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Pathology > Infectious disease > Flashcards

Infectious disease Flashcards

1
Q

Interaction between two organisms in which both benefit:

A

Mutualism

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2
Q

Interaction between two organisms in which one organism benefits and the other is left unharmed nor helped:

A

Commensalism

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3
Q

Example of commensalism:

A

C. albicans

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4
Q

-bind to or enter host cells
-release endotoxins or exotoxins
-release enzymes that degrade tissue components
-damage blood vessels and cause ischemic injury
-induce host inflammatory and immune responses

These are all ways that:

A

Pathogens can injure cells and cause tissue damage

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5
Q

-prions
-viruses
-bacteria
-chlamydia
-rickettsia
-mycoplasma
-fungi
-protozoa
-helminths
-ectoparasites

these are all:

A

Pathogens

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6
Q

What are the steps to viral infection and replication: (5)

A
  1. attach
  2. penetrate
  3. reproduce
  4. assemble
  5. release
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7
Q

Give an example of a transient viral infection:

A

Hep A

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8
Q

Give an example of a chronic latent infection:

A

Herpes simplex virus

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9
Q

Give an example of chronic productive viral infection:

A

Hep B

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10
Q

Give an example of a transforming viral infection:

A

Epstein Barr virus or HPV

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11
Q

The natural reservoir for human herpes virus (HHV):

A

Humans

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12
Q

HHV-1:
HHV-2:
HHV-3:
HHV-4:
HHV-5:
HHV-8:

A

HHV-1: HSV-1
HHV-2: HSV-2
HHV-3: Varicella zoster virus
HHV-4: Epstein Barr virus
HHV-5: Cytomegalovirus
HHV-8: Kaposi Sarcoma associated virus

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13
Q

Flu-like illness with fever, malaise, arthralgia, headache and cervical lymphadenopathy:

A

Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis

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14
Q

What ganglion is affected in HSV infection?

A

Trigeminal ganglion

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15
Q

Herpes infection behind the ear (common in wrestlers):

A

Herpes gladiatorum

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16
Q

Around eye involvement of HSV:

A

HSV autoinoculation

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17
Q

Herpes of cornea:

A

Keratitis

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18
Q

Focal mucosal destruction; a T-lymphocyte mediated cytotoxic reaction:

A

Recurrent aphthous stomatitis

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19
Q

Describe the evolution of an aphthous ulcer:

A
  1. erythematous macule
  2. ulceration
  3. fibrinous membrane
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20
Q

The precipitating factors for recurrent aphthous stomatitis include: (7)

A
  1. SLS
  2. Stress
  3. Trauma
  4. Allergies
  5. Acid foods/juices
  6. Gluten
  7. Endocrine alterations
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21
Q

Clinical forms of recurrent aphthous stomatitis:

A
  1. minor aphthae
  2. major aphthae
  3. herpetiform
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22
Q

What is a key difference in the recovery of minor vs. major aphthae:

A

Major involves scarring

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23
Q

How can we differentiate between herpetiform aphthae and recurrent intraoral herpes simplex?

A

Herpetiform aphthae is located on non-keratinized mucosa and does not begin as vesicles

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24
Q

Describe the vesicular stage presence, number of lesions & location of lesion of recurrent herpes:

A
  1. yes
  2. multiple, confluent
  3. masticatory mucosa
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25
Q

Describe the vesicular stage presence, number of lesions & location of lesion of recurrent aphthae:

A
  1. no
  2. frequently solitary
  3. moveable mucosa
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26
Q

Aphthous-like lesions may be associated with systemic diseases such as:

A
  1. Behcet’s syndrome
  2. Reiters syndrome
  3. inflammatory bowel disease (ulcerative colitis & Crohn’s disease)
  4. malabsorption syndromes (gluten sensitive enteropathy)
  5. cyclic neutropenia
  6. HIV/AIDs
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27
Q

Discuss the transmission of varicella (chicken pox):

A

transmission by inspiration of infected droplets

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28
Q

What ganglion is involved in the latent phase of varicella zoster (shingles phase):

A

dorsal spinal ganglion

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29
Q

Varicella= ______
Herpes zoster= ____

A

chicken pox
shingles

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30
Q

Hepatitis A is a ____ infection

A

transient

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31
Q

Name two viruses that involve chronic latent infections:

A
  1. cytomegalovirus
  2. HSV
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32
Q

Name a virus that is considered a chronic productive infection:

A

Hep B virus

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33
Q

Name two viruses that are considered transforming infections:

A
  1. Epstein Barr
  2. HPV
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34
Q

Atypical lymphocytes called Downey cells are characteristic of:

A

Infectious mononucleosis (HHV-4)

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35
Q

What cell is shown in this image? What are they characteristic of?

