EMT FINAL Flashcards
According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT should be able to:
A. administer epinephrine via the subcutaneous route.
B. insert a peripheral IV line and infuse fluids.
C. assist a patient with certain prescribed medications.
D. interpret a basic (ECG) rhythm and treat accordingly.
C. assist a patient with certain prescribed medications.
An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to:
A. demand that the patient remain quiet and cooperative during transport.
B. continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful.
C. reassure the patient that everything will be all right, even if it will not be.
D. ignore the patient’s feelings and focus on his or her medical complaint.
B. continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful.
An EMS provider who has extensive training in various aspects of advanced life support (ALS) is called a(n):
A. advanced EMT (AEMT)
B. EMR
C. EMT
D. paramedic
D. paramedic
Cardiac monitoring, pharmacologic interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the:
A. paramedic
B. EMR.
C. EMT
D. AEMT
A. paramedic
____ pressure is the pressure exerted by a liquid that occurs when blood moves through an artery at relatively high pressures.
A. Hydrostatic
B. Osmotic
C. Diffusion
D. Oncotic
B. Osmotic
A 31 year old female is experiencing an acute asthma attack. She is conscious and alert, but in obvious respiratory distress. After assisting her with her prescribed MDI, you should:
A. reassess the patient and document her response to the medication.
B. contact medical control and apprise him or her of what you did.
C. check the drug’s expiration date to ensure that it is still current
D. administer another treatment in 30 seconds if she is still in distress.
A. reassess the patient and document her response to the medication
If a defibrillator manufacturer claims that its device terminates ventricular fibrillation on the first shock 95% of the time, you should:
A. avoid purchasing the device because this claim is unrealistic.
B. purchase the device based solely on the manufacturer’s claim.
C. determine which device the American Heart Association recommends.
D. recognize that this does not mean the device will save more lives.
D. recognize that this does not mean the device will save more lives.
A 40-year-old man is in cardiac arrest. Your partner is performing CPR. You are attaching the AED when the patient’s wife tells you that he has an automatic implantable cardiac defibrillator (AICD). The AED advises that a shock is indicated. What should you do?
A. Contact med control and request permission to defibrillate.
B. Continue CPR and transport the patient to the closest appropriate hospital.
C. Deliver the shock followed by immediate resumption of CPR.
D. Avoid defibrillation because this will damage the patient’s AICD.
C. Deliver the shock followed by immediate resumption of CPR.
As the bronchus divides into smaller bronchioles, the terminal ends of these smaller passages form the:
A. bronchi
B. Pleura
C. Capillaries
D. Alveoli
D. Alveoli
Obtaining continuing medical education is the responsibility of the:
A. individual EMT.
B. EMS medical director.
C. EMS training officer.
D. State Bureau of EMS
A. individual EMT.
The continuous quality improvement (CQI) process is designed to:
A. focus specifically on the quality of emergency care provided to the patient.
B. administer punitive actions to EMTs who do not follow local protocols.
C. identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed.
D. ensure that all EMTs maintain licensure through the state EMS office.
C. identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed.
A 49 year old male with an extensive cardiac history presents with 2 hours of crushing chest pain and shortness of breath. He is pale and diaphoretic and tells you that he feels like he is going to die. His medications include nitroglycerin, sildenafil (Viagra), and enalapril (vasotec). His blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg and his heart rate is 110 beats/min. In addition to administering supplemental oxygen if needed, you should:
A. ask him if he took his Viagra within the past 24 hours.
B. place him in a supine position and transport at once.
C. obtain physician approval to give the nitroglycerin.
D. administer one nitroglycerin and call medical control.
A. ask him if he took his Viagra within the past 24 hours.
Dead space is the portion of the respiratory system that:
A. Receives oxygen but is unable to release carbon dioxide
B. Contains no alveoli and does not participate in gas exchange
C. Includes the alveoli and the capillaries surrounding the alveoli
D. Must be filled with air before gas exchange can take place
B. contains no alveoli and does not participate in gas exchange
The determination that prompt surgical care in the hospital is more important than performing time-consuming procedures in the field on a major trauma patient is based mostly on:
A. EMS research
B. regional trauma guidelines
C. local protocols
D. the lead EMTs decision
A. EMS research
The EMT certification exam is designed to:
A. ensure that EMTs are competent and have the same level of knowledge and skills
B. rank EMTs based on performance on the certification exam
C. provide EMTs with the best possible wage once certification is achieved
D. identify those EMTs who are prepared for advanced levels of training.
A. ensure that EMTs are competent and have the same level of knowledge and skills
The standards are prehospital emergency care and the individuals who provide it are typically regulated by the:
A. American Heat Association
B. state office of EMS
C. regional trauma center
D. National Registry of EMTs
B. state office of EMS
A 49-year-old male presents with an acute onset of crushing chest pain and diaphoresis. You should:
A. assess the adequacy of his respirations
B. administer up to 3 doses of nitro
C. obtain vital signs and a SAMPLE history
D. administer up to 324 mg of baby aspirin
A. assess the adequacy of his respirations
Which of the following criteria is required to become licensed and employed as an EMT?
A. demonstration of the ability to lift and carry at least 200 pounds
B. successful completion of a recognized bystander CPR course
C. a minimum of 60 college credit hours that focus on health care
D. proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases
D. proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases
Oxygen and carbon dioxide pass across the alveolar membrane in the lungs through a process called:
A. Breathing
B. Osmosis
C. Diffusion
D. Ventilation
C. Diffusion
A 62 year old male is seen with crushing chest pain, which he describes as being the same kind of pain that he had with a previous heart attack. He has prescribed nitroglycerin but states that he has not taken any. After administering supplemental oxygen, if needed, and contacting medical control, you should:
A. assist him with his nitroglycerin unless his systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg.
B. administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin before assessing his blood pressure.
C. administer the nitroglycerin unless he has taken Viagra within the past 72 hours.
D. begin immediate transport and request a rendezvous with a paramedic unit.
A. assist him with his nitroglycerin unless his systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg
Which of the following descriptions most accurately portrays emergency medical services (EMS)?
A. a vast network of advanced life support (ALS) providers who provide definitive emergency care in the prehospital setting
B. a team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured
C. A system composed exclusively of emergency medical responders (EMRs) and emergency medical technicians (EMTs) who are responsible for providing care to sick and injured patients
D. a team of paramedics and emergency physicians who are responsible for providing emergency care to critically injured patients
B. a team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured
The axial skeleton is composed of the:
A. Bones that constitute the pelvic girdle
B. Arms, legs, and pelvis
C. Lower part of the torso and the legs
D. Skull, face thorax, and vertebral column
D skull, face, thorax, and vertebral column
A 66 y/o female with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents with substernal chest pressure of 2 hours duration. Her BP is 140/90, pulse is 100 and irregular, respirations are 22, pulse ox is 92%. The patient does not have prescribed nitro, but her husband does. You should:
A. administer oxygen, give her 324 mg of aspirin, and assess her further
B. give her high flow oxygen, attach the AED, and transport at once
C. obtain a SAMPLE history and contact med control for advice
D. give her one nitro and reassess her systolic BP
A. administer oxygen, give her 324 mg of aspirin, and assess her further
The carpal bones form the:
A. wrist
B. Hand
C.Foot
D. Ankle
A. Wrist
Which of the following errors is an example of knowledge-based failure?
