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vet prep structure function > Block 2 > Flashcards

Block 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Fascia of fibrous connective tissue that surrounds entire muscle

A

Epimysium

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2
Q

Small bundle or cluster of muscle fibers

A

Fascicle

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3
Q

Connective tissue extensions from the epimysium that surround each fascicle

A

Perimysium

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4
Q

Connective tissue extensions from the perimysium that surround the muscle fibers and are attached to the sarcolemma

A

Endomysium

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5
Q

Composed of linear series of repeating sarcomeres

A

Myofibril

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6
Q

Responsible for muscle contraction. Composed of thick and thin filaments

A

Myofilaments

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7
Q

Thin cell membrane, enclosing a skeletal muscle fiber cell

A

Sarcolemma

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8
Q

What is a special feature of the sarcolemma?

A

Invaginates into the sarcoplasm of the muscle cell, forming T-tubules

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9
Q

What is a muscle fiber made up of?

A

Bundle of myofibril, sarcomere and type 1 and 2 fibers

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10
Q

What are the type 1 fibers?

A

Red

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11
Q

What are the type 2 fibers?

A

White

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12
Q

What is the basic contractile unit of striated muscle fibers?

A

Sarcomere

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13
Q

Where are the sarcomere found?

A

Between the Z lines

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14
Q

What gives muscles the striated pattern?

A

Sarcomere

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15
Q

What are the components of thin filaments?

A

Actin, Troponin complex, Tropomyosin

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16
Q

What are the components of thick filaments?

A

Myosin (multiple molecules of myosin make up the thick filament)

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17
Q

Describe the structure of Myosin

A

Tail of intertwined helices and 2 globular heads

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18
Q

What is the role of the globular heads of Myosin?

A

To bind ATP and actin

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19
Q

What functions as an ATPase enzyme?

A

Myosin

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20
Q

Appx. 500 myosin heads of thick myosin filament form what?

A

Cross bridges

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21
Q

Myosin heads of thick filament form cross bridges that interact with actin to do what?

A

Shorten the sarcomere

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22
Q

What are the subunits of Troponin?

A

TnC, TnI, TnT

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23
Q

What provides myofibrils with large amounts of energy allowing for muscle contraction?

A

Mitochondria

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24
Q

What fibers have more numbers of mitochondria?

A

Slow twitch (red)

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25
Q

What organelle is responsible for regulating calcium storage, release and uptake?

A

Sarcoplasmic Reticulum

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26
Q

What organelle allows for rapid transfer of action potentials to the interior fiber?

A

T-Tubules

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27
Q

T-tubules play an important role in what?

A

Regulating cellular calcium concentration

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28
Q

What are the smallest functional units of a muscle?

A

Sarcomere

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29
Q

What two proteins are found in the sarcomere?

A

Myosin and actin

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30
Q

What must happen before muscle contraction begins?

A

Myosin heads bind with ATP

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31
Q

What fibers are found to have higher numbers of mitochondria?

A

Slow-Twitch (red)

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32
Q

What fibers are found to have larger sarcoplasmic reticulum?

A

Fast Contracting (White)

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33
Q

What initiates muscle action?

A

Nerve impulse

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34
Q

When an action potential occurs, what is released?

A

Stored Calcium ions

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35
Q

What actions allow the myosin head to bind to active sites on the actin filament?

A

When Calcium binds with troponin, the tropomyosin molecules are lifted off the active sites of the actin filament, allowing the myosin head to bind.

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36
Q

What provides energy for muscle action?

A

When the myosin head binds to ATP- ATPase on the myosin head splits the ATP into a usable energy source

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37
Q

What happens when myosin binds with actin?

A

The myosin head tilts and pulls the actin filament so they slide across each other. This results in muscle contraction.

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38
Q

When does muscle action end?

A

When calcium is pumped out of the sarcoplasm to the SR for storage.

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39
Q

What are type 1 (Red) muscle fibers?

A

Type 1 fibers have high aerobic endurance and are suited to low-intensity endurance activities

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40
Q

What are type 2 (White) muscle fibers?

A

Type 2 fibers are better for anaerobic or explosive exercises.

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41
Q

What muscle fibers are found to be rich in mitochondria?

A

Type 1

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42
Q

A muscle that has slow contractile speed allowing for slow prolonged activity would have what type fibers?

A

Type 1 (Red)

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43
Q

What fibers are mixed oxidative-glycolytic fibers?

A

Type IIa

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44
Q

These muscle fibers have moderate aerobic capacity and fatigue resistance

A

Type IIa

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45
Q

What are the features of Type IIa muscle fibers?

A

Moderate aerobic/oxidative capacity
Moderate fatigue resistance
Fast contractile speed
Highly developed SR
Mixed oxidative-glycolytic fiber

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46
Q

What fibers are glyolytic fibers?

A

Type IIb

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47
Q

Which of the following is/are NOT a feature of Type IIb fibers?
High anaerobic/glycolytic capacity
High motor unit strength
Fast contractile speed
Highly developed SR
Slow contractile speed
High Fatigue resistance

A

Slow contractile speed and high fatigue resistance are NOT features of type II b

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48
Q

What class of muscles are responsible for movement?