A

Atypical lymphocytes called downey cells; infectious mononucleosis (HHV-4)

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36
Q

What gingival disease is associated with infectious mononucelosis?

A

Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis

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37
Q

What lab tests are used to test for infectious mononucleosis?

A
  1. monospot test
  2. EBV- specific testing
  3. heterophile antibody *although not specific for EBV
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38
Q

What is the heterophile antibody induced by EBV infection? (for mono)

A

IgM antibody

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39
Q

The antibody involved in infectious mononucleosis is a _____ antibody

A

heterophile

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40
Q

The heterophile (IgM) antibody induced by the EBV infection binds to _____ antigen of sheep and bovine RBCs

A

paul-bunnell

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41
Q

infectious mononucleosis tends to be _____ and reccommended treatment is _____.

A

symptomatic; bed rest to prevent splenic rupture

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42
Q

Epithelial hyperplasia associated with EBV infection:

A

Oral hairy leukoplakia

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43
Q

What is a common location for oral hairy leukoplakia?

A

lateral border of tongue

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44
Q

Although oral hairy leukoplakia is associated with EBV infection, it may occur:

A

in any immunodeficient state

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45
Q

What is shown in this image?

A

Hairy tongue (NOT oral hairy leukoplakia)

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46
Q

What is seen in this image? What condition is this often associated with?

A

Oral hairy leukoplakia (epithelial hyperplasia); associated with EBV infection

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47
Q

What is seen in this image? What condition is this often associated with?

A
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48
Q

Cytomegalovirus (CMV) may also be called:

A

HHV-5

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49
Q

Most of the population affected by CMV by age:

A

60

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50
Q

Most CMV infections are:

A

Asymptomatic

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51
Q

What are the stages of cytomegalovirus? (3)

A
  1. initial infection
  2. latency
  3. reactivation
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52
Q

This histological slide is characteristic of:

A

Cytomegalovirus (alien-looking ass cell)

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53
Q

Acute infection by cytomegalovirus is similar to _____ but is _____ negative

A

infectious mononucleosis (EBV); heterophile antibody negative

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54
Q

Rarely, what comorbidities may accompany cytomegalovirus?

A

acute sialodenitis with painful swelling & xerostomia

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55
Q

A result of cytomegalovirus infections in immunocompromised individuals may cause: (2)

A
  1. retinitis- blindness
  2. colitis
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56
Q

Self-limited disease that occurs in epidemics of flu-like symptoms in young children:

A

Coxasackievirus (group A)

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57
Q

Coxasackievirus group A is transmitted by:

A

Fecal-oral and airborne routes

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58
Q

Herpangina involves what types of symptoms?

A

constitutional

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59
Q

Begins as small vesicles that rupture and ulcerate:

A

Herpangina

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60
Q

Common locations of herpangina include:

A

posterior oral cavity & oral pharynx

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61
Q

Vesicular eruption of hands, feet and anterior mouth:

A

Hand foot and mouth disease

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62
Q

Another name for measles:

A

Rubeola

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63
Q

Measles (rubeola) is a ____ disease often seen in _____, characterized by _____

A

communicable disease; children; skin rash

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64
Q

Children are given ____ vaccine to protect against measles (rubeola)

A

MMR

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65
Q

______ are a characteristic sign of measles (rubeola)

A

Koplik spots

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66
Q

“grains of salt” on an erythmatous base:

A

Koplik spots

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67
Q

The characteristic koplik spots seen in measles (rubeola) signify:

A

foci of epithelial necrosis

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68
Q

Infectious parotitis:

A

mumps

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69
Q

Acute viral parotitis (mumps) may also be called:

A

Endemic parotitis

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70
Q

Acute viral parotitis (mumps) is a _____ disease seen in _____ and is vaccinated against with the ______ vaccination

A

communicable; childhood; MMR

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71
Q

mumps is _____% _____ infection

A

30% subclinical

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72
Q

mumps involves _____ constitutional symptoms

A

prodromal

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73
Q

Disease characterized by salivary gland swelling & discomfort:

A

mumps

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74
Q

What is occurring in this image, and what is it caused by?

A

Salivary gland swelling; mumps

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75
Q

What is an elevated laboratory finding in mumps?