A. an EMT administers the wrong drug to a patient because she did not know the pertinent information about the drug
B. an EMT gives the correct drug to a patient, although his protocols clearly state that he is not authorized to do so
C. a patient is given nitroglycerin by an EMT who did not obtain proper authorization from medical control first
D. due to an improperly applied cervical collar, a patient’s spinal injury is aggrevated and he is permanently disabled
A. an EMT administers the wrong drug to a patient because she did not know the pertinent information about the drug
A by-product of involuntary muscle contraction and relaxation is:
A. oxygen
B. Nitrogen
C. Lactid acid
D. Heat
D. Heat
A 74 year old woman complains of heaviness in her chest, nausea, and sweating that suddenly began about an hour ago. She is conscious and alert, but anxious. Her blood pressure is 144/84 mm Hg and her heart rate is 110 beats/min. She took two of her prescribed nitroglycerin (0.4 mg tablets) before your arrival but still feels heaviness in her chest. You should:
A. assist her in taking one more of her nitroglycerin tablets, reassess her blood pressure, and contact medical control for further instructions.
B. transport her at once and wait at least 20 minutes before you consider assisting her with a third dose of her prescribed nitroglycerin.
C. give her high flow oxygen, avoid giving her any more nitroglycerin because it may cause a drop in her blood pressure, and transport.
D. recall that geriatric patients often take multiple medications and that interactions can occur with potentially negative effects.
D. recall that geriatric patients often take multiple medications and that interactions can occur with potentially negative effects
Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy?
A. community awareness programs that emphasize the dangers of drinking and driving
B. teaching a group of new parents how to perform one- and two-rescuer infant CPR
C. the construction of a guardrail on a dangerous curve following a fatal motor vehicle crash
D. protecting a patient’s spine from further injury after a fall from a significant height
A. community awareness programs that emphasize the dangers of drinking and driving
A patient has a blood pressure of 130/70 mm Hg. The “130” in this measurement represents:
A. Atrial contraction
B. Ventricular filling
C. Ventricular contraction
D. Ventricular relaxation
C. ventricular contraction
Which of the following scenarios involves the administration of ALS?
A. a 48 year old patient whose airway is secured with a supraglottic device
B. a 64 year old patient who is given aspirin for suspected cardiac chest pain
C. a 61 year old patient who is receiving humidified supplemental oxygen
D. a 53 year old patient who is assisted with his prescribed nitroglycerin
A. a 48 year old patient whose airway is secured with a supraglottic device
A person’s bones will become brittle if he or she is deficient in:
A. Magnesium
B. Calcium
C. sodium
D. potassium
B. Calcium
Which of the following skills or interventions is included at every level of prehospital emergency training?
A. oral glucose for hypoglycemia
B. intranasal medication administration
C. automated external defibrillation
D. use of a manually triggered ventilator
C. automated external defibrillation
An increase in heart and contractility occurs due to stimulation of:
A. Alpha-1 receptors
B. Beta-2 receptors
C. Beta-1 receptors
D. Alpha-2 receptors
C. Beta-1 receptors
Which of the following statements regarding the NREMT is correct?
A. the NREMT is the exclusive certifying body for EMTs
B. the NREMT is a governmental agency that certifies EMTs
C. the NREMT regulated EMS training standards
D. the NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing
D. the NREMT provides a national standard for EMS training
At rest, the normal adult heart rate should not exceed:
A. 70 beats/min
B. 80 beats/min
C. 90 beats/min
D. 100 beats/min
D. 100 beats/min
A 66 y/o woman presents with a stabbing pain in the middle of her chest that radiates to her back. She tells you that the pain suddenly began about 30 min ago and has been severe since the onset. She has a history of hypertension, but admits to being noncompliant with her antihypertensive meds. When you assess her, you find that her BP is significantly higher in her left arm than in her right arm. What do these signs and symptoms most likely indicate?
A. Dissecting aortic aneurysm
B. Hypertensive emergency
C. Unstable angina
D. Acute myocardial infarction
A. Dissecting aortic aneurysm
Which type of medical direction do standing orders and protocols describe?
A. direct
B. off-line
C. radio
D. online
B. off-line
According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT would require special permission from the medical director and the state EMS office to:
A. give aspirin to a patient with chest pain
B. apply and interpret data from a pulse oximeter
C. insert a peripheral intravenous catheter
D. use an automatic transport ventilator
C. insert a peripheral intravenous catheter
Bile is produced by the liver and concentrated and stored in the:
A. Pancreas
B. Stomach
C. Gallbladder
D. Kidneys
C. Gallbladder
As an EMT, you may be authorized to administer aspirin to a patient with chest pain based on:
A. the transport time to the hospital
B. an order from a paramedic
C. the patient’s condition
D. medical director approval
D. medical director approval
Advil, Nuprin, and Motrin are trade (brand) names for the generic medication:
A. aspirin
B. nitrostat
C. ibuprofen
D. acetaminophen
C. ibuprofen
Bleeding is normally stopped by:
A. Activation of platelets
B. Arterial dilation
C. capillary rupture
D. increased white blood cells
A. Activation of platelets
EMRs such as firefighters, law enforcement officers, and park rangers are an integral part of the EMS system because:
A. they often arrive at the scene before the ambulance and EMTs
B. they can initiate certain ALS procedures before EMS arrival
C. the average response time for the EMT crew is approximately 15 minutes
D. they are usually trained to assist paramedics with certain procedures
A. they often arrive at the scene before the ambulance and EMTs
An example of an anti-inflammatory is:
A. narcan
B. oxygen
C. nitroglycerin
D. aspirin
D. aspirin
Breathing is often more difficult in older adults because the:
A. Elasticity of the lungs decreases
B. Surface area of the alveoli increases
C. Diaphragm and intercostal muscles enlarge
D. Overall size of the airway decreases
A. Elasticity of the lungs decreases
EMTs arrive at the scene of a patient who was “found down.” A family member states that she gave nalaxone (Narcan) to the patient before the ambulance arrived. The EMTs should suspect that the patient:
A. overdosed on an opioid drug
B. has a history of allergic reactions
C. experienced a prolonged seizure
D. has a low blood glucose level
A. overdosed on an opioid drug
EMT training in nearly every state meets or exceeds the guidelines recommended by the:
A. individual state’s EMS protocols
B. National Association of EMTs
C. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA)
D. National registry of EMTs
C. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA)
The _____ deals with the well-being of the EMT, career progression, and EMT compensation.