A

Agonists

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49
Q

What prevents overstretching of agonist mucsles?

A

Antagonist

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50
Q

What assists the agonists and fine tunes direction of movement?

A

Synergists

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51
Q

What happens in concentric muscle action?

A

The muscle shortens

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52
Q

What happens in static muscle action?

A

The muscle length is unchanged

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53
Q

What happens in eccentric muscle action?

A

The muscle lengthens

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54
Q

What are the “stem cells” located in skeletal muscles?

A

Satellite cells

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55
Q

What are the cells involved in muscle growth and repair?

A

Satellite cells

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56
Q

What cells become activated when a muscle is injured?

A

Satellite cells

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57
Q

What is formed when satellite cells are activated after muscle injury?

A

New muscle fibers or myofibers

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58
Q

What is the primary function of Myostatin?

A

Regulate muscle growth and development

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59
Q

What is inhibited with myostatin?

A

It inhibits the proliferation and differentiation of muscle cells

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60
Q

Myostatin is produced and secreted by what cells?

A

Skeletal muscle cells

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61
Q

Where does smooth muscle receive its nerve signals from?

A

Autonomic nervous system (sympathetic and parasympathetic)

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62
Q

Smooth muscle can be divided into what two categories?

A

Single Unit (visceral)
Multi-Unit

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63
Q

Where is Single Unit smooth muscle typically found?

A

GI tract, bile duct, ureters, uterus, many blood vessels

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64
Q

Where is Multi Unit smooth muscle typically found?

A

Ciliary and iris muscles of the eye, base of hair follicles, smaller airways to lungs, walls of large blood vessels

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65
Q

In what type of smooth muscle does each fiber contract independently?

A

Multi-Unit

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66
Q

In what type of smooth muscle do the fibers work together as one unit?

A

Single Unit

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67
Q

What type of smooth muscle would you find where very small, fine movements are needed?

A

Multi Unit

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68
Q

Although smooth muscle contains thick and thin filaments, what do they NOT contain?

A

Myofibrils or sarcomere

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69
Q

What are the actin filaments of smooth muscle attached to?

A

Dense bodies (analogous to the Z-discs of striated muscle)

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70
Q

What configuration allows myosin to pull actin filament in opposite directions, in smooth muscle?

A

Side-polar cross-bridges
One side bend in one direction and the other side bends in the opposite (Think Chinese finger trap! When you pull in opposite directions it “flattens out”/pulls tight)

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71
Q

Once smooth muscle is initiated, low energy is needed to keep the tonic contraction, which can last for hours or even days. What is an example of this?

A

Maintaining blood pressures

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72
Q

What is different about the SR in smooth muscle compared to skeletal?

A

It is only slightly developed

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73
Q

What is the major source of Ca2+ for smooth muscle contraction?

A

Extra cellular fluid

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74
Q

What is not present in all smooth muscle fibers, but when it is, is found near the cell membrane?

A

Sarcoplasmic Reticulum

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75
Q

What feature is believed to excite calcium release from the SR in smooth muscle?

A

Caveolae

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76
Q

What structure in smooth muscle is similar to that of T-tubes from skeletal muscle?

A

Caveolae

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77
Q

If the SR is more extensive in smooth muscle, what is the result?

A

More rapid contractions

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78
Q

What do smooth muscles use Calmodulin for?

A

As a calcium binding protein to regulate contraction process (rather than troponin as in skeletal muscle)

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79
Q

What is the result of activated calmodulin?

A

It activates enzyme MLCK which phosphorylates specific regions of Myosin

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80
Q

What happens to phosphorylated myosin?

A

It binds to actin, forming a cross-bridge allowing muscles to contract

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81
Q

What happens when the ion calcium concentration is reduced?

A

Myosin phosphatase removes the phosphate from the myosin light chain, causing muscle relaxation

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82
Q

Found in the cytoplasm, Dense bodies serve as what?

A

Anchoring points for actin filament

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83
Q

The arrangement of actin, myosin and dense bodies allow for what in smooth muscle?

A

Coordinated contraction and relaxation of the muscle

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84
Q

What cells make up the myocardium?

A

Cardiomyocytes or cardiocytes

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85
Q

Cardiac muscle contains a less developed….

A

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

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86
Q

What are the similarities between cardiac and skeletal muscle?

A

Fibers are striated
Myofibrils are made up of actin and myosin
Similar organization of sarcomere
T-tubes also release calcium

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87
Q

What are some differences in cardiac muscle compared to skeletal?

A

Cardiac muscles:
Contraction is involuntary
Fibers are shorter and branched
Usually uninucleated
Interconnected by intercalated discs
Generate their own action potential (pacemaker fibers)

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88
Q

Cardiac action potential is NOT initiated by nervous activity, instead, it is generated by what?

