressed when the brake is engaged and the brake disk starts turning

232
Q

What does the main transmission accessory drive operate?

A

The hydraulic pumps and the oil cooler fans

233
Q

Where is the rotor brake system attached and what is its primary function?

A

Attached between the tail rotor drive shaft and the main transmission it enables the main and tail rotors to be brought to a standstill

234
Q

How is the main transmission connected to the airframe?

A

By four ARIS dampers. One side load strut and 2 torque struts

235
Q

What is the main purpose of the main transmission mounts?

A

They transmit the main rotor forces and moments into the helicopter airframe

236
Q

What is the purpose of the ARIS system?

A

A spring/mass damper used to isolate vibration between the rotor system and the fuselage

237
Q

What is the purpose of each emergency stop mounted above each damper?

A

Supports transmission if the primary bellows of the ARIS fails

238
Q

Where is the mass/spring damper and what does it do?

A

In the fuselage below the co-pilots feet and it compensates for main rotor lateral vibrations

239
Q

The purpose of the tail rotor drive system is to?

A

Transmits the power from the main rotor transmission to the tail rotor

240
Q

The purpose of the tail rotor gear box?

A

Drive tail rotor
Reduce speed from drive shaft
Divert the direction of power flow through 90degrees by means of two bevel gears

241
Q

The tail rotor gear box is equipped with an electrical chip detector which indicates on the CAD (T/F)

A

True

242
Q

The PAX/BLW siwtch has how many positions?

A

Three (ON OFF ENABLE)

243
Q

When the PAX/BLW switch is placed to the ON position, the PAX blower will run at ____% speed

A

100%

244
Q

When the PAX/BLW switch is placed to the ENABLE position, the PAX blower will run at what speed?

A

Variable speed, based on the rheostat

245
Q

CPDS OVHT occurs at what temp?

A

55C

246
Q

When will the cockpit blower automatically activate and what indication would you get on the CAD?

A

It will activate if CPDS is above 45C
Nil indication on CAD

247
Q

To bring fresh air in. Air Circulation knob must be?

A

Fully up

248
Q

The air conditioning compressor is powered by

A

The main gear box

249
Q

An additional component added with the air conditioning system was the addition of cockpit and cabin _______ assemblies

A

Evaporator

250
Q

In order to run the air-conditioner safely, the VENT SYS rheostat in the cockpit must be?

A

ON

251
Q

During postflight, water under the DF receivers and search light? Abornmal or normal?

A

Normal. Condensation from the cockpit evaporator draining out

252
Q

The air-conditioner will automatically disengage when the _____ is actuated for hoist ops

A

CABLE CUT - ARM

253
Q

The airconditioner will auto disengage when….

A

GEN I & II are offline
Engine I & II are offline

254
Q

What is the recommended max airspeed for windshield wiper operation?

A

80 knots

255
Q

When should the ice detection system test be carried out?

A

After engine start, when expected min OAT is <5C

256
Q

Where are the windshield wiper switches located?

A

Overhead
Cyclic head

257
Q

Pilots should operate wiper only when the windshield is______

A

wet

258
Q

The Ice Detection system aspirator is driven by _____ air from the engines

A

Bleed

259
Q

Allow the ice rating sensor to cool down for atleast ___ minutes between built-in test and preflight system check

A

10

260
Q

According to the flight manual, flight in icing conditions is _______

A

Prohibited

261
Q

The last 20 feet of the hoist cable are painted what colour?

A

Orange

262
Q

The pyrotechnic cable cutter can be initiated from buttons located on the?

A

ACMNs hoist control pendant
Pilot/Co-Pilot collective head

263
Q

If the pyrotechnic cable cutter failed to cut th winch cable, the ACMN could use the ________ as a last resort to cut the cable.

A

Hand cable cutter

264
Q

The hoise cable breaking strength is ______ pounds

A

3330

265
Q

What is the total length of the hoist cable?

A

Total length of the hoist cable is 90m

266
Q

Who are the winch wire abnormalities reported to?

A

Maintenance

267
Q

Which crewmembers can move the hoist boom out and in?

A

All

268
Q

Which crewmembers can lower the hoist cable?

A

All

269
Q

The time to fully extend or retract the hoist boom?

A

7.5 SECONDS

270
Q

Where is the pilot hoist control located?

A

On the collective lever

271
Q

To adjust the volume of the VHF frequency in the GTN750 which knob do we use on the ACP?

A

VHF2

272
Q

What 4 methods do we have to activate the ICS (excluding hoist/hook pendant controllers)?

A

VOX
1 click cyclic trigger
ICS/TX toggle switch on ACP
PTT switches on cabin drop leads

273
Q

To monitor VHF2, what selection do we make on the ACP?

A

VHF2 push-button in the extended position; or rotary transmit on VHF2

274
Q

How many ACP are there?

A

4

275
Q

How could the left hand seat pilot transmit without flight controls?

A

ICS/TX switch

276
Q

Which radio can we use with just the BAT MSTR switch on?

A

VHF2 (gtn750)

277
Q

Garmin GTN650 and 750 transcievers provide two way communication in the ____ frequency band

A

VHF

278
Q

The active frequency is shown as what?

A

Green

279
Q

Which device uses the SATCOM?

A

GTN750

280
Q

Where is the sat phone antenna?

A

Behind Vert Stab

281
Q

Which radios can we use to transmit 282.8MHz?

A

TAC1 & 2

282
Q

Which radios in the aircraft can we use to transmit on 118?

A

VHF1, VHF2, TAC1, TAC2

283
Q

Where are the tac radios?

A

Sharfin top engine
Fenestron

284
Q

Which radios can we use to retransmit?

A

TAC1, TAC2

285
Q

Which device do we use to enter ATC?

A

IFF

286
Q

HATS EC135 only provides ADS-B for?

A

Out only

287
Q

Quickest way to enter the ATC emergency code of 7700 would be to use the ______

A

OFF-STBY-NORM-EMER rotary

288
Q

The FLI normally appears in Lane ___ of the VEMD?

A

1

289
Q

The pointer parameter will automatically default to ____ for engine start up

A

TOT

290
Q

The CPDS is the collective term for which 2 components?

A

CAD and VEMD

291
Q

How will a new caution be displayed on the CAD and how does the pilot acknowledge it?

A

Flashing yellow bars, new caution displayed on CAD, master caution illuminated
reset switch on cyclic
or the select function key

292
Q

How long can you remain in the OEI HI range?

A

30 Seconds

293
Q

What indication is there that you have 5 seconds remaining in the OEI band limit?

A

The red LIMIT warning will flash

294
Q

The VEMD would indicate an engine parameter in the Maximum range by underlining the text with a _____ line

A

Red

295
Q

Three operating modes of the CPDS

A

Normal mode (3 screens)
Derivative mode (2 screens)
Back-up mode (1 screen)

296
Q

What will the FIRE button always do?

A

Shut off fuel to the engine even if there is no fire

297
Q

What sound will Low rotor below 97% make?

A

Pulsed tone

298
Q

What sound will BAT TEMP make?

A

Gong

299
Q

What sound will FIRE make?

A

Bell

300
Q

What does the EXT button do?

A

Displays weather radar overlay on the ND

301
Q
A

EC135 GroundSchool (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions