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Fire Basic > Hazmat Operations > Flashcards

Hazmat Operations Flashcards

1
Q

Reading a hazardous materials incident scene to identify and interpret clues that will enable responders to make safer, informed decisions is an example of:
A. Tactical observation
B. Scene size up
C. Strategic vision
D. Hazard stratification

A

Scene size up

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2
Q

What types of materials are usually found in cardboard drums?
A. Liquids
B. Gasses
C. Vapors
D. Solid

A

Solid

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3
Q

Which type of cargo tank transports food grade products, gasoline, or flammable liquids?
A. Pressurized
B. Nonpressurized
C. Special use
D. Cryogenic

A

Nonpressurized

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4
Q

Used for both shipping and storage,____ hold between 5000 and 6000 gallons of product.
A. Bags
B. Carboys
C. Intermodal tanks
D. totes

A

Intermodal tanks

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5
Q

Which level of hazardous materials personal protective equipment should be selected when the atmospheric concentration of identified substances requires a high level of respiratory protection, but less skin protection?
A. Level A
B. Level B
C. Level C
D. Level X

A

Level B

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6
Q

Which intermodal tank container typically carries mild corrosives, food grade products, or flammable liquids?
A. IM-102
B. IM-301`
C. IM-101
D. IM-701

A

IM-101

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7
Q

Which intermodal container consists of several high pressure tubes attached to a frame and has working pressures that range as high as 5000 psi?
A. Spec 51
B. IM-101
C. Tube module
D. carboy

A

Tube module

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8
Q

Which type of cargo container is used to transport corrosives such as concentrates sulfuric acid and sodium hydroxide?
A. MC-306
B. MC-312
C. MC-331
D. MC-407

A

MC-312

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9
Q

This is the point at which a hazardous material/WMD begins to adversely affect a person.
A. Threshold limit value
B. Permissible exposure limit
C. Time weighted average
D. Recommended exposure time

A

Threshold limit value

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10
Q

Which cargo container has a sound or horseshoe shaped tank and is used to transport flammable liquids, mild corrosives, and poisons?
A. MC-308
B. MC-306
C. MC-307
D. MC-331

A

MC-307

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11
Q

Which of the following types of horizontal storage tanks has rounded ends and large vents or pressure relief stacks?
A. Pressurized
B. Nonpressurized
C. Cryogenic
D. Dry bulk

A

Pressurized

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12
Q

Which of the following containers could explode with tremendous force if heated rapidly?
A. Carboy
B. Drum
C. Cylinder
D. Bag

A

Cylinder

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13
Q

What types of materials are stored in Dewar containers?
A. Gasses
B. Solids
C. Hot liquids
D. Cold liquids

A

Cold liquids

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14
Q

Which type of packaging is typically used for shipping low-level radioactive waste?
A. Type D
B Type B
C. Industrial
D. Type R

A

Industrial

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15
Q

Radiopharmaceuticals are usually shipped in _______ packaging.
A. Type B
B. Type C
C. Type D
D. Type A

A

Type A

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16
Q

Railway tank cars can carry more than _____ gallons of product.
A. 30,000
B. 40,000
C. 50,000
D. 60,000

A

30,000

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17
Q

Where can responders typically find information about a pipeline’s contents?
A. 10 feet away from the pipelines main valves
B. On stickers placed on the pipe itself
C. On warning signs attached to vent pipes or along the pipeline
D. On signs on fences surrounding pipeline right of ways

A

On warning signs attached to vent pipes or along the pipeline

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18
Q

Which of the following statements must be included on every pesticide label?
A. “Use only as directed”
B. “Do not use on evergreen vegetation”
C. “Keep out of reach of children”
D. “Do not ingest”

A

“Keep out of reach of children”

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19
Q

The process of reacting monomers together in a chain reaction is referred to as:
A. Nucleation
B. Fission
C. Radiation
D. Polymerization

A

Polymerization

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20
Q

What type of potential terrorism agent could be present at an incident where personnel working on-site exhibit irritation to the eyes, difficulty breathing, nausea and vomiting, blisters, rashes, or convulsions?
A. Thermal
B. Radiological
C. Chemical
D. Nuclear

A

Chemical

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21
Q

The Emergency Response Guidebook organizes chemicals into nine basic hazard classes. Which of the following hazard classes is represented in DOT Class 1?
A. Explosives
B. Gasses
C. Oxidizers
D. Flammable solids

A

Explosives

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22
Q

All facilities that use or store chemicals are required, by law, to have a _____ used or stored in the facility.
A. Product identification number
B. Chemical identification number
C. Safety data sheet
D. Chemical release risk plan on file for each

A

Safety data sheet

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23
Q

Which of the following types of information can be found on a safety data sheet?
A. Applicable control measures
B. Survey of product effectiveness
C. Customer reviews
D. Chronic exposure values