A. EMS administrator or chief
B. human resources department
C. local public health department
D. office of the medical director
B. human resources department
Breathing occurs as the result of a(n):
A. Increase in oxygen, which decreases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid
B. Decrease in oxygen, which increases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid
C. Decrease in carbon dioxide, which increases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid
D. Increase In carbon dioxide, which decreases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid
D. Increase in carbon dioxide, which decreases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid
EMTs respond to a known heroin abuser who is unresponsive. If they give Narcan to this patient, the EMTs should recall that:
A. the effects of Narcan last longer than most opioid drugs
B. narcan should be administered in increments of 2 mg
C. narcan should not be given if the patient’s breathing is slow
D. narcan administration could cause seizures in this patient
D. narcan administration could cause seizures in this patient
A critical incident stress debriefing should be conducted no longer than ____ hours following the incident.
A. 72
B. 24
C. six
D. 12
A. 72
A positive TB skin test indicates that:
A. you have been exposed to TB
B. you are actively infected with TB
C. the TB disease is currently dormant but might later become active
D. you have never been exposed to TB
A. you have been exposed to TB
How is nitroglycerin usually given by the EMT?
A. sublingually
B. injected
C. inhaled
D. orally
A. sublingually
Shortly after assisting a 65 year old female with her prescribed nitroglycerin, she begins complaining of dizziness and experience a drop of 30 mm Hg in her systolic blood pressure. The patient remains conscious and her breathing is adequate. You should:
A. place her in a supine position
B. transport her in a sitting position
C. assist ventilation with a bag-value mask
D. wait 5 minutes and reassess her blood pressure
A. place her in a supine position
Characteristics of eustress following dispatch to a high speed motor vehicle collision may include:
A. increased self image from performing well under a challenging situation
B. long term feelings of being overwhelmed by the nature of the call
C. short term loss of energy due to the high physical demands of the job
D. the inability to remain focused, because the task at hand is demanding
A. increased self image from performing well under a challenging situation
Cardiac output (CO) is affected by:
A. Stroke volume and heart rate
B. Blood pressure
C. Stroke volume only
D. Heart rate only
A. Stroke volume and heart rate
General adaptation syndrome is characterized by which of the following phases?
A. reaction and resistance, euphoria, and physical exhaustion
B. immediate reaction, psychological exhaustion, and recovery
C. alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery
D. delayed reaction, alarm response, and physical recovery
C. alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery
Contraction of the right ventricle causes:
A. A return of blood from the pulmonary veins
B. Ejection of blood into the systemic circulation
C. closure of the mitral and aortic valves
D. blood to flow into the pulmonary circulation
D. Blood flow into the pulmonary circulation
Hazards that are associated with a structural fire include all of the following, except:
A. smoke and toxic gases
B. risk of building collapse
C. carbon dioxide deficiency
D. high ambient temperatures
C. carbon dioxide deficiency
Subcutaneous injections deliver the medication:
A. between the skin and the muscle
B. through the mucosa under the tongue
C. directly into the muscle tissue
D. below the first layer of muscle
A. between the skin and the muscle
Prescription glasses do not provide adequate eye protection because they:
A. have large, rounded lenses
B. do not have shatterproof lenses
C. offer little or no side protection
D. are not secure with a strap
C. offer little or no side protection
During each heartbeat, ____ of blood is ejected from the adult heart, an amount called the stroke volume.
A. 40 to 50 mL
B. 100 to 120 mL
C. 90 to 100 mL
D. 70 to 80 mL
D. 70 to 80 mL
The capacity of an individual to cope with and recover from stress is called:
A. distress
B. eustress
C. wellness
D. resilience
D. resilience
To reverse the effects of a narcotic overdose you should administer:
A. epipen
B. tylenol
C. advil
D. narcan
D. narcan
The MOST effective way to preserve your own body heat when functioning in cold, wet weather is to:
A. wear socks made of heavy duty cotton
B. avoid outer clothing with zippers
C. wear a heavy, thick jacket or coat
D. wear at least three layers of clothing
D. wear at least three layers of clothing
Hemoglobin is a molecule that attaches to ____ and carries oxygen
A. erythrocytes
B. leukocytes
C. monocytes
D. thrombocytes
A. erythrocytes
When gathering a patients medications, you find the following: isordil, lasix, nexium, and digoxin. Which of these medications can be obtained over the counter?
A. nexium
B. digoxin
C. isordil
D. lasix
A. nexium
The MOST important consideration at the scene of a hazardous materials incident is:
A. calling the hazardous materials team
B. identifying the hazardous material
C. ensuring your personal safety
D. evacuating the bystanders
C. ensuring your personal safety
The MOST serious consequences of drug of alcohol abuse among EMS personnel is:
A. substandard or inappropriate patient care
B. low morale and frequently missed shifts
C. tension among coworkers and supervisors
D. punitive action and the loss of a job
A. substandard or inappropriate patient care
How does respiration different from ventilation
A. Respiration occurs when the diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract, whereas ventilations occurs when those same muscles relax
B. Ventilation occurs when air is forced into the lungs, whereas respiration occurs when air is drawn or sucked into the lungs
C. Respiration occurs when oxygen is delivered to the cells of the body, whereas ventilation occurs when carbon dioxide is removed
D. Respiration s the process of gas exchange, whereas ventilation is the movement of air between the lungs and the environment
D. Respiration is the process of gas exchange, whereas ventilation is the movement of air between the lungs and the environment.
The simplest, yet most effective method of preventing the spread of an infectious disease is to:
A.undergo annual testing for TB and hepatitis
B. undergo an annual physical examination
C. wash your hands in between patient contacts
D. ensure your immunizations are up-to-date
C. wash your hands in between patient contacts
Which of the following clinical signs would necessitate the administration of narcan in a suspected narcotic overdose?
A. tachycardia
B hypertension
C. slow respirations
D. extreme agitation
C. slow respirations
The spread of HIV and hepatitis in the healthcare setting can usually be traced to:
A. lack of proper immunizations
B. noncompliance with standard precautions
C. careless handling of sharps
D. excessive blood splashing or splattering
C. careless handling of sharps
Vaccination against the hepatitis A virus is unnecessary if you:
A. are older than 35 years of age
B. received a hepatitis B vaccination
C. have been infected with hepatitis A in the past
D. have a weak immune system
C. have been infected with hepatitis A in the past
Which of the following is an example of a rules based medication error?
A. the EMT administers a drug that is contraindicated for the patient
B. the EMT administers a drug that is not approved by the medical director
C. the EMT accidentally gives a higher drug dose than what is indicated
D. the EMT administers the correct drug, but gives it by the wrong route
B. the EMT administers a drug that is not approved by the medical director
Vectorborne transmission of an infectious organism occurs via:
A. animals or insects
B. direct contact
C. smoke or dust
D. inanimate objects
A. animals or insects
If a patient’s chest barley moves during inhalation, even if the patient’s respiratory rate is normal, you should suspect that:
A. Overall tidal volume is increased
B. Expiratory reserve volume is decreased
C. Minute volume is decreased
D. Inspiratory reserve is increased
C. Minute volume is decreased
What should you do before attempting to access a patient trapped in a vehicle?