A

Pacemaker cells

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89
Q

Pacemaker cells have what kind of action potential?

A

Automatic

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90
Q

Where are pacemaker cells found?

A

Sinoatrial node of right atrium

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91
Q

Cardiac muscle is a function synctium. What does this mean?

A

It means the cells function together; they are electrically connected to each other through intercalated discs

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92
Q

Cardiac muscle fibers remain separated as distinct cells with their respective sarcolemma. So how are they connected?

A

Via intercalated discs

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93
Q

What muscle has single multinucleated fibers during embryonic development?

A

Skeletal muscle (morphological syncytium)

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94
Q

Dark, dense cross-band found in the end of each myocardial disc

A

Intercalated disc

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95
Q

What structure is continuous with the sarcolemma and contains important cell-cell junctions

A

Intercalated discs

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96
Q

What cell-cell junction provides mechanical strength and stability?

A

Desmosome

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97
Q

What are the functions of the gap junction?

A

Allow diffusion of ions and to allow action potential to travel easily from one cell to the next

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98
Q

What accounts for the striations in cardiac muscle?

A

Organized arrangement of actin and myosin filaments

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99
Q

Smooth muscles differ from skeletal and cardiac muscles in that they lack what?

A

Smooth muscle lacks myofibrils

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100
Q

What is the role of tropomyosin in skeletal muscle contraction?

A

It covers the binding sites on actin, preventing myosin binding

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101
Q

What is the role of calcium ions in skeletal muscle contraction?

A

Binding to troponin, allowing actin-myosin interaction

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102
Q

How do T-tubules contribute to the excitation contraction coupling process in skeletal muscle cells?

A

By transmitting action potentials

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103
Q

Which connective tissue layer surrounds the entire skeletal muscle, enclosing all the muscle fascicles?

A

Epimysium

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104
Q

Four cell layers that make up the epidermis

A
  1. Stratum corneum
  2. Stratum granulosum
  3. Stratum spinosum
  4. Stratum basale
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105
Q

What layer of skin contains layers of keratinocytes and dead cells still connected by desmosomes?

A

Stratum corneum

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106
Q

What layer of skin has high keratin content and is where flattening of the cells occurs?

A

Stratum granulosum

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107
Q

In this layer of skin, cells are joined by desmosomes providing mechanical strength.

A

Stratum spinosum

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108
Q

What layer of skin contains the stem cells?

A

Stratum basale

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109
Q

In what layer do we find dendritic cells?

A

Stratum spinosum

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110
Q

In what layer do we find melanocytes?

A

Stratum basale

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111
Q

Where would we see a thicker, more prominent stratum corneum?

A

Hairless, thick skin (ie. pawpads)

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112
Q

What are the 4 cells of the epidermis?

A
  1. Keratinocytes
  2. Melanocytes
  3. Langerhans Cells
  4. Merkel’s cells
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113
Q

What are the most prominent cells in the epidermis?

A

Keratinocytes

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114
Q

What are the 3 functions of keratinocytes?

A
  1. Produce keratin- major structural protein for epidermis
  2. Contribute to formation of the epidermal water barrier
  3. Makes up majority of structure of the skin, hair and nails
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115
Q

In what skin layer does cell division occur?

A

Basal layer (stratum basale)

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116
Q

What are the intermediate keratin filaments?

A

Tonofilaments

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117
Q

What layers of skin does tonofilament synthesis occur?

A

Stratum basale and stratum spinosum

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118
Q

Extended response/Concept
Explain Keratin synthesis and the formation of the epidermal water barrier.

A
  • Cell division occurs in the stratum basale where cells begin to synthesize tonofilaments. (intermediate keratin filaments)
    *Cells are then pushed to the stratum spinosum where tonofilament synthesis continues and cells begin to produce keratohyalin granules which help convert granular cells to cornified (keratinization) and lamellar bodies.
  • Cells are pushed into the stratum granulosum and continue to stratum corneum.
    *Lamellar bodies are discharged by exocytosis into spaces between the SG and SC.
    *Lamellar bodies and the lipid envelope create an epidermal water barrier.
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119
Q

Where does synthesis of melanocytes begin?

A

It begins in the premelanosomes from the amino acid Tryosine

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120
Q

What skin type will see faster lysosome degradation?

A

Light skin

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121
Q

What are the two forms of melanin pigments?

A

Eumelanin -> brownish black
Pheomelanin -> Reddish yellow

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122
Q

Why does exposure to UV light accelerate the rate of melanin production?

A

As a way to protect the skin

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123
Q

Where we do find Langerhans cells?

A

Stratum spinosum

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124
Q

Who are the first line defenders, also playing a role in antigen presentation?

A

Langerhans Cells

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125
Q

What cells are antigen presenting cells?

A

Dendritic cells

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126
Q

Where are Merkel’s cells found?

A

Stratum basale

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127
Q

Where are Merkel’s cells most abundant?

A

Where sensor perception is acute, such as fingertips

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128
Q

What are the cells of the dermis?