A

Applicable control measures

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24
Q

Which of the following has the ability to provide responders with technical chemical information via telephone, fax, or other electronic media?
A. CHEMSTAR
B. CHEMTREC
C. FEMA
D. NRC

A

CHEMTREC

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25
Q

When contacting CHEMTREC, responders should provide all of the following, except the:
A. Callers name
B. Shippers name
C. Number of responders on scene
D. Truck or railcar number, if applicable

A

Number of responders on scene

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26
Q

When dealing with a hazardous materials incident involving marine vessels, what document should responders ask for that contains vital information about hazardous chemicals on board?
A. Waybill
B. Freight bill
C. Airbill
D. Dangerous cargo manifest

A

Dangerous cargo manifest

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27
Q

Which of the following agencies does the U.S. coast guard staff, manage and maintain?
A. Emergency management agency
B. Federal emergency response center
C. National response center
D. Department of hazardous materials

A

National response center

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28
Q

Polonium is a chemical that has been identified in cigarette smoke. Which type of radiation does this chemical emit?
A. Beta
B. Gamma
C. Omega
D. Alpha

A

Alpha

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29
Q

What is the most energetic radiation that responders may encounter?
A. Alpha
B. Gamma
C. Beta
D. Neutron

A

Gamma

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30
Q

Neutrons themselves are not directly radioactive; however, exposure to them can create radiation.
True
or
false

A

True

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31
Q

Why are flammable liquids with low boiling points especially dangerous?
A. Because of their reactivity with air
B. Because of their potential to release toxic vapors
C. Because of their potential to produce large volumes of flammable vapors at high temperatures
D. Because of their potential to produce large volumes of flammable vapors at low temperatures

A

Because of their potential to produce large volumes of flammable vapors at low temperatures

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32
Q

Also referred to as chemical change, which term describes the ability of a substance to undergo a transformation at the molecular level, usually with a release of energy?
A. Physical reactivity
B. Chemical energy
C. Chemical reactivity
D. Physical energy

A

Chemical reactivity

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33
Q

What is the flammable range for gasoline vapors?
A. 1.5% to 7%
B. 2.4% to 8%
C. 1.4% to 7.6%
D. 3% to 10%

A

1.4% to 7.6%

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34
Q

An expression of the temperature at which a liquid fuel gives of sufficient vapor to produce a flash fire when in presence of an ignition source is known as the:
A. Flash point
B. Ignition point
C. Combustion point
D. Vapor point

A

Flash point

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35
Q

Which of the following could determine the level of respiratory protection employed at an incident where inhalation hazards were present?
A. Particle size
B. Odorants
C. Presence of mold spores
D. Level of ambient heat

A

Particle size

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36
Q

Identifying a hazardous chemical by its physical state, such as solid, liquid, or gas, is to describe its:
A. State of matter
B. Chemical state
C. Molecular state
D. Chemical weight

A

State of matter

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37
Q

Beta particles and gamma radiation are examples of radiation.
A. Non-ionizing
B. Ionizing
C. Neutralizing
D. Electromagnetic

A

Ionizing

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38
Q

Gasoline, diesel fuel, and motor oil will behave in what manner when mixed with water?
A. They will form an even mixture with the water
B. They will sink below the surface of the water
C. They will spontaneously ignite
D. They will float on top of water

A

They will float on top of water

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39
Q

Vapors released from the surface of a liquid must be _____ if they are to exert any pressure
A. Unconfined
B. Ignited
C. Contained
D. Compressed

A

Contained

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40
Q

The process by which people, animals, the environment, and equipment are subjected to or come into contact with a hazardous material is known as:
A. Conduction
B. Exposure

A

Exposure

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41
Q

What is the most energetic type of radiation that responders may encounter
A. Alpha
B. Gamma
C. Beta
D. Neutron

A

Gamma

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42
Q

Neutrons themselves are not directly radioactive; however, exposure to them can create radiation.
True
Or
False

A

True

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43
Q

Why are flammable liquids with low boiling points especially dangerous?
A. Because of their reactivity with air
B. Because of their potential to release toxic vapors
C. Because of their potential to produce large volumes of flammable vapors at high temperatures
D. Because of their potential to produce large volumes of flammable vapors at low temperature

A

Because of their potential to produce large volumes of flammable vapors at low temperature

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44
Q

Also referred to as chemical change, which term describes the ability of a substance to undergo a transformation at the molecular level, usually with a release of energy?
A. Physical reactivity
B. Chemical energy
C. Chemical reactivity
D. Physical energy

A

Chemical reactivity

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45
Q

What is the flammable range for gasoline vapors?
A. 1.5% to 7%
B. 2.4% to 8%
C. 1.4% to 7.6%
D. 3% to 10%