A. check for other patients
B.contact medical control
C. ensure the vehicle is stable
D. request another ambulance
C. ensure the vehicle is stable
When decontaminating the back of your ambulance after a call, you should:
A. allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions
B. use a bleach or water solution at a 1:2 dilution ratio to thoroughly wipe all surfaces
C. clean all surfaces and patient contact areas with a mixture of alcohol and water
D. spray the contaminated areas and then immediately wipe the dry with a towel
A. allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of epinephrine?
A. dilates passages in the lungs
B. secreted naturally by the adrenal glands
C. decreases heart rate and blood pressure
D. constricts the blood vessels
C. decreases heart rate and blood pressure
Which of the following infectious diseases confers no protection from reinfection after exposure?
A. mumps
B. syphilis
C. chickenpox
D. rubella
B. syphilis
Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is a product of:
A. stroke volume and systemic vascular resistance
B. Heart rate and stroke volume
C. cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance
D. Heart rate and systemic vascular resistance
C. cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance
Which of the following is the MOST significant in determining whether a person will become ill from certain germs?
A. race
B. immunity
C. gender
D. age
B. immunity
While assisting a paramedic in the attempted resuscitation of a 55 year old male in cardiac arrest, you should expect the paramedic to :
A. give the patient activated charcoal to rule out a drug overdose
B. administer drugs via the IV route to achieve the fastest effect
C. give the patient nitroglycerin to increase his blood pressure
D. withhold drug therapy until an intraosseous catheter is in place
B. administer drugs via the IV route to achieve the fastest effect
You have been working at the scene of a major building collapse for eight hours. Many injured people are still being removed, and everyone is becoming frustrated and losing focus. This situation is MOST effectively managed by:
A. allowing each worker to sleep in 15- to 30-minute increments
B. conducting a critical incident stress debriefing the next day
C. requesting a CISM team to provide on-scene peer support
D. providing large amounts of caffeine to the rescue workers
C. requesting a CISM team to provide on-scene peer support
Negative-pressure breathing involves:
A. increasing airway resistance during breathing
B. pushing or forcing air into the lungs
C. relaxing the respiratory muscles
D. a drop in pressure within the chest cavity
A. a drop in pressure within the chest cavity
the ___ is made up of the maxilla and zygoma, as well as the frontal bone of the cranium:
A. mastoid
B. orbit
C. occiput
D. sphenoid
B. orbit
the ____ plane separates the body into left and right halves:
A. coronal
B. midsagittal
C. transverse
D. sagittal
B. midsagittal
The ____ portion of the spinal column is joined to the illiac bones of the pelvis:
A. lumbar
B. sacrum
C. coccyx
D. thoracic
B. sacrum
the amount of air that remains in the lungs simply to keep them open is called the:
A. residual volume
B. tidal volume
C. expiratory reserve volume
D. inspiratory reserve volume
A, residual volume
As an EMT, it is important to remember that the signs and symptoms of cumulative stress:
A. are most effectively treated with medications
B. usually manifest suddenly and without warning
C. might not be obvious or present all the time
D. cannot be identified and can cause health problems.
C. might not be obvious or present all the time
Gloves, a mask, eye protection, and a face shield should be used:
A. whenever you touch non-intact skin
B. while handling needles or other sharps
C. during routine cleaning of the ambulance
D. when performing endoctracheal intubation
D. when performing endotracheal intubation
the area of the spinal column, descending order, are:
A. cervical, thoracic, coccyx, lumbar, and sacral
B. cervical, thoracic, sacral, lumbar, and coccyx
C. cervical, lumbar, thoracic, and coccyx
D. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccyx
D. cervical,thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccyx
It is especially important for EMS personnel to develop non-adversarial relationships with their coworkers because they:
A. must work together every third day
B. depend on one another for their safety
C. are highly prone to stress and burnout
D. might have to bunk in the same room
B. depend on one another for their safety
The BEST way to reduce your risk of contracting a work-related disease following exposure is to:
A. be evaluated by a physician within 72 hours following the exposure.
B. vigorously wash the affected area with antimicrobial solution
C. get vaccinated against the disease you think you were exposed to
D. activate your department’s infection control plan as soon as possible
D. activate your department’s infection control plan as soon as possible
The artery that can be palpated on the arterial surface of the foot is the
A. ventral pedis
B. anterior tibial
C. dorsalis pedis
D. posterior tibial
C. dorsalis pedis
the autonomic nervous system controls all of the following functions, except:
A. digestion
B. blood dilation
C. breathing
D. breath sounds
D. breath sounds
the average adult has approximatley ____ of blood in his or her vascular system
A. 3 L
B. 4 L
C. 5 L
D. 6 L
D. 6 L
The hepatitis B vaccine program, a component of the infection control plan, addresses all of the following issues, except:
A. family history of hepatitis
B. vaccine safety and efficiacy
C. record keeping and tracking
D. postvaccine antibody titers
A. family history of hepatitis
the body’s backup system of respiratory control, which is based on low concentrations of oxygen in the blood, is called:
A. hypocarbic drive
B. pneumotaxic drive
C. oxyhemoglobin drive
D. hypoxic drive
D. hypoxic drive
Acting in such a way as to make another person ear immediate bodily harm is called:
A. libel
B. assault
C. negligence
D. battery
B. assault
An EMT would MOST likely be held liable for abandonment if he or she:
A. did not make provisions for continued care of an injured patient
B. refused to care for a violent patient who is armed with a knife.
C. remained at the hospital for 30 minutes to give a patient report
D. terminated care of a competent adult patient at his or her request
A. did not make provisions for continued care of an injured patient.
the bones of the forearm are called:
A. humerus and ulna
B. tibia and radius
C. radius and ulna
D. radius and humerus
C. radius and ulna
As an EMT, the performance of your duties will be compared to that of:
A. the medical director
B. another EMT
C. the general public
D. a paramedic supervisor
B. another EMT
the bones that constitute the fingers and toes are called
A. carpals
B. metatarsals
C. phalanges
D. metacarpals
C. phalanges
the brain connects to the spinal cord through a large opening at the base of the skull called the
A. foreman ovale
B. vertebral foramen
C. foramen Magnum
D. spinous foramen
C. foramen magnum
For a do not resuscitate (DNR) order to be valid, it must:
A. be dated within the previous 24 months
B. be updated a minimum of every 6 months
C. be signed by the local justice of the peace
D. clearly state the patient’s medical problem
D. clearly state the patient’s medical problem
In the eyes of the courts, an incomplete or untidy patient care form indicates:
A. potential falsification of the patient care form
B. inadequate patient care was administered
C. thorough documentation was not required
D. the EMT was too busy providing patient care to fill out the form
B. inadequate patient care was administered
the cervical spine is composed of ____ vertebrae
A. five
B. six
C. seven
D. four
C. seven
Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include:
A. not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons
B. quickly moving any weapons out of the patient’s site
C. placing the patient in a private area until the police arrive
D. making brief notes at the scene and then completing them later
A. not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons
the circulation of blood within an organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet the cells’ current needs is called
A. respiration
B. metabolism
C. cardiac output
D. perfusion
D. perfusion
the descending aorta branches into the
A. deep femoral arteries
B. internal carotid arteries
C. common iliac arteries
D. external carotid arteries
C. common iliac arteries
The EMT’s scope of practice within his or her local response area is defined by the:
A. state EMS office
B. local health district
C. medical director
D. EMS supervisor
C. medical director
The manner in which the EMT must act or behave when caring for a patient is called the:
A. EMT oath
B. scope of practice
C. code of ethics
D. standard of care.
D. standard of care
Two EMTs witnessed a call in which a coworker gave adequate medical care but ignored the patient’s emotional needs. The coworker was deliberately rude solely because the patient was thought to be infected with HIV. The EMTs ignored the coworker’s treatment of this patient and took no steps to prevent his behavior from happening again. This lack of action on the part of the two EMTs is considered:
A. illegal and unethical
B. legal and ethical
C. illegal but ethical
D. legal but unethical
D. legal but unethical
the diapghragm and intercostal muscles contract during
A. exhalation
B. respiration
C. ventilation
D. inhalation
D. inhalation
Which of the following general statements regarding consent is correct?