A

elevated serum amylase- released from granules during lysis of acinar cells

76
Q

Describe the test for mumps:

A

specific serological ltests

77
Q

Complications of mumps (rare in the young and more common in older individuals) include: (8)

A
  1. orchitis
    2, oophoritis
  2. mastitis
  3. meningitis
  4. thyroiditis
  5. pancreatitis
  6. sterility
  7. hearing loss
78
Q

Bacterial pathogens can cause what types of infections?

A
  1. transient
  2. localized
  3. systemic
79
Q

Bacterial pathogens may be _____ or _____

(in regards to the cell)

A

intracellular or extracellular

80
Q

Tuberculosis is caused by the bacterial pathogen:

A

mycobacterium tuberculosis

81
Q

What is the most common infection with mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A

pulmonary infection

82
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a _____ pathogen that causes _____

A

intracellular pathogen; granulomatous disease

83
Q

What is the prevalence of tuberculosis:

A

1/3 of world population infected

84
Q

Leading cause of death after AIDs:

A

tuberculosis

85
Q

Tuberculosis targets disadvantages populations such as:

A
  1. homeless
  2. malnourished
  3. overcrowded
86
Q

Active tuberculosis cases are increasing due to:

A
  1. HIV infection
  2. Immigration
87
Q

Growth of the organism in a TB patient:

Destructive, symptomatic disease in a TB patient:

A

Infection; active disease

88
Q

Transmission of tuberculosis is by: (3)

A
  1. Droplet nuclei (1-5 microns)
  2. stay airborne for long periods of time
  3. reach the pulmonary alveoli
89
Q

Type of TB that occurs in a previously unexposed (unsensitized) person:

A

Primary pulmonary tuberculosis

90
Q

Primary pulmonary tuberculosis is associated with _____ (parenchymal lung lesion & hilar nodal lesion)

A

Gohn complex

91
Q

Parenchymal lung lesion & hilar nodal lesion associated with primary pulmonary TB:

A

Gohn complex

92
Q

What host response controls primary pulmonary TB infection?

A

cell-mediated immunity

93
Q

_____ and _____ are both seen in primary pulmonary tuberculosis

A

fibrosis & calcification

94
Q

Viable organisms may be dormant in lesions of latent disease in tuberculosis by may:

A

Reactivate if immune defenses are lowered

95
Q

What is seen in this image? What is this characteristic of?

A

Acid fast bacilli; tuberculosis

96
Q

mycobacterium tuberculosis intracellular pathogen contains _____ which blocks fusion of phagosome with lysosome

A

TB cord factor

97
Q

Diagnosis of TB includes: (3)

A
  1. chest radiograph
  2. sputum culture
  3. molecular biologic tools
98
Q

Treatment of TB involves ________ regimens including the drugs: (6)

A

Multi-drug regimens

-Isoniazid
-Rifampin
-Ethambutol
-Streptomycin
-Pyranzinimide
-Rifabutin

99
Q

Symptoms of active TB include: (5)

A
  1. chronic cough
  2. hemoptysis
  3. weight loss
  4. night sweats
  5. fever
100
Q

What test is used to test for tuberculosis?

A

Mantoux tuberculin skin test (PPD test)

101
Q

The mantoux tuberculin skin test (PPD test) is a _____ reaction to the protein from M. Tuberculosis

A

type IV delayed hypersensitivity

102
Q

_______ tuberculin injection is how the mantoux tuberculin skin test is performed

A

intracutaneous

103
Q

In a PPD test, what occurs with a positive result?

A

T-cells sensitized by prior infection are recruited to the area and this produces an area of induration

104
Q

What does a positive tuberculin skin test signify?

A
  1. Individual has been infected
  2. Cell-mediated hypersensitivity occurs
  3. Does NOT indicate active disease
105
Q

Describe the Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) vaccination for TB: (4)

  1. What type of vaccination is it
  2. What does it cause
  3. Is it effective
  4. Territories of use
A
  1. Live, attenuated strain of mycobacterium bovis
  2. Causes positive PPD reaction
  3. Effectiveness uncertain
  4. Not used in U.S.
106
Q

The bacillus calmette-guerin (BCG) vaccine is used for:

A

TB

107
Q

Tuberculosis lymphadenitis of the neck:

A

Scrofula

108
Q

Scrofula is tuberculosis lymphadenitis of the neck caued by:

A

Mycobacterium bovis infection from infected milk

109
Q

How do we prevent scrofula infections? (2)

A
  1. pasteurization of milk
  2. tuberculosis control of cattle
110
Q

Syphillis is caused by:

A

Treponema pallidum

111
Q

What are the two forms of syphillus?