A

1.4% to 7.6%

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46
Q

An expression of the temperature at which a liquid fuel gives of sufficient vapor to produce a flash fire, when in the presence of an ignition source, is known as the:
A. Flash point
B. Ignition point
C. Combustion point
D. Vapor point

A

Flash point

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47
Q

Which of the following could determine the level of respiratory protection employed at an incident where inhalation hazards were present?
A. Particle size
B. Odorants
C. Presence of mold spores
D. Level of ambient heat

A

Particle size

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48
Q

Identifying a hazardous chemical by its physical state, such as solid, liquid, or gas, is to describe its:
A. State of matter
B. Chemical state
C. Molecular structure
D. Chemical weight

A

State of matter

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49
Q

Beta particles and gamma radiation are examples of _____ radiation.
A. Non-ionizing
B. Ionizing
C. Neutralizing
D. Electromagnetic

A

Ionizing

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50
Q

gasoline , diesel fuel, and motor oil will behave in what manner when mixed with water?
A. They will form an even mixture with the water
B. They will sink below the surface of the water
C. They will spontaneously ignite
D. They will float on top of the water

A

They will float on top of the water

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51
Q

Vapors released from the surface of a liquid must be ______ if they are to exert any pressure.
A. Unconfined
B. Ignited
C. Contained
D. Compressed

A

Contained

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52
Q

The process by which people, animals, the environment, and equipment are subject to or come into contact with hazardous materials is known as:
A. Conduction
B. Direct contact
C. Transfer
D. Exposure.

A

Exposure

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53
Q

Anthrax is said to be_______which means it is capable of causing an illness by entry of a pathogenic microorganism.
A. Contagious
B. Infectious
C. Poisonous
D. lethal

A

Infectious

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54
Q

Chemicals that pose a hazard to health after only relatively short exposure periods are said to cause:
A. Chronic health effects
B. Long-term health effects
C. Acute health effects
D. No health effects

A

Acute health effects

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55
Q

If a propane cylinder is exposed to open flame for a prolonged period of time, what will happen to the cylinder contents?
A. The liquid propane will equalize
B. The liquid propane will boil and evaporate inside the cylinder
C. The liquid propane will boil, releasing vapors that increase the internal pressure of the cylinder
D. The liquid propane will absorb the heat without boiling

A

The liquid propane will boil, releasing vapors that increase the internal pressure of the cylinder

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56
Q

In the absence of an operation section chief, to whom would the hazardous materials branch director notify about a critical emergency condition at an incident
A. HazMat division chief
B. Safety officer
C. Logistics officer
D. Incident commander

A

Incident commander

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57
Q

Linseed oil is an organic material that generates heat as it decomposes, which is known as a________ change
A. Chemical
B. Physical
C. State of matter
D. Vapor

A

Chemical

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58
Q

Which of the following types of radiation can break chemical bonds at the molecular level and cause damage to living tissue?
A. Alpha particles
B. Beta particles
C. Omega particles
D. Non-ionizing particles

A

Beta particles

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59
Q

Substances that prevent the body from using oxygen are known as:
A. Convulsants
B. Irritants
C. Carcinogens
D. Asphyxiants

A

Asphyxiants

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60
Q

The extent of dissemination of a toxic gas or suspended liquid particles depends on all of the following, Except:
A. Wind chill
B. Wind direction
C. Wind speed
D. Humidity

A

Wind chill

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61
Q

The measure of the degree to which something is toxic or poisonous is known as its:
A. Lethality
B. Infectiousness
C. Poisonousness
D. Toxicity

A

Toxicity

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62
Q

What is the UN/DOT Hazard Class/Division for the toxic gas choking agent, Phosgene?
A. 2.4
B. 6.1
C. 2.3
D. 2.2

A

2.3

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63
Q

Tear gas is considered to be a toxic substance and has a corresponding UN/DOT Hazard Class/Division number of:
A. 5.5
B. 6.1
C. 7
D. 2.3

A

2.3

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64
Q

Sarin, tabun, and VX all fall into the category of agents
A. Asphyxiant
B. Choking
C. Blister
D. Nerve

A

Nerve

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65
Q

Reporting the estimated physical size of the area affected by a hazardous material incident is accomplished by
A. Watching the live news report
B. Interviewing bystanders and witnesses
C. Remaining off-site and researching maps of the area
D. Using information available at the scene

A

Using information available at the scene

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66
Q

Hazardous materials incidents that occur in urban areas will have more ____ and require more ______ to protect them.
A. Exposures; water
B. Hospitals; law enforcement
C. Exposures; resources
D. People; decontamination

A

Exposures; resources

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67
Q

When discussing corrosives, an expression of how much an acid or base is dissolved in a solution is referred to as its:
A. Permeability
B. Solubility
C. Concentration
D. Toxicity

A

Concentration

68
Q

When planning an initial response, responders should ask all of the following questions, except:
A. What state of matter is the material?
B. How is the material contained?
C. How will the material behave if released?
D. What is the value of the material?