A
  1. Fibroblasts (primary cells)
  2. Macrophages
  3. Leukocytes
  4. Mast cells
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129
Q

Strong and flexible connective tissue composed by cells and collagen fibers

A

Dermis

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130
Q

Tissues derived from the epidermis extend into the dermis and give rise to what?

A

Sweat glands, sebaceous glands, papillae from hair and feathers

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131
Q

What nerve endings are found only in hairless skin?

A

Meissner (touch receptors)

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132
Q

What nerve endings have deep pressure receptors for mechanical and vibratory pressure?

A

Pacini

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133
Q

What nerve endings are only found in haired skin?

A

Hair follicle sensor (tactile hairs)

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134
Q

What nerve endings respond to mechanical displacement of adjacent collagen fibers?

A

Ruffini

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135
Q

Cells in what layer would produce new hair follicles in the invent of skin injury?

A

Stratum basale

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136
Q

Hair follicles are formed by invaginations of what layers?

A

The epidermis and dermis

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137
Q

What region of the hair bulb produces new daughter cells that are pushed towards the surface?

A

The matrix

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138
Q

Single layer of dead, scale-like keratinocytes

A

Cuticle

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139
Q

Several layers of dead keratinocytes containing hard keratin

A

Cortex

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140
Q

Dead loosely keratinized cells

A

Medulla

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141
Q

Smooth muscle associated to the hair bulb and anchored to the outer layer of the dermis. (Sympathetic innervated)

A

Piloerector muscle

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142
Q

Hair follicles have cycles of activity… List them in order and what they are associated with.

A

Anagen (growth) to Catagen (regression) to Telogen (resting) to Exogen (shedding)

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143
Q

What are the two types of feathers?

A

Flight
Covert (down)

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144
Q

What is the flat part of the feather?

A

Vane

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145
Q

What does the vane consist of?

A

Barbs that are at angles of 45 degrees

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146
Q

Hooklets are present where?

A

Only on the barbules of one side of the barb on feathers

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147
Q

The barbules of down feathers lack what?

A

Hooklets

148
Q

Feathers from the same feather follicle can have what?

A

Different pigmentation

149
Q

What are the glands of the skin?

A

Sebaceous glands
Sweat glands
Mammary glands

150
Q

This duct opens into a hair follicle and/or pore on the skin surface

A

Sebaceous gland

151
Q

What is the composition of sebaceous glands?

A

Detached, degraded epithelial cells as well as lipids and proteins

152
Q

What is the function of sebaceous glands?

A

Lubrication of skin, water impermeability, inhibition of bacterial growth

153
Q

There are no sebaceous glands associated with feathers. _________ glands in waterfowl are used for preening/water proofing feathers.

A

Uropygial glands

154
Q

What are the two types of sweat glands?

A

Eccrine and Apocrine

155
Q

What sweat glands are common in primates?

A

Eccrine glands

156
Q

Where do eccrine glands open?

A

In the pores at the skin surface

157
Q

Where are Na+ and Cl- reabsorbed in skin?

A

Eccrine glands

158
Q

What glands are common in domestic animals?

A

Apocrine

159
Q

Where do apocrine glands open?

A

Into the hair follicle

160
Q

Odoriferous secretion composed of fatty acids and protein come from what glands?

A

Apocrine

161
Q

What are the milk producing units?

A

Alveoli (acini)

162
Q

What are clusters of alveoli?

A

Lobuli

163
Q

What are clusters of Lobuli?

A

Lobi

164
Q

What cells are involved in milk ejection?

A

Myoepithelial cells

165
Q

Nutrient and water required for milk production diffuse from ________ ___________ and enter into the __________ ______

A

blood capillaries, epithelial cells

166
Q

What are examples of cornified epidermal structures?

A

Hooves, claws, horns, claws, beaks, shells, scales

167
Q

Horny hoof wall is formed by what?

A

Keratinization of the cells in the coronary band, recently produced horn is pushed downward as new horn is being formed.

168
Q

At the coronary band, the _____ of the skin is continuous with the _____ of the hoof.

A

Dermis, Dermis

169
Q

What hairs provide the smooth appearance, lie close against skin, and promote rain runoff?

A

Guard hairs

170
Q

How do guard hairs develop?

A

The follicle develops from an ectodermal bud, the distal end of the bud forms a bulbous enlargement indented by mesenchymal papillar to form primitive hair follicle.

171
Q

Long tail hairs of cattle
Fetlock tufts of horses
Feather of tail and limbs of certain breeds of dogs

These are examples of what?

A

Guard hairs

172
Q

What hairs provide the soft undercoat?

A

Wool hairs

173
Q

These hairs are shorter, more numerous than guard hairs and are concealed between the guard hair

A

Wool hairs

174
Q

These hairs are substantially thicker and generally protrude beyond the neighboring guard hairs

A

Tactile hair

175
Q

These hairs can reach deep into the SQ or even superficial muscles

A

Tactile hair

176
Q

These hairs are characterized by the presence of venous sinus filled with blood and located between inner and outer layers of dermal sheath

A

Tactile hairs

177
Q

Follicles of these types of hair appear early in development, before those of the coat hairs.