A. patients who are intoxicated are generally allowed to refuse treatment
B. expressed consent is valid only if given in writing by a family member
C. a patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse treatment
D. all patients older than 18 years can legally refuse treatment or transport
C. a patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse treatment
the exocrine gland of the pancreases secretes
A. bile
B. pancreatic juice
C. insulin
D. glucose
B. pancreatic juice
the kidneys and pancreases are called retroperitoneal organs because they
A. sit in front of the liver, spleen, and stomach
B. are located behind the abdominal cavity
C. lie just anterior to the constovertebral angle
D. are protected by the anterior rib cage
B. are located behind the abdominal cavity
Which of the following MOST accurately defines negligence?
A. deviation from the standard of care that might result in further injury
B. providing care that is consistent with care provided by other EMTs
C. transport of a mentally incompetent patient against his or her will
D. transferring patient care to a provider with a lower level of training
A. deviation from the standard of care that might result in further injury
Which of the following patients has decision-making capacity and can legally refuse emergency medical treatment?
A. a confused young male who says he is the president
B. a conscious and alert woman with severe abdominal pain
C. a man who is staggering and states that he had three beers
D. a diabetic woman who has slurred speech and is not aware of the date
B. a conscious and alert woman with severe abdominal pain
the large, flat, triangular bone that overlies the posterior thoracic wall is called the
A. glenoid
B. acromion
C. scapula
D. clavicle
C. scapula
In many states, a minor may be treated as an adult for the purpose of consenting to or refusing medical treatment if the minor:
A. has a poor relationship with his or her parents
B. is mentally competent and able to refuse
C. is self supporting and lives by him/herself
D. possesses a valid driver’s license
C. is self supporting and lives by him/herself
the largest portion of the brain is the _____, which is commonly referred to as the “grey matter”
A. brain stem
B. cerebrum
C. diencephalon
D. cerebellum
B. cerebrum
Putrefaction is defined as:
A. seperation of the torso from the rest of the body
B. profound cyanosis to the trunk and face
C. blood settling to the lowest point of the body
D. decomposition of the body’s tissues
D. decomposition of the body’s tissues
Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts abandonment?
A. an EMT gives a verbal report to an emergency room nurse
B. a paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT
C. an AEMT transfers patient care to a paramedic
D. a physician assumes patient care from an EMT
B. a paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT
the leaf-shaped flap of cartilage that prevents food and liquid from entering the trachea during swallowing is called
A. epiglottis
B. vallecula
C. pharynx
D. uvula
A. epiglottis
the major artery that supplies all other arteries with blood is the
A. aorta
B. carotid
C. femoral
D. brachial
A. aorta
the pelvic bones are formed by the fusion of the :
A. ilium, pubis, and sacrum
B. ilium, ishium, and pubis
C. pubis and acetabulum
D. sacrum and ischium
B. ilium, ishium, and pubis
the phase of the cardiac cycle in which the ventricles fill with the blood is called
A. cardiac output
B. diasole
C. systole
D. stroke volume
B. diastole
the primary function of the right atrium is to
A. recieve blood from the pulmonary veins
B. recieve blood from the vena cave
C. pump blood to the lungs for reoxygation
D. pump blood to the pulmonary artery
B. receive blood from the vena cava
the primary organ responsible for absorption of products of digestion
A. pancreas
B. small intestine
C. gallbladder
D. large intestine
B. small intestine
the smooth muscle that cause the artery to contract are found in the
A. lumen
B. tunica intima
C. tunica adventitia
D. tunica media
D. tunica media
the three bones that make up the shoulder girdle are the
A. clavicle, scapula, and humerus
B. acromion, clavicle, and scapula
C. acromion, scapula, and humerus
D. acromion, humerus, and clavicle
A. clavicle, scapula, and humerus
the vocal cords are located in the
A. pharynx
B. oropharynx
C. larynx
D. nasopharynx
C. larynx
the waste products of aerobic metabolism include
A. ATP and glucose
B. carbon dioxide and water
C. uric acid and nitrogen
D. glucose and lactid acid
B. carbon dioxide and water
urine is transported from the kidneys to the urinary bladder via the
A. ureters
B. uretha
C. renal duct
D. prostate
A. ureters
what happens when blood volume is lost from body:
A. arterial blood is diverted to the skin and muscles
B. widespread vasodilation causes blood pressure to decrease
C. the arteries contract to increase the blood pressure
D. the veins dilate to increase systemic perfusion
C. the arteries contract to increase the blood pressure
what is the function of platelets
A. defense against invading organisms
B. transport of oxygen and nutrients
C. initial formation of a blood clot
D. transport of cellular waste materials
C. initial formation of a blood clot
what is the function of the fallopian tubes
A. to connect to the overies
B. to transport a mature egg to the uterus
C. to supply blood to the uterine lining
D. to produce progesterone and estrogen
B. to transport a mature egg to the uterus
which layer of the skin is composed of fatty tissues and serves as an insulator for the body
A. epidermis
B. subcutaneous
C. sebaceous
D. dermal
B. subcutaneous
which of the following is a function of the upper airway
A. relaxes smooth muscle in the bronchioles
B. creates sounds from vocal cord vibration
C. warms and humidifies inhaled air
D. exchanges oxygen and carbon dioxide
C. warms and humidifies inhaled air
which of the following is most characteristic of adequate breathing in an adult
A. use of the accessory muscles in the neck and cyanosis
B. cool, clammy skin and retractions above the clavicles
C. respirations of 20 breaths/min and bilateral chest movement
D. respirations of 30 breaths/min and reduced tidal volume
C. respirations of 20 breaths/min and bilateral chest movement
which of the following is not a function of the skin
A. sensory reception
B. metabolic coordination
C. temperature regulation
D. pressure and pain perception
B. metabolic coordination
which of the following signs of respiratory distress is typically unique to infants and children
A. unequal chest expansion
B. seesaw respirations
C. unequal breath sounds
D. irregular breath pattern
B. seesaw respirations
which of the following skin layers contain sweat and oil glands, hair follicles, blood vessels, and nerve endings
A. sebaceous
B. dermis
C. subcutaneous
D. epidermis
B. dermis
Which of the following situations requires you to notify the appropriate authorities?