A
  1. acquired syphilis (sexual transmission)
  2. congenital syphilis (in-utero transmission)
112
Q

What are the clinical stages of untreated acquired syphilis (inlcude their time frames):

A
  1. primary (1 week to 3 months)
  2. secondary (1 to 12 months)
  3. tertiary (late) (1 to 30 years)
113
Q

Latent syphilis infections can relapse into:

A

Secondary syphilis infections

114
Q

These images show _____ which is characteristic of ____

A

Primary chancre of syphilis (primary infection)

115
Q

These images show _____ which is characteristic of ____

A

Primary chancre of syphilis (primary infection)

116
Q

This image shows _____ which is characteristic of _____

A

Primary chancre of syphilis (primary infection)

117
Q

Lesions of secondary syphilis include: (3)

A
  1. skin rash
  2. mucous patch
  3. condyloma lata
118
Q

These image are characteristic of:

A

Secondary syphilis

119
Q

What is show in these images? What is this characteristic of?

A

Maculopapular rash; secondary syphilis

120
Q

What is show in these images? What is this characteristic of?

A

Mucous patch; secondary syphilis

121
Q

Most destructive stage of syphilis:

A

Tertiary syphilis

122
Q

_____ & ______ are signs of Tertiary syphilis

A

gumma & symphilitis glossitis

123
Q

Tertiary syphilis may have nervous system involvement called:

A

Neurosyphilis (tabes dorsalis)

124
Q

Tertiary syphilis may have cardiovascular system involvement resulting in:

A

Aneurysm of ascending aorta

125
Q

what systems may be involved in tertiary syphilis infection?

A

nervous system & cardiovascular system

126
Q

What can be seen in the following images? What is this associated with?

A

Gumma; tertiary syphilis

127
Q

What lesions are associated with the following stages of syphilis:

  1. primary
  2. secondary
  3. tertiary

Discuss infectivity of the lesions

A
  1. chancre- infectious
  2. mucous patch- infectious
  3. gumma- not infectious
128
Q

Lesions of congenital syphilus include: (5)

A
  1. snuffles
  2. saddle nose
  3. rhagades
  4. hutchinson’s incisors
  5. mulberry molars
129
Q

Congenital syphilis depressed nasal bridge=

A

Saddle nose

130
Q

Dental stigmata of congenital syphilis inlcude:

A

hutchinson’s incisors & mulberry molars

131
Q

Hutchinson’s triad of congenital syphilis:

A
  1. blind- interstitial keratitis
  2. deaf
  3. dental anomalies
132
Q

Describe the laboratory tests for syphilis:

  1. culture-
  2. microscopy-
  3. serological tests-
A
  1. cannot culture
  2. dark field or fluorescence microscopy
  3. non-treponemal tests- reagin - antibody to cardiolipin & treponemal test- specific for T. Pallidum
133
Q

Discuss the non-treponemal tests- reagin - antibody to cardiolipin for syphilis (2):

A
  1. VDRL- venereal disease research labratory
  2. RPR- Rapid plasma reagin
134
Q

Discuss the treponemal tests- specific for T. Pallidum for syphilis: (2)

A
  1. FTA-ABS (fluorescent treponemal antigen absorption)
  2. MHA-TP (microhemagglutinin- treponema pallidum)
135
Q

Actinomycosis is a _____ pathogen

A

fungal

136
Q

Diseases caused by fungi may be classified as: (4)

A
  1. superficial
  2. subcutaneous
  3. systemic
  4. opportunistic
137
Q

Fungal disease of the skin, hair, or nails:

A

superficial

138
Q

What is an example of a fungal infection that causes superficial disease?

A

dermatophytes

139
Q

Fungal disease of the dermis and subcutaneous tissue:

A

subcutaneous

140
Q

What is an example of a fungal infection that causes subcutaneous disease?

A

sporotricosis

141
Q

Deep fungal infections of internal organs:

A

systemic

142
Q

What is an example of a fungal infection that causes systemic disease?

A

histoplasmosis

143
Q

Fungal infection of an immunocompromised host:

A

Opportunistic

144
Q

What is an example of an opportunistic fungal infection?