A

Tactile hairs

178
Q

Structure that has thick epidermal covering, dermis, and SQ cushion or pulvinus

A

Torus/Tori (foot pad)

179
Q

What is the difference between digitigrade and plantigrade?

A

Digitigrade - such as dogs- don’t walk on the “soles” of their feet as much as their “digits”
Plantigrade - such as bears - put their weight mainly on the sole of their foot.

180
Q

Ruminants and pigs have a digital pad called what?

A

Bulb- located in the hoof

181
Q

Horses have digital pads called what?

A

Frog- located in the hoof

182
Q

What are the three parts of the horse hoof?

A

Wall, Sole and associated pad (horny structure; corresponds with digital bulb or digital pad)

183
Q

Strongly curved portion of the equine hoof that has sides that are sharply inflected to form bars

A

The wall

184
Q

Space between the bars of an equine hoof

A

The frog

185
Q

The part of the horse hoof that contacts the ground

A

Frog

186
Q

The sole horn that fills the ground surface between the wall and the frog is a junction known as what?

A

The White Line

187
Q

What is the band of soft horn that lies over the external surface of the wall near the junction of the skin?

A

Periople

188
Q

What structure widens the back of the hoof, where it covers the bulbs of the heel and part of the frog?

A

Periople

189
Q

Descends with the wall and dries to a protective glossy layer

A

Periople

190
Q

What bonds the claw to the dorsal border of the bone?

A

Longitudinal interdigitations between the dermal and epidermal laminae

191
Q

What make up the CNS?

A

Brain and spinal cord

192
Q

What make up the PNS?

A

Spinal and cranial nerves

193
Q

What is the role of the CNS?

A

The interpret incoming sensory information and issue instructions based on past experience and current conditions

194
Q

What is the role of the PNS?

A

To carry impulses from the sensory receptors to the CNS and from the CNS to effectors

195
Q

Afferent division (AKA sensory component) conducts impulses ________ the spinal cord and brain

A

Toward

196
Q

Efferent division (AKA motor component) of the PNS conveys impulses ______ from the brain and spinal cord

A

Away

197
Q

Afferent and Efferent are further subdivided into what?

A

Somatic and Visceral sytems

198
Q

What system is concerned with both sensory and motor functions that determine relationship of the organism to the outside world?

A

Somatic

199
Q

This system includes detection of stimuli in the skin, tissues of limb and trunk as well as behavioral actions

A

Somatic system

200
Q

The somatic system can also be referred to as what?

A

The voluntary system

201
Q

This system is concerned with sensory and motor functions that relate to the internal viscera

A

Visceral system

202
Q

The motor component of the visceral peripheral nervous system is also referred to as what?

A

Autonomic system

203
Q

Regulation of BP, HR, and the control of glandular activity and digestive process are controlled by what nervous system?

A

The Visceral (or Autonomic) nervous system

204
Q

The Autonomic nervous system consists of what?

A

Sympathetic and parasympathetic systems

205
Q

Visceral efferent fibers of the sympathetic division leave the CNS via the spinal nerves in the ___________ regions of the spinal cord

A

Thoracolumbar regions

206
Q

The visceral efferent fibers of the parasympathetic division are found in a small group of cranial nerves and in spinal nerves of the ______ region of the spinal cord

A

Sacral region

207
Q

The sympathetic division is responsible for what responses?

A

Flight or Fight

208
Q

The parasympathetic division is responsible for what responses?

A

Conserving energy
Promotes housekeeping functions during rest.

209
Q

What are the basic elements of the nervous system?

A

Neurons

210
Q

Thin branching extensions of the cell body that conduct nerve impulses towards the cell body

A

Dendrites

211
Q

A single branch (in most neurons) which conducts nerves away from the cell body?

A

Axon

212
Q

What does gray matter of the brain contain?

A

Cell bodies of motor and association neurons

213
Q

What does white matter of the brain contain?

A

Myelinated axons

214
Q

All spinal nerves are ________ nerves, but not all cranial nerves are.

A

Mixed

215
Q

What part of the brain controls coordination and fine tuning of movement?

A

Cerebellum

216
Q

What part of the brain is the conscious perception of sensory input and initiation of conscious movement?

A

Cerebrum

217
Q

What is the relay center for the brain, it filters sensory input and allows us to concentrate?

A

Brain stem (midprain, pons and medulla oblongota)

218
Q

What is the corpus callosum responsible for?

A

Enabling communication between hemispheres

219
Q

Reflexes do not require _______ input and does not imply consciousness.

A

Cerebral

220
Q

Response requires _______ awareness

A

Cortical

221
Q

What are the 5 elements of reflex arc?

A
  1. Receptor
  2. Sensory neuron
  3. Integration center
  4. Motor neuron
  5. Effector
222
Q

What are somatic reflexes?

A

They include all reflexes that stimulate skeletal muscle

223
Q

What are autonomic reflexes?