A. cardiac arrest
B. accidental knife wound
C. attempted suicide
D. drug overdose
C. attempted suicide
which of the following statements regarding agonal respirations is correct
A. agonal respirations are characterized by fast, irregular breaths
B. agonal respirations typically occur before the heart stops
C. Agonal respirations result in excessive tidal volume
D. agonal respirations are ineffective and need to be assisted
D. agonal respirations are ineffective and need to be assisted
Which of the following statements regarding Good Samaritan laws is correct?
A. such laws do not protect EMTs who are off duty
B. such laws guarantee that the EMT will not be held liable if he or she is sued
C. such laws provide the EMT with absolute immunity from a lawsuit
D. such laws will not protect the EMT in cases of gross negligence
D. such laws will not protect the EMT in cases of gross negligence
A ____ receives messages and signals on one frequency and then automatically retransmits them on a second frequency
A. repeater
B. scanner
C. decoder
D. duplex
A. repeater
which of the following statements regarding plasma is correct
A. plasma has no role in the body’s blood-clotting mechanism
B. approximately 45% of the blood is composed of plasma
C. most of the body’s plasma is contained within the large veins
D. plasma transports the blood cells and nutrients
D. plasma transports the blood cells and nutrients
A patient’s refusal of EMS treatment and/or transport must be:
A. witnessed by a notary
B. reported to the police
C. authorized by a judge
D. an informed refusal
D. an informed refusal
All information recorded on the PCR must be:
A. reflective of your opinion
B. a matter of public record
C. considered confidential
D. typewritten or printed
C. considered confidential
Any radio hardware containing a transmitter and a receiver that is located in a fixed location is called a:
A. multiplex
B. base station
C. repeater
D. mobile radio
B. base station
As you are wheeling your patient through the emergency department doors, you receive another call for a major motor vehicle crash. You should:
A. respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse or physician
B. leave a copy of the run form with a nurse and then respond to the call
C. inform the admissions clerk of the situation and then respond at once
D. place the patient in a high-visibility area and then respond to the call
A. respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse or physician
which of the following statements regarding the kidneys is correct
A. both kidneys are located in the anterior abdominal cavity and lie in between the liver and the spleen
B. because the kidneys require little oxygen, only 5% of the body’s blood volume passes through them each minute
C. a series of small blood vessels attach the kidneys directly to the superior vena cava and renal arteries
D. the kidneys eliminate toxic waste products from the body and control the body’s fluid balance
D. the kidneys eliminate toxic waste products from the body and control the body’s fluid balance
Calming and reassuring an anxious patient can be facilitated by:
A. withholding unpleasant information until arrival at the hospital
B. positioning yourself at a level that is higher than the patient
C. maintaining eye contact with the patient whenever possible
D. using medical terminology to ensure the patient understands
C. maintaining eye contact with the patient whenever possible
Communicating with hearing-impaired patients can be facilitated by doing all of the following, except:
A. placing yourself in a position to ensure that the patient can see your lips
B. elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation
C. shining a light on your face when you are in a darkened environment
D. providing pen and paper if the patient prefers to write his or her response
B. elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation
During the alert and dispatch phase of EMS communications, the dispatcher’s responsibilities include all of the following, except:
A. coordinating responding EMS units with other public safety personnel
B. discouraging the caller from providing care until the EMS unit arrives
C. screening and assigning a priority to each call based on local protocols
D. selecting and notifying the correct EMS response units and personnel
B. discouraging the caller from providing care until the EMS unit arrives
which of the following systems is responsible for releasing hormones that regulate body activities
A. reproductive
B. nervous
C. endocrine
D. skeletal
C. endocrine
Ethnocentrism is defined as:
A. subconsciously forcing your cultural values onto a patient because you believe that your own values are more acceptable
B. understanding that people from different cultural backgrounds respond to pain and stress differently
C. suspecting that a person has an ulterior motive based on the tone of his or her voice when answering a question
D. considering your own cultural values as more important when interacting with people of different culture
D. considering your own cultural values as more important when interacting with people of a different culture
which organ lies in the lateral and posterior portion of the left upper quadrant of the abdomen
A. liver
B. cecum
C. stomach
D. spleen
D. spleen
In which of the following manners should you act and speak with a patient?
A. passive
B. authoritative
C. calm and confident
D. loud and official
C. calm and confident
which set of nerves is responsible for carrying information from the body to the central nervous system
A. sensory
B. vertebral
C. cranial
D. motor
A. sensory
The patient care report (PCR) ensures:
A. continuity of care
B. availability of research data
C. legal protection
D. quality assurance
A. continuity of care
Two-way communication that requires the EMT to “push to talk” and “release to listen” describes which mode of communication?
A. multiplex
B. complex
C. simplex
D. duplex
C. simplex
worn-out blood cells, foreign substances, and bacteria are filtered from the blood by the
A. Kidney
B. spleen
C. liver
D. pancreas
B. spleen
When communicating with a visually impaired patient, you should:
A. expect the patient to have difficulty understanding
B. determine the degree of the patient’s impairment
C. possess as in-depth knowledge of sign language
D. recall that most visually impaired patients are blind
B. determine the degree of the patient’s impairment
When providing a patient report via radio, you should protect the patient’s privacy by:
A. not disclosing his or her name
B. using coded medical language
C. refraining from objective
D. withholding medical history date
A. not disclosing his or her name
You are dispatched to a movie theater for a 39 year old female with signs and symptoms of a severe allergic reactions. As you are assessing her, she pulls an epinephrine auto-injector out of her purse and hands it to you. After confirming the drugs name and expiration date, you should:
A. request an ALS ambulance to administer the drug
B. ask her if she takes other medications
C. administer the drug
D. contact medical control
D. contact medical control
You are dispatched to a state park for a young female experiencing an allergic reaction. Your assessment reveals that her breathing is severely labored and her blood pressure is very low. You carry epinephrine auto-injectors on your ambulance and have been trained and approved by your medical director to administer them. As your partner gives the patient supplemental oxygen, you attempt to contact medical control but do not have a signal from your cell phone. You should:
A. immediately load the patient into the ambulance, begin transport, and reattempt to contact medical control when you receive a cell signal
B. place her in a supine position, keep her warm, begin transport to the hospital, and request a paramedic intercept en route.
C. administer epinephrine to the patient, begin immediate transport, and attempt to contact medical control en route to the hospital.
D. notify dispatch and request that a paramedic unit respond to the scene so they can administer epinephrine to the patient.
C. administer epinephrine to the patient, begin immediate transport, and attempt to contact medical control en route to the hospital
You are treating a middle aged man with chest discomfort. He has a history of three previous heart attacks and takes nitroglycerin as needed for chest pain. You have standing orders to administer aspirin to patients with suspected cardiac-related chest pain or discomfort. While your partner is preparing to give oxygen to the patient you should:
A. endure that the patients systolic blood pressure is at least 100 mm Hg because aspirin dilates the blood vessels and can cause a drop in blood pressure
B. contact medical control apprise him or her of the patients chief complaint and vital signs, and request permission to give him aspirin
C. confirm that the patient is not allergic to aspirin, give him the appropriate dose of aspirin and document the time and dose given
D. assist the patient in taking one of his prescribed nitroglycerins assess his vital signs and give him aspirin if he is still experiencing chest discomfort
C. confirm that the patient is not allergic to aspirin give him the appropriate dose of aspirin, and document the time and dose given.