A

What is the value of the material?

69
Q

A release of gas can be ________ and constantly moving, depending upon the gas characteristics and ambient conditions.
A. Short lived
B. Widespread
C. Acute
D. Harmless

A

Widespread

70
Q

Using positive-pressure self-contained breathing apparatus prevents what type(s) of exposure?
A. Absorption
B. Ingestion and inhalation
C. Adsorption
D. Penetration

A

Ingestion and inhalation

71
Q

What is the primary difference between an air-purifying respirator (APR) and a powered air-purifying respirator(PAPR)?
A. APR’s have an external source of air supplied via air hose
B. PAPR’s have an external source of air supplied from a compressor
C. PAPR’s have a built-in fan that assist in drawing air into a hose to the face piece
D. APR’s have charcoal-lined membranes that filter incoming air

A

PAPR’s have a built-in fan that assist in drawing air into a hose to the face piece

72
Q

Which type of respiratory protection uses a mechanical filter to separate contaminants from the air?
A. N95 respirator
B. Closed circuit SCBA
C. Open circuit SCBA
D. Particulate-removing respirator

A

Particulate-removing respirator

73
Q

Which part of the human body has a high absorbency rate, making it one of the fastest means of chemical exposure?
A. Leg
B. Foot
C. Eye
D. Hand

A

Eye

74
Q

Which type of material is specifically designed to inhibit the passage of chemicals into and through the material by the process of penetration, permeation, or degradation?
A. High-temperature materials
B. Chemical-resistant materials
C. Liquid splash-resistant materials
D. Penetration-resistant materials

A

Chemical-resistant materials

75
Q

The physical destruction or decomposition of a clothing material owing to chemical exposure, general use, or ambient conditions is referred to as:
A. Penetration
B. Permeation
C. Degradation
D. Decomposition

A

Degradation

76
Q

Which type of protective clothing easily substances, breaks down when exposed to chemicals, does not provide adequate protection from harmful gasses or vapors, and is not recognized as a chemical-protective ensemble?
A. Liquid splash-protective clothing
B. Vapor-protective clothing
C. High temperature-protective clothing
D. Structural firefighting protective clothing

A

Structural firefighting protective clothing

77
Q

A decontaminated responder reenters the decontamination area and comes into contact with a contaminated person or object. This situation would be referred to as what type of contamination?
A. Postincident contamination
B. Decontamination
C. Secondary/cross contamination
D. Postdecon contamination

A

Secondary/cross contamination

78
Q

A controlled area within the warm zone where decontamination takes place is referred to as the
A. point of decontamination
B. post incident decontamination
C. decontamination corridor
D. decontamination staging area

A

decontamination corridor

79
Q

One of the easiest and fastest ways of performing emergency decontamination is through the use of a:
A. handheld hoseline from a fire engine
B. water extinguisher
C. misting fan
D. garden sprayer with soap and water mixture

A

handheld hoseline from a fire engine

80
Q

In the event of a hazardous materials release, asking residents to remain indoors, with windows and doors closed, is an example of:
A. sheltering-in-place
B. static evacuation
C. protective isolation
D. crowd control

A

sheltering-in-place

81
Q

At a hazardous materials incident, the highly contaminated area immediately surrounding the release is referred to as the:
A. hot zone
B. cold zone
C. danger zone
D. warm zone

A

hot zone

82
Q

The area of a hazardous materials incidents where personnel and equipment are staged before they enter and after they leave the hot zone is referred to as the:
A. cold zone
B. warm zone
C. decontamination corridor
D. staging zone

A

cold zone

83
Q

Safety briefings at incidents involving criminal activity should include what type of information?
A. Location of nearest law enforcement officer
B. Evidence collection procedures
C. Current weather data
D. Number of resources in staging

A

Evidence collection procedures

84
Q

First responders should refer to fully understanding their role during a hazardous materials incident that involves evidence collection and criminal intent.
A. the hazardous materials response guide
B. law enforcement codes and standards
C. departmental operating policies and procedures
D. occupational safety and health regulations

A

departmental operating policies and procedures

85
Q

Performing air monitoring activities in order to determine the safest routes of evacuation for victims of a hazardous materials/WMD incident is an example of actions taken by which level of hazardous materials responder?
A. Awareness
B. Operations
C. Advanced
D. Specialist

A

Operations

86
Q

A small gasoline spill from a motor vehicle accident would be classified as which hazardous materials incident level?
A. Level II
B. Level III
C. Level I
D. Level V