A

They regulate the activity of smooth muscle, heart and glands. I.e. Digestion, elimination, blood pressure and sweating

224
Q

Sensory (afferent) Nerves, Motor (efferent) nerves and Mixed nerves are based on what?

A

The direction of the nerve impulse

225
Q

What are the 4 types of basic tissue that make up the organs of the body?

A

Epithelial
Connective
Muscular
Nervous

226
Q

What are the three types of epithelium?

A

Lining (surface) epithelia
Glandular epithelia
Special epithelia

227
Q

Where would you find lining epithelia?

A

Body surfaces, lining of luminal organs, tubular structures, body cavities

228
Q

What is the function of glandular epithelia?

A

To synthesize, store and release various products

229
Q

What type of epithelia contain sensory nerve endings?

A

Special epithelia

230
Q

Where would you find special epithelia?

A

Skin, ears, tongue (nose and eyes but w/ modified neurons)

231
Q

What are some characteristics of epithelium?

A

Supported by connective tissue
Avascular
Basement membrane
Cells are cohesive
Cells are polarized

232
Q

Epithelium that is composed of flat, elongated cells, with a round to oval nucleus- often centrally located.

A

Simple Squamous Epithelium

233
Q

Where would simple squamous epithelium be found?

A

Lining of body cavities (mesothelium), alveolar walls in lungs, inner lining of blood vessels and lymphatic vessels (called the endothelium)

234
Q

What type of epithelium has tall, narrow cells with an oval nucleus located near the base?

A

Simple Columnar Epithelium

235
Q

What kind of epithelium would you find lining the luminal surface of the stomach, SI, LI and gall bladder?

A

Simple columnar

236
Q

What kind of epithelium would you see lining the oviduct?

A

Simple columnar ciliated

237
Q

What type of epithelium is composed of a single layer of irregularly shaped and sized cells?

A

Pseudostratified

238
Q

In what kind of epithelium would all cells touch the basement membrane but not all reach the apical surface?

A

Pseudostratified

239
Q

Where would you find pseudostratified epithelium?

A

Nasal cavity and upper respiratory tract

240
Q

What complication can be seen with a lack or absence of cilia?

A

Chronic respiratory infections

241
Q

What epithelium is composed of several layers of cells?

A

Stratified Squamous Epithelium

242
Q

What are the two types of squamous epithelium?

A

Keratinized (cornified)
Non-keratinized

243
Q

What type of epithelium is found in the dental pad of ruminants?

A

Stratified Squamous, Keratinized

244
Q

Transitional epithelium is also called what?

A

Urothelium

245
Q

What type of epithelium would you find lining the urinary bladder?

A

Transitional (Urothelium) epithelium

246
Q

What makes Urothelium unique?

A

Superficial cells have specialized plasma membranes providing an osmotic barrier between urine and tissue fluids

247
Q

In transitional epithelium, if the superficial cells are cuboidal with a dome shaped surface what does that indicate?

A

An empty bladder

248
Q

In transitional epithelium, if the epithelium appears flattened and more like stratified squamous, what does that indicate?

A

A full bladder

249
Q

Where are stem cells located?

A

Stratum basale (basal cell layer)

250
Q

What are the criteria used to classify glandular epithelium?

A

Number of cells in the gland
Shape of duct and secretory units (adenomeres)
Type of product
Mode of secretion

251
Q

Where are unicellular glands found?

A

Epithelial lining and glands of intestine as well as in the epithelial lining of the respiratory tract

252
Q

What is an example of a unicellular gland?

A

Goblet cell

253
Q

What gives the goblet cell it’s unique shape?

A

The presence of abundant mucinogen granuls in the apical part of the cell

254
Q

Where might you see goblet cells?

A

Simple columnar epithelium of the colon

255
Q

What are the three types of multicellular glands?

A

Tubular
Acinar
Alveolar

256
Q

What type of gland would you find in sweat glands, stomach glands or intestinal glands?

A

Tubular gland

257
Q

What kind of gland is pie-shaped?

A

Acinar

258
Q

What type of gland would you find in the small lumen (pancreas and salivary glands)?

A

Acinar

259
Q

What gland provides a larger luminal space?

A

Alveolar

260
Q

Where would you find alveolar glands?

A

Mammary glands, prostate, sebaceous glands

261
Q

What shape corresponds to a rounded secretory unit?

A

Acinar

262
Q

What shape corresponds to a bigger luminal space?

A

Alveolar

263
Q

What is the parenchyma?

A

The collective secretory units and ducts of a compound gland

264
Q

The connective tissue elements comprise what?

A

The stroma

265
Q

Large glands are divided into _______ which are further divided into _______

A

Lobes, lobules

266
Q

What is an example of cerumen?

A

Ear wax

267
Q

What is the secretion of modified sweat glands in the external auditory canal?

A

Cerumen

268
Q

What is sebum?

A

Oily secretion from the sebaceous glands

269
Q

A gland that produces both mucous and serous secretion is called mixed. What is an example of this?