A 16 year-old female complains of vaginal bleeding and abdominal cramping that began several hours ago. During your assessment interview, you should:
A. recall that patients in this age group prefer not to be treated as adults
B. inquire about the possibility of pregnancy in private, if possible
C. obtain the majority of your information from one of her parents
D. avoid asking questions that she will feel uncomfortable answering
B. inquire about the possibility of pregnancy in private, if possible
When replaying patient information via radio, communications should be:
A. spoken in a loud voice
B. coded and scripted
C. lengthy and complete
D. brief and easily understood
D. brief and easily understood
Which of the following incidents does NOT require a report to be filed with local authorities?
A. spousal abuse
B. animal bites
C. cardiac arrest
D. gunshot wounds
C. cardiac arrest
Which of the following statements regarding communication with a child is correct?
A. unlike adults, children cannot see through lies or deceptions
B. most children are intrigued by strangers wearing uniforms
C. standing over a child often increases his or her level of anxiety
D. the EMT should give the child minimal information to avoid scaring him or her
C. standing over a child often increases his or her level of anxiety
Which type of communications equipment functions as a radio receiver and searches across several frequencies?
A. scanner
B. mobile repeater
C. simplex station
D. duplex station
A. scanner
A 37 year old male is having a allergic reaction to penicillin. He does not have an epi auto injector and your protocols do not allow you to carry epi on the ambulance. How should you proceed with the treatment of this patient?
A. administer oxygen, transport at once and request a paramedic intercept.
B. Ask the patient if he has any diphenhydramine tablets that you can administer
C. Quickly determine if there are any bystanders who may carry epi.
D. remain at the scene with the patient and request a paramedic ambulance.
A. administer oxygen, transport at once, and request a paramedic intercept.
A 48 year old male is found unconscious in the garden by his wife. when you arrive at the scene and assess the man, you find that he is unresponsive, has labored breathing, and has hives over his entire trunk. you should:
A. administer oxygen and position him on his side
B. perform a detailed secondary assessment
C. maintain his airway and assist his ventilations
D. ask his wife if he has any known allergies
C. maintain his airway and assist his ventilations
A 25 year old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her chest when her car hit a tree while traveling at a high rate of speed. She has signs and symptoms of shock, which you suspect are the results of intrathoracic bleeding. Which of the following interventions will provide this patient with the greatest chance for survival?
A. intravenous fluid administration
B. high flow oxygen administration
C. full immobilization of her spine
D. rapid transport to a trauma center
D. rapid transport to a trauma center
an infant or small child’s airway can be occluded if it is overextended or overflexed because
A. the occiput is proportionately large and the trachea is flexible
B. the tongue is proportionately small and can fall back into the throat
C. the back of the head is flat, which prevents a neutral position
D. he or she has a long neck, which prevents the trachea prone to collapse
A. the occiput is proportionately large and the trachea is flexed
You could be sued for ____ if your radio report to the hospital describes the patient in a manner that injures his or her reputation.
A. slander
B. negligence
C. assault
D. libel
A. slander
A 4-year-old boy had an apparent seizure. He is conscious and calm and is sitting on his mother’s lap. His father is sitting in a nearby chair. The child’s mother suddenly begins crying uncontrollably, which causes the child to start crying. You should:
A. give the child a favorite toy or blanket to hold onto and perform your assessment to the best of your ability
B. reassure the child’s mother that seizures in children are very common and that there is nothing to worry about
C. attempt to calm the child’s mother, but avoid separating her from her child because this will increase her anxiety
D. ask the father to hold the child so you can assess him while your partner tries to calm the mother
D. ask the father to hold the child so you can assess him while your partner tries to calm the mother
A 27 year old male was stabbed in the chest during a disagreement as a poker game. As you approach him, you see that a knife is impaled in his chest. Before you make physical contact with the patient, it is MOST important to:
A. form a general impression
B. ask bystanders what happened
C. call for an ALS ambulance
D. follow standard precautions
D. follow standard precautions
A 60-year-old man complains of chest pain. He is conscious, alert, and denies shortness of breath. Which of the following questions would be the MOST appropriate to ask him?
A. “Do you have any heart problems or take any medications?”
B. “Were you exerting yourself when the chest pain began?”
C. “Does the pain in your chest move to either of your arms?”
D. “Does the pain in your chest feel like a stabbing sensation?”
A. “Do you have any heart problems or take any medications?”
at what age does separation anxiety typically peak in infants and small children
A. 18 to 24 months
B. 10 to 18 months
C. 24 to 36 months
D. 6 to 8 months
B. 10 to 18 months
After being dispatched on an emergency call, you should expect the dispatcher to provide you will all of the following information, EXCEPT:
A. the general geographic location of the incident
B. other agencies that are responding to the scene
C. the number of patients involved in the incident
D. the nature of the injury, illness, or incident
A. the general geographic location of the incident
Factors that contribute to a decline in the vital capacity of an elderly patient of an elderly patient include all of the following, except
A. increased surface area available for air exchange
B. a loss of respiratory muscle mass
C. decreased residual volume
D. increased stiffness of the thoracic cage
A. increased surface area available for air exchange
After delivering your patient to the hospital, you sit down to complete the handwritten PCR. When documenting the patient’s last blood pressure reading, you inadvertently write 120/60 instead of 130/70. To correct this mistake, you should:
A. leave the error on the PCR, but inform the staff of the patient’s actual blood pressure
B. erase the error, initial it, and then write the correct data on a separate addendum
C. draw a single horizontal line through the error, initial it, and write the correct data next to it
D. cover the error with correction fluid and then write the patient’s actual blood pressure over it
C. draw a single horizontal line through the error, initial it, and write the correct data next to it
Relative to an adult’s airway anatomy, the child;s
A. mouth and nose are proportionately larger
B. trachea is smaller, softer, and less flexible
C. pharynx is smaller and less deeply curved
D. tongue takes up less space in the pharynx
C. pharynx is smaller and less deeply curved
A 56 year old male is found semiconscious by his wife. Your assessment reveals that his respirations are rapid and shallow, his pulse is rapid and irregular, and his blood pressure is low. The patients wife states that he complained of left arm pain and nausea the day before, but would not allow her to call 9-1-1. The MOST likely cause of this patients present condition is:
A. acute myocardial infarction
B. a ruptured aortic aneurysm
C. dehydration from GI virus
D. severe septic hypoperfusion
A. acute myocardial infarction
After receiving online orders from medical control to perform a patient care intervention, you should:
A. perform the intervention as ordered
B. confirm the order in your own words
C. repeat the order to medical control word for word
D. ask the physician to repeat the order
C. repeat the order to medical control word for word
Despite your numerous, sincere efforts to convince a 40-year-old man to consent to EMS treatment and transport, he refuses. After explaining the potential consequences of his refusal and determining that the patient has decision-making capacity, you ask him to sign an EMS refusal form, but he refuses to do that as well. You should:
A. advise the patient that unless he signs the refusal form, he cannot legally refuse EMS treatment or transport
B. sign the refusal form, include the date and time, and have your partner witness it with his or her signature
C. ask a family member, law enforcement officer, or bystander to sign the form verifying the patient refused to sign
D. document the patient’s refusal, but leave the refusal form blank because only the patient can legally sign it
C. ask a family member, law enforcement officer, or bystanders to sign the form verifying that the patient refused to sign
The human body should be functioning at its optimal level between the ages of
A. 19 and 25 years
B. 18 and 22 years
C. 25 and 35 years
D. 21 and 30 years
A. 19 and 25 years
A 50 year old male was stung by a honeybee approximately 15 mins ago he presents with respiratory distress, facial swelling, and hypotension. after placing him on oxygen and administering his epi via auto injector, you note that his breathing has improved. additionally, his facial swelling is resolving and his blood pressure is stable your next action should be:
A. visualize his airway to assess for oropharyngeal swelling
B. notify medical control of the patients response to your treatment
C. reassess his breathing and blood pressure in 15 mins
D. record the time and dose of the injection and transport promptly
D. record the time and dose of the auto injection and transport promptly
the low normal systolic blood pressure for a 30-year old is
A. 60 mm Hg
B. 90 mm Hg
C. 80 mm Hg
D. 70 mm hG
B. 90 mm Hg
General guidelines for effective radio communications include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. using 10 codes to ensure radio traffic confidentiality
B. holding the microphone about 2 to 3 inches from your mouth
C. speaking in a clear, calm, monotone voice
D. acknowledging a transmission as soon as possible
A. using 10 codes to ensure radio traffic confidentiality
A 59 year old male presents with severe vomiting and diarrhea of 3 days duration. He is confused and diaphoretic, and his radial pulses are absent. His blood pressure is 78/50 mm Hg. After applying supplemental oxygen, you should.