A

Level I

87
Q

Which hazardous materials incident level may require decontamination to be performed?
A. Level I
B. Level IV
C. Level II
D. Level V

A

Level II

88
Q

Large-scale evacuations are usually required in a Level …….. hazardous materials incident.
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV

A

III

89
Q

Which of the following is considered to be the cornerstone of an incident command system?
a. Operations section
b. Incident command
c. Planning section
d. Logistics section

A

Incident command

90
Q

A dedicated team of responders who serve as an information gathering and referral point for the incident commander is referred to as a
a. Hot zone entry
b. Backup entry
c. Decontamination
d. Technical reference team

A

Technical reference team

91
Q

Responders should undergo before donning any level of chemical protective equipment.
a. Pre-entry health screening (medical monitoring)
b. Training on health and nutrition
c. A quick hazardous materials policy review
d. A thorough physical examination

A

Pre-entry health screening (medical monitoring)

92
Q

The incident commander of a hazardous materials incident may decide to and equipment is not available to mitigate the situation.
a. Take offensive actions
b. Take tactical actions
c. Withdraw to a safe distance
d. Call the National Guard

A

Call the National Guard

93
Q

Which type of personal protective clothes offers one level higher protection than street clothing or work uniforms
a. Structural firefighting protective clothing
b. Low-temperature-protective clothing
c. High-temperature-protective clothing
d. Fully encapsulated Tyvek suit

A

Structural firefighting protective clothing

94
Q

Structural firefighting protective clothing is primarily designed to protect the wearer from:
a. Etiological hazards
b. Thermal hazards
c. Radiological hazards
d. Asphyxiation hazards

A

Thermal hazards

95
Q

Which statement about emergency decontamination is true?
a. It can be implemented without a formal decontamination area
b. It provides only gross decontamination
c. The victim does not pose a threat of secondary contamination
d. It removes the threat of secondary decontamination

A

It removes the threat of secondary decontamination

96
Q

If a product with a vapor density of 1.6 escaped from it container, you would expect the product to:
a. Collect in low-lying areas
b. Float on water
c. Rapidly dissipate if outdoors
d. Sink in water

A

Collect in low lying areas

97
Q

The highest level of protection, based on Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) guidelines, from hazardous chemicals provided by chemical protective clothing is:
a. Level A
b. Level B
c. Level C
d. Level D

A

Level A

98
Q

The amount of an ingested or injected substance that results in the death of 50 percent of the test population is:
a. LC50
b. LD50
c. DC50
d. IS50

A

LD50

99
Q

Corrosiveness can be described as the:
a. Ratio of weight of a volume of liquid or solid th the weight of an equal volume of water
b. Measure of a substance’s tendency to deteriorate another substance
c. Percentage of an acid or base dissolved in water
d. Degree to which a substance will mix with water

A

Measure of a substance’s tendency to deteriorate another substance

100
Q

The temperature at which a liquid changes to a gas is best described as:
a. The flash point
b. Ignition temperature
c. Vapor density
d. The boiling point

A

The boiling point

101
Q

The intermodal tank that is designed for working pressures ranging from 100 to 600 psi and usually transports liquefied gasses under pressure is known as an
a. IMO type 1
b. IMO type 2
c. IMO type 5
d. IMO type 7

A

IMO type 5

102
Q

The process by which a chemical enters a protective suit through openings in the garment best describes:
a. Degradation
b. Breakthrough time
c. Penetration
d. Permeation

A

Penetration

103
Q

After repeated exposure, _______ will cause an allergic reaction
A. carcinogens
B. convulsants
C. irritants
D. sensitizers/allergens

A

sensitizers/allergens

104
Q

The taking of hazardous materials into the body through the undamaged skin and eyes is called:
A. absorption
B. ingestion
C. inhalation
D. injection

A

absorption

105
Q

Lowered body core temperature is called:
A. hyperthermia
B. monothermia
C. hypothermia
D. homeostasis

A

hypothermia

106
Q

Actions taken to confine a product release to a limited area, performed remotely, are considered to be:
A. offensive strategies
B. poor strategies
C. defensive strategies
D. unacceptable actions

A

defensive strategies

107
Q

At a hazardous materials incident, the safety officer’s responsibilities include:
A. obtaining briefings from the Logistics officer
B.participating in preparation of and monitoring the safety plan
C. being the coordination point between the Incident Commander and any assisting agency
D. advising the Incident Commander about any action deemed unsafe

A

participating in preparation of and monitoring the safety plan

108
Q

Chemical Transportation Emergency Center (CHEMTREC) is able to provide assistance to responders if:
a. They have a Material Safety Data Sheet to fax
b. they have received financial authorization for clean-up
c. the name of the shipper or manufacturer is known
d. they are the approved hazardous materials team