A

Candidiasis

145
Q

Histoplasmosis is endemic to:

A

mississippi river valley

146
Q

Transission of histoplasmosis:

A

by inhalation of spores (bird droppings & dust particles)

147
Q

_____ infection is usual of histoplasmosis

A

sub-clinical

148
Q

Histoplasmosis presents similar to a ______ syndrome

A

flu-like

149
Q

Deep fungal infection of the lungs caused by the inhalation of spores”

A

Histoplasmosis

150
Q

Discuss the components of histoplasmosis: (4)

  1. ______ of spores
  2. ______
  3. specific _____
  4. _____ of organism
  5. _____ _____
A
  1. inhalation of spores
  2. phagocytosis
  3. specific immunity
  4. killing of organism
  5. dystrophic calcification
151
Q

What are the arrows pointing to?

A

Histoplasma Capsulatum

152
Q

Histoplasma capsulatum is a _______ fungus meaning:

A

Dimorphic fungus; yeast at body temperature, mold in nature

153
Q

______% of the population is infected with histoplasma capsulatum

A

80-90%

154
Q

What is the most common systemic fungal infection in U.S.?

A

Histoplasma Capsulatum

155
Q

Histoplasmosis infection occurring in the elderly, debilitated, immunosuppressed or AIDs patients:

A

Disseminated histoplasmosis

156
Q

Disseminated histoplasmosis involves the spread to:

A

extra-pulmonary sites

157
Q

_____ lesions such as _____ and _____ are involved with disseminated histoplasmosis

A

adreneal lesions; addisons disease

oral lesions

158
Q

Valley fever=

A

coccidiodomycosis

159
Q

-Deep fungal infection
-40% develop respiratory symptoms
-disseminated disease may occur
-common in southwestern areas

A

Coccidioidomycosis

160
Q

Clinical forms of oral candidiasis include: (5)

A
  1. pseudomembranous (thrush)
  2. erythematous (atrophic)
  3. hyperplastic
  4. angular chelitis (perleche)
  5. central papillary atrophy
161
Q

What clinical form of oral candidiasis is pictured below?

A

pseudomembraneous (thrush)

162
Q

What clinical form of oral candidiasis is pictured below?

A

erythematous (atrophic)

163
Q

What clinical form of oral candidiasis is pictured below?

A

hyperplastic

164
Q

What form of candidiasis may also be called thrush?

A

pseudomembraneous

165
Q

What clinical form of oral candidiasis is pictured below?

A

angular chelitis (Perleche)

166
Q

What clinical form of oral candidiasis is pictured below?

A

central papillary atrophy

167
Q

What form of candidiasis may be called perleche?

A

angular chelitis

168
Q

What clinical form of oral candidiasis is pictured below?

A

Acute pseudomembraneous (thrush)

169
Q

What clinical form of oral candidiasis is pictured below?

A

acute pseudomembraneous (thrush)

170
Q

What is the treatment for pseudomembraneous candidiasis?

A

Fluconazole (Diflucan) 100g

171
Q

What clinical form of oral candidiasis is pictured below?

A

atrophic candidiasis

172
Q

_____ agar has a low pH and gentramycin to inhibit bacterial growth (and allow for candidiasis growth)

A

Sabaurad agar

173
Q

What feature is present on oral exfoliative cytology for diagnosis of candidiasis fungal infections?

A

candidal pseudohyphae

174
Q

What clinical form of oral candidiasis is pictured below?

A

Erythematous candidiasis

175
Q

What is the treatment of erythemaous candidiasis?

A

Fluconazole (Diflucan) 100mg

176
Q

What clinical form of oral candidiasis is pictured below?

A

Erythematous candidiasis

177
Q

What is one way someone can get a candidiasis infection due to medication?

A

steroid inhaler

178
Q

Angular chelitis may also be called:

A

Perlache

179
Q

What clinical form of oral candidiasis is pictured below?

A

angular chelitis

180
Q

What are the treatment options for angular chelitis?

A

-Clotrimazole (mycelex) Cream 1%

-Nystatin/Triamcinolone Ointmemt

-Vytone cream

181
Q

What clinical form of oral candidiasis is pictured below?

A

Hyperplastic candidiasis

182
Q

Central papillary atrophy may also be called:

A

median rhomboid glossitis

183
Q

What is seen in the image below? (give both names)

A

Central papillary atrophy (median rhomboid glossitis)

184
Q

What clinical form of oral candidiasis is pictured below?

A

Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis (T-cell defects)

185
Q

Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis is caused by a:

A

T-cell defect

186
Q

Candidiasis is common in what type of infection?

A

HIV

187
Q
A

Pathology (28 decks)

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