A. obtain a repeat blood pressure in 5 minutes
B. prepare for immediate transport
C. perform a head-to-toe exam
D. allow him to drink plain water
B. prepare for immediate transport
The pulse rate of a child from ages 6 to 12 years Is approximately
A. 60 to 100 beats/min
B. 70 to 120 beats/min
C. 100 to 150 beats/min
D. 90 to 140 beats/min
B. 70 to 120 beats/min
The official transfer of patient care does not occur until the EMT:
A. notifies the admitting clerk of the patient’s arrival at the hospital
B. gives a radio report to the receiving medical facility
C. gives an oral report to the emergency room physician or nurse
D. informs dispatch of the patient’s arrival at the emergency department
C. gives an oral report to the emergency room physician or nurse
When obtaining patient care orders from a physician via a two-way radio, it is important to remember that:
A. the use of 10 codes in an effective method of communication
B. the physician’s instructions are based on the information you provide
C. the physician might or might not be located within your service area
D. all orders should be carried out immediately and without question
B. the physician’s instructions are based on the information you provide
the risk of bleeding in the skull, which increases with age, is most related to
A. meningeal deterioration
B. a decrease in neurons
C. shrinkage of the brain
D. blood vessel dilation
C. shrinkage of the brain
When you are communicating with an older patient, it is important to remember that:
A. your questions should focus exclusively on the patient’s obvious problem
B. hostility and confusion should be presumed to be due to the patient’s age
C. speaking loudly and distinctly will ensure that the patient can hear you
D. most older people think clearly and are capable of answering questions
D. most older people think clearly and are capable of answering
after administering 0.3 mg of epi via auto injector to a 22 year old female with an allergic reaction, you note improvement in her breathing and resolution of her hives. However, she still is anxious and tachycardia. you should:
A. transport her rapidly, because it is obvious that she is having a severe reaction to the epi
B. consider administering 0.15 mg of epi to completely resolve her allergic reaction
C. contact medical control and obtain authorization to administer another 0.3 mg of epi
D. monitor her closely but recall that anxiety and tachycardia are side effects of epi
D. monitor her closely but recall that anxiety and tachycardia are side effects of epi
A construction worker fell approximately 30 feet. He is semiconscious with rapid, shallow respirations. Further assessment reveals deformity to the thoracic region of his spine. His blood pressure is 70/50 mm Hg, his pulse is 66 beats/min and weak, and his skin is warm and dry. In addition to spinal immobilization and rapid transport the MOST appropriate treatment for this patient includes:
A. oxygen via nonrebreathing mask, thermal management, and elevation of his legs
B. assisted ventilation, thermal management, and elevation of the lower extremeties
C. assisted ventilation, preventing hyperthermia and elevating his lower extremeties
D. oxygen via nonrebreathing mask blankets for warmth, and elevation of his head
B. assisted ventilation, thermal management, and elevation of the lower extremities
when assessing an 80-year-old patient in shock, it is important to remember that
A. in older adults, it is especially common to observe a significant decreased In heart rate in response to shock
B. it is common to see a more significant increase in heart rate than would be expected in younger adults
C. the patient’s cardiac output is able to increased by nearly 200% in response to the decrease in perfusion
D. age-related changes in the cardiovascular system might make the patient less able to compensate for decreased perfusion
D. age-related changes in the cardiovascular system might make the patients less able to compensate for decreased perfusion
Which of the following has the weakest transmission signal and, as a result, is LEAST likely to be heard by the party being called?
A. land-base repeater station
B. handheld portable radio
C. multiples base station
D. mobile repeater station
B. handheld portable radio
Which of the following statements is NOT appropriate to document in the narrative section of a PCR?
A. “General impression revealed that the patient was intoxicated.”
B. “Significant damage was noted to the front end of the vehicle.”
C. “The patient admits to smoking marijuana earlier in the day.”
D. “After oxygen was administered, the patient’s breathing improved.”
A. “General impression revealed that the patient was intoxicated.”
Which of the following statements regarding standing orders is correct?
A. standing orders only highlight the care that you may provide
B. standing orders should be followed when physician contact is not possible
C. standing orders have less legal authority than orders given via radio
D. standing orders require you to contact medical control first before providing an intervention
B. standing orders should be followed when physician contact is not possible
A 45-year-old male was working on his roof when he fell approximately 12 feet, landing on his feet. He is conscious and alert and complains of an ache in his lower back. He is breathing adequately and has stable vital signs. You should:
A. perform a rapid head-to-toe exam and immobilize his spine
B. immobilize his spine and perform a focused secondary exam
C. obtain a Glasgow Coma Score value and give him oxygen
D. allow him to refuse transport if his vital signs remain stable
B. immobilize his spine and perform a focused secondary exam
A female patient with a suspected head injury has slow, shallow breathing. The MOST appropriate treatment for her includes:
A. ventilation assistance to maintain an ETCO2 of 30 to 25 mmHg
B. administering oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask
C. ventilation assistance to maintain an oxygen saturation of 90%
D. hyperventilating her at 30 breaths/min
A. ventilation assistance to maintain an ETCO2 of 30 to 35 mmHg
Patients develop