A

Saliva

270
Q

What are the components of connective tissue?

A

Cells, Fibers, Ground substance (interstitial fluid)

271
Q

What are some characteristics of connective tissue?

A

Supports epithelia
Vascularized
Cells lack polarity
Less cohesive
No basement membrane

272
Q

What are some functions of connective tissue?

A

Joins tissues together
Gives form, subdivides organs
Physical support of body
Thermoregulation
Nutrition and storage (adipose)
Defense and repair mechanisms

273
Q

What are the two types of cells of connective tissue?

A

Resident and transient

274
Q

What are the 3 types of fibers in connective tissue?

A

Collagen, elastic, reticular

275
Q

What are the two types of ground substance in connective tissue?

A

Macromolecules and interstitial fluid

276
Q

What is the most numerous cell population in connective tissue?

A

Fibroblasts

277
Q

What type of cells are fibroblasts?

A

Resident cells

278
Q

What synthesizes the fibers of connective tissue?

A

Fibroblasts

279
Q

What are examples of resident cells?

A

Reticular cells, Fibroblasts, Adipocytes, Macrophages, Mast cells

280
Q

What type of cells would you find in lymph nodes, liver, spleen, that would not be subjected to high mechanical stress?

A

Reticular cells

281
Q

What cells serve as scaffolding to the parenchyma of various organs?

A

Reticular cells

282
Q

What cells specialize in depositing lipids?

A

Adipocytes

283
Q

What are the two types of adipocytes?

A

Multiocular (brown)
Uniocular (white)

284
Q

Where would you see multiocular adipocytes?

A

Newborns and hibernating animals

285
Q

What is the resident phagocyte cell of connective tissue?

A

Macrophage

286
Q

What are the macrophages in the liver? And the bone?

A

Kupffer cells (liver)
Osteoclasts (bone)

287
Q

What cells are filled with basophilic granules?

A

Mast cells

288
Q

What cells are involved in inflammatory and allergic reactions?

A

Mast cells

289
Q

What does degranulation (activation) of mast cells cause?

A

Release of histamine and other chemical mediators that trigger symptoms of allergy

290
Q

What is an example of transient connective tissue cells?

A

White blood cells
(Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, lymphocytes)

291
Q

What are the most numerous fibers of connective tissue?

A

Collagen fiber

292
Q

What are some characteristics of collagen fiber?

A

White, very high tensile strength, very strong, can only stretch 5% of initial length

293
Q

What is the most abundant protein in the body?

A

Collagen

294
Q

What cells synthesize collagen?

A

FIbroblasts, chondroblasts, osteoblasts, odontoblasts…etc (basically anything ending in -blast)

295
Q

What is formed in the fibroblast and transported out of the cell to be assembled into collagen fibrils?

A

Procollagen

296
Q

What is an important cofactor in collagen synthesis?

A

Vitamin C

297
Q

Found in 90% of body’s collagen, skin, bone, dentin, tendons, fibrocartilage; resists tensile forces

A

Type 1 collagen

298
Q

Found in cartilage, resists compression

A

Type 2 collagen

299
Q

Reticular fibers found in the stroma of expandable organs

A

Type 3 collagen

300
Q

Basal lamina of the epithelia

A

Type 4 collagen

301
Q

FIber found in aorta, arteries, lungs, vocal cords, dermis, ear pinna, epiglottis…

A

Elastic fibers

302
Q

Individual, branching, anastomosing fibers

A

Elastic fibers

303
Q

What fibers are stained by silver and serve as scaffolding to cells or cell groups of various organs?

A

Reticular fibers

304
Q

What substance is produced by resident cells?

A

Ground substance

305
Q

Composed of glycosaminoglycans (GAGs)

A

Ground substance

306
Q

What link to core proteins to make proteoglycans?

A

GAGs

307
Q

Properties of these molecules allow for binding of water, resisting compressive forces, cell adhesion to fibers, cell migration, barrier to bacterial/venom penetration

A

Ground substance

308
Q

A solution of nutrients and dissolved gases derived from plasma

A

Interstitial fluid

309
Q

Bathes the cells, fibers and ground substance, and aids in removing waste

A

Interstitial fluid

310
Q

A decrease in skin turgor is what?

A

A LATE sign in dehydration

311
Q

What are important in fluid movement and prevention of edema?

A

Lymphatics

312
Q

True or false
Interstitial (tissue) fluid is visible on slides

A

False - NOT visible on slides

313
Q

Adipocytes produce _____ which has regulatory effects on body fat.

A

Leptin

314
Q

Leptin levels are proportional to what?

A

Body fat

315
Q

What signals the brain (satiety center) that the body has had enough to eat?

A

Leptin

316
Q

What occurs when adipocytes outnumber other cell types?

A

Adipose tissue

317
Q

What is the endocrine function of white adipose tissue?

A

Hormone “leptin” secretion

318
Q

What are the main functions of White adipose tissue?

A

Energy storage
Insulation
Leptin secretion

319
Q

What is the main function of brown adipose tissue?