A

the name of the shipper or manufacturer is known

109
Q

Which exposure value could be repeated a maximum of four times daily for 15 minutes with a 60-minute rest period between exposures?
A. Immediately Dangerous to Life and Health (IDLH)
B. Threshold limit value/time-weighted average (TLV-TWA)
C. Threshold limit value/short-term exposure limit (TLV-STEL)
D. Threshold limit value/ceiling (TLV-C)

A

Threshold limit value/short-term exposure limit (TLV-STEL)

110
Q

Which type of radiation has a physical mass but has no electrical charge?
a. Beta
b. Gamma
c. X-ray
d. Neutron

A

Neutron

111
Q

The minimum temperature to which fuel in air must be heated to initiate self-sustained combustion without initiation from an independent ignition source is best described as:
a. the flash point
b. the flammable range
c. specific gravity
d. autoignition temperature

A

autoignition temperature

112
Q

In order to determine whether the personal protective equipment provided is appropriate for defensive operations, the Emergency Response Guidebook should be consulted. The section in which this information would be found is colored.
a. Yellow
b. Blue
c. Orange
d. Green

A

Orange

113
Q

________ is the difference between the upper and lower flammable limits of a gas or vapor.
a. Flash point
b. ignition temperature
c. Flammable (explosive) range
d. Vapor Density

A

Flammable (explosive) range

114
Q

The highest level of protection from hazardous chemicals provided by chemical protective clothing is:
a. Level A
b. Level B
c. Level C
d. Level D

A

Level A

115
Q

At a hazardous materials emergency, the Operations Section serves the task of:
a. establishing incident objectives.
b. controlling and overseeing equipment and personnel inventories
c. controlling the tactical portion of the incident
d. coordinating all medical and health concerns at the incident

A

controlling the tactical portion of the incident

116
Q

At an emergency incident, the firefighter may obtain appropriate Safety Data Sheet (formerly MSDS) information from:
a. Computer-Aided Management of Emergency Operations.
b. the National Response Center
c. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
d. the employer of the facility

A

the employer of the facility

117
Q

Directions: Read the following statements and choose the correct answer from choices A-D below.

Statement 1: A phase change vest consists of a method to maintain a consistent temperature of 60 degrees

Statement 2: Ice cooled vests may be recharged by freezing the vest

Statement 3: Ice cooled vests typically recharge faster than phase–change style vests.
A. Statement 1 is true; statements 2 and 3 are false
B. Statements 1 and 2 are true; statement 3 is false
C. Statements 1 and 3 are false; statement 2 is true
D. All three statements are false

A

Statement 1 is true; statements 2 and 3 are false

118
Q

When dealing with a radiological incident involving a leak or spill, what exposure guidelines should be used to minimize radioactive contamination?
A. Time, distance, half-life
B. Ionizing radiation, non-ionizing radiation, half-life
C. Time, distance, shielding
D. Alpha particles, beta particles, gamma rays

A

Time, distance, shielding

119
Q

A vest where the cooling agent is circulated throughout the garment and operates on the principle of conductive heat transfer is known as a(n) _______ vest.
a. Air cooled
b. Ice
c. Air and water cooled
d. Water cooled

A

Water cooled

120
Q

Which are procedures for personnel wearing vapor-protective clothing requiring emergency decon?
a. Remain isolated until deconned
b. Conduct fine decon
c. Transfer patient to medical area the decon
d. Remove suit immediately, then decon

A

Remain isolated until deconned

121
Q

Determining whether a vapor will rise or fall is commonly referred to as:
a. Vapor dispersion
b. Vapor density
c. Vaporization
d. Specific gravity

A

Vapor density

122
Q

The minimum temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixture, with air near the surface, is called the ______ point.
a. Combustion
b. Ignition
c. Flash
d. Fire

A

Flash

123
Q

The highest level of respiratory protection is needed but lesser chemical protection is required for the skin best defined Environmental Protection Agency ______Protection.
a. Level A
b. Level B
c. Level C
d. Level D

A

Level B

124
Q

Chemicals with specific gravities greater than one tend to:
a. Float on water
b. Sink
c. Vaporize into the air
d. Spontaneously combust

A

Sink

125
Q

A ______ tank has an inner tank with an outer shell and is well insulated
a. Flammable liquid
b. Cryogenic
c. Combustible liquid
d. Acid

A

Cryogenic

126
Q

If a hazardous material incident involves a leaking flammable substance, the first responders should immediately remove all:
a. Ignition sources
b. Large combustible tanks
c. Upwind ignition sources
d. Fire equipment and personnel

A

Ignition sources

127
Q

When attempting to collect hazard information during an emergency incident, the responders could contact …………… for immediate information.
a. The Department of Defense
b. CHEMTREC
c. The National Fire Protection Association
d. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration

A

CHEMTREC

128
Q

When determining the type of dam to use to control a spill, responders need to consider the:
a. Specific gravity of the material
b. Vapor density of the fluid
c. Vapor suppression of the liquid
d. Retention capabilities

A

Specific gravity of the material

129
Q

The first step or most important thing to accomplish upon arrival at a hazardous materials or suspected hazardous materials incident is:
a. Identification of the spilled or released product
b. Victim recovery
c. Notification of the hazardous materials response team
d. Isolation of the area and prevention of entry

A

Identification of the spilled or released product

130
Q

Vapor pressures of a substance at 100 degrees F:
a. Will remain the same substance at 68 degrees F
b. Always higher than the same substance at 68 degrees F
c. Will be lower than the same substance at 68 degrees F
d. Will vary considerably at 68 degrees F

A

Always higher than the same substance at 68 degrees F

131
Q

Specific gravity can be described as the:
a. Measure of a substance’s tendency to deteriorate another substance
b. Ratio of the weight of a volume of liquid or solid to the weight of an equal volume of water
c. Percentage of an acid or base dissolved in water
d. Degree to which a substance will mix with water

A

Ratio of the weight of a volume of liquid or solid to the weight of an equal volume of water

132
Q

Common hazardous materials stored in non bulk packages, referred to as bags, are:
a. Corrosive
b. Fertilizers
c. Cryogenics
d. Liquids

A

Fertilizers

133
Q

One of the factors that can change the evacuation area is:
a. Firefighters entering incidents from the north
b. A change in wind direction
c. The number of firefighters responding to the incident
d. The number of firefighters with self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA)

A

A change in wind direction

134
Q

Directions: Read the following statements regarding hazardous materials incident evacuation/sheltering-in-place and select the correct answer from the choices A through D.
Statement 1: The decision to evacuate or shelter-in-place is relatively easy to make
Statement 2: Sheltering-in-place is a method of safeguarding people in a hazardous area
Statement 3: Evacuation is always preferred over sheltering-in-place
a. Statement 1 is true; statements 2 and 3 are false
b. Statement 2 is true; statements 1 and 3 are false
c. Statements 2 and 3 are true; statement 1 is false
d. All three statements are true

A

Statement 2 is true; statements 1 and 3 are false

135
Q

Who is responsible for requesting additional resources at a hazardous materials incident?
a. Finance/Administration Chief
b. Safety Officer
c. Staging Officer
d. Logistics Section Chief

A

Logistics Section Chief

136
Q

……………. is designed to remove contaminants that pose immediate threat to life
a. Emergency decontamination
b. Secondary decontamination
c. Decontamination
d. Primary decontamination

A

Emergency decontamination

137
Q

Which statement is true regarding vapor dispersion
a. It commonly utilizes firefighting foam
b. It is not effective on water soluble materials
c. The runoff may need to be contained
d. It is only effective on materials with a specific gravity of less than 1

A

It is not effective on water soluble materials

138
Q

…………… interfere with oxygen exchange during normal respiration
a. Anesthetics
b. Carcinogens
c. Irritants
d. Asphyxiants

A

Asphyxiants

139
Q

Exposure to …………. materials may cause freeze burns and frostbite
a. Corrosive
b. Carcinogen
c. Radiation
d. Cryogenic

A

Cryogenic

140
Q

Removal of contaminated victims that are in need of medical treatment from the hazard area requires:
a. That personnel must wait until the full decontamination corridor is in place and operational
b. The Emergency Decontamination process
c. That victims shall remain in the hot zones indefinitely
d. Decontamination of these victims is not required

A

The Emergency Decontamination process

141
Q

As a first responder trained to the operations level, which spill control tactics can be conducted?
a. Absorption
b. Dilution
c. Vapor Suppression
d. Isolate and deny entry

A

Vapor suppression

142
Q

What is an operational consideration when using supplied air respirators?
a. National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health certification limits the maximum hose length from the source to 300 feet
b. Use of airlines in an oxygen deficient atmosphere requires a secondary emergency air supply
c. The proper air filtering cartridge for the expected contaminants must be selected
d. The Emergency Breathing Supply System is limited to no longer than 30 minutes of use

A

National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health certification limits the maximum hose length from the source to 300 feet

143
Q

When a fire involves the cargo of a truck transporting explosives, the responders should:
a. Increase water application immediately
b. Try to separate unburned cargo
c. Attempt to move the involved vehicle to a safer location
d. Immediately evacuate the area

A

Immediately evacuate the area

144
Q

In level 1 incidents, the response team should be able to deal with:
a. Liquefied propane gas leaking from full 1000-pound tanks
b. Ruptures of high-pressure gas lines
c. Spills requiring evacuation
d. A small gasoline spill from a motor vehicle accident