A

Heat generation

320
Q

What part of the ear captures air vibrations and directs them towards the tympanic membrane?

A

External ear

321
Q

The auricle (pinna) and ear canal (vertical and horizontal part) are the parts of what portion of the ear?

A

The external ear

322
Q

Sound modulation is a function of what portion of the ear?

A

Middle ear

323
Q

This part of the ear is located in the tympanic part of the temporal bone of skull

A

Middle ear

324
Q

What are the 3 auditory ossicles?

A

Malleus
Incus
Stapes

325
Q

What connects the tympanic membrane to the oval window?

A

The 3 auditory ossicles

326
Q

Through what structure does the pharynx communicate with the middle ear?

A

Auditory tube

327
Q

The pharynx and auditory tube ensure what?

A

That the air pressure inside the middle ear is equal to the outside air pressure

328
Q

Where is the inner ear housed?

A

Deep inside the temporal bone

329
Q

What nerve is found in the inner ear?

A

CN VIII (Vestibulocochlear nerve)

330
Q

What comprises the inner ear?

A

Cochlea (organ for hearing)
Vestibular apparatus (organ for balance)
Utricle
Saccule

331
Q

What are the 3 tunics of the eye?

A

Fibrous Tunic
Vascular Tunic
Nervous Tunic

332
Q

What tunic houses the sclera and cornea?

A

Fibrous tunic

333
Q

What tunic houses the iris, ciliary body, and choroid?

A

Vascular tunic

334
Q

What tunic houses the pigmented layer and neural layer?

A

Nervous tunic

335
Q

What structure is responsible for structural integrity of the eye?

A

Sclera

336
Q

What structure of the eye allows light to enter the eye?

A

Cornea

337
Q

What structure in the eye modulates the amount of light?

A

Iris

338
Q

What structure of the eye modulates vision focus?

A

Ciliary body

339
Q

What structure in the eye provides blood supply and innervation?

A

Choroid

340
Q

What tunic reacts to light stimuli and outputs nerve impulses for the brain to be interpreted as images?

A

Nervous tunic

341
Q

What is the transparent anterior 1/4 of the eye?

A

Cornea

342
Q

What is the opaque posterior 3/4 of the eye?

A

Sclera

343
Q

Where is the tapetum lucidum found?

A

In the choroid

344
Q

Dorsal part of the eye that reflects light, is avascular and reflects in iridescence

A

Tapetum lucidum

345
Q

Which portion of the eye is suspended between the cornea and lens?

A

Iris

346
Q

Which portion of the nervous tunic of the eye has no photoreceptors?

A

Anterior, thinner pigmented layer

347
Q

What is responsible for the “blind spot”?

A

Optic disk of the nervous tunic (retina) where axons emerge from the eye bulb

348
Q

What muscles change the shape of the lens for focusing?

A

Ciliary muscles

349
Q

What intrinsic muscles of the eye are poorly developed in domestic animals?

A

Ciliary muscles

350
Q

What are the intrinsic muscles of the eye?

A

Ciliary and pupillary

351
Q

What type of muscles of the eye are under voluntary control?

A

Extrinsic muscles (4 rectus and 2 oblique)

352
Q

The space between the cornea and lens is divided into what 2 chambers?

A

Anterior and Posterior chamber

353
Q

What chamber does NOT communicate with anterior compartment?

A

Vitreous chamber

354
Q

What eye chamber is from the cornea to the iris?

A

Anterior

355
Q

What eye chamber is from the iris to the lens?

A

Posterior

356
Q

What chamber contains the aqueous humor?

A

Anterior and Posterior chamber

357
Q

Concave fold of palpebral conjunctiva that protrudes from the medial angle of the eye

A

Third eyelid (plica semilunaris)

358
Q

What supports the third eyelid?

A

T-shaped cartilage

359
Q

Gland of the eye located dorso-lateral to eye, secretes serous fluid

A

Lacrimal gland

360
Q

What is the flow for tears/gland secretion?

A

Lacrimal gland secretes serous fluid, then secretion flows over cornea then passes through lacrimal puncta and into lacrimal canaliculi and then drains into nasolacrimal duct

361
Q

What is located in the caudal region of the nasal cavity?

A

Olfactory mucosa

362
Q

What covers thin scrolls of ethmoidal bone?

A

Olfactory mucosa

363
Q

This nerve is made up of numerous axons that rise in the olfactory mucosa and pass through cribiform foramina to olfactory bulbs

A

Olfactory nerve

364
Q

Where are taste buds located on the tongue?

A

Vallate
Foliate
Fungiform papillae

365
Q

What CN is found on the caudal 1/3 of the tongue?

A

IX (Glossopharyngeal)

366
Q

What CN is sensory from the rostral 2/3 of the tongue?

A

Lingual nerve (Touch- trigeminal nerve CN V and taste- facial CN VII)

367
Q

What do canine’s have since they have an incomplete orbit?

A

Orbital ligament

vet prep structure function (5 decks)

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