A

A small gasoline spill from a motor vehicle accident

145
Q

If the safety officer notices an unsafe activity at an emergency, the safety officer should:
a. Consult with the Incident Commander
b. Stop the activity immediately
c. Call the Incident Commander on the radio
d. Report the activity to the highest rank

A

Stop the activity immediately

146
Q

When operating at a hazardous materials scene, what is required when operating in a hot zone?
a. Brand of personal protective equipment available
b. Utilization of the buddy system
c. Mounting/storage method
d. Speed in donning and activation

A

Utilization of the buddy system

147
Q

Within the Incident Command System (ICS), the optimum span of control is
a. 5:1 b) 8:1 c) 10:1 d) 30:1

A

5:1

148
Q

When implementing tactical advantages during a bomb threat responders should:
a. Stage in the line-of-sight-path of the device
b. Use only one radio in proximity of the device
c. Be alert for second devices
d. Move the device away from primary exposures

A

Be alert for second devices

149
Q

Symptoms of heat ______ include little to no sweating; hot, dry, red, skin; deep, then shallow breathing and a rapid pulse
a. Stroke
b. Exhaustion
c. Cramps
d. rash

A

Stroke

150
Q

Adsorption is the process of:
a. The repellant quality of a material
b. Adhering the contaminant to the surface
c. Binding two chemicals together
d. Decreasing the volume when a material is wet

A

Adhering the contaminant to the surface

151
Q

The radiation that is least dangerous to external portions of the body, but is very dangerous when ingested or inhaled is:
a. Alpha
b. Ultra Violet
c. Electromagnetic
d. Gamma

A

Alpha

152
Q

One of the keys to evidence preservation is:
a. Do not enter the crime scene, even to save a life
b. Move any evidence to a central location for safekeeping
c. If you move something, place it where you found it
d. Minimize the number of people working in the area

A

Minimize the number of people working in the area

153
Q

Large tanks with hemispherical heads can be identified as:
a. Cryogenic liquid
b. Corrosive liquid
c. Dry bulk
d. High pressure

A

High pressure

154
Q

The area that exists just outside the hot zone is
a, Warm zone
b. Command zone
c. Support zone
d. Staging area

A

Warm zone

155
Q

Gamma particles can be described as:
a. Ionizing radiation like x-rays
b. Deadly radiation as it can pass through PPE
c. Particles with weight and mass
d. A form of non-ionizing radiation

A

Deadly radiation as it can pass through PPE

156
Q

_______ is the ratio of the weight of a volume of liquid of the weight of an equal volume of water, with water having a range of 1.0
a. Flammable range
b. Flash point
c. Specific gravity
d. Vapor density

A

Specific gravity

157
Q

______ is comprised of those procedures taken to keep a material in a defined or local area\
a. Containment
b. Diversion
c. Confinement
d. dispersion

A

Confinement

158
Q

When exposed to heat or a fire, a liquid with a low boiling point will:
a. readily change to vapor than a liquid with a high boiling point
b. Combust
c. Become more corrosive
d. More readily change into a vapor than a liquid with a high boiling point

A

More readily change into a vapor than a liquid with a high boiling point

159
Q

A process by which a hazardous liquid flow is redirected away from an area is called:
a. Absorption
b. Dispersion
c. Diversion
d. Retention

A

Diversion

160
Q

The ______ zone is the area of highest known hazard
a. Limited-access
b. hot/exclusion
c. Support
d.c Blue

A

hot/exclusion

161
Q

The level A suit will protect the responder from ill effects from:
a. All hazards
b. Exposure to nuclear agents
c. Vapors and gasses
d. Bombs

A

Vapors and gasses

162
Q

An intermodal container that is capable of holding high pressure gasses of 3000 psi or higher is a:
a. Cryogenic tank
b. Tube module container
c. Pressure tank
d. Non-pressure tank

A

Tube module container

163
Q

The concentration that should never be exceeded is the:
a. TLV-C
b. PEL
c. TLV-TWA
d. STEL

A

TLV-C

164
Q

The chemical action involving the movement of chemicals, on a molecular level, through intact materials best defines:
a. Degradation
b. Breakthrough time
c. Penetration
d. Permeation

A

Permeation

165
Q

At a terrorism event, when preserving evidence, you should:
a. Avoid entering scene without FBI
b. Minimize the number of people working in an area
c. Interview everyone at the scene
d. Move the evidence to keep it safe

A

Minimize the number of people working in an area

166
Q

A specialized intermodal tank that transports gasses in high-pressure cylinders (3000-5000 psi) is known as a:
a. Tube module/trailer
b. Cryogenic tank
c. IM 101
d. IM 102

A

Tube module/trailer

Fire Basic (14 decks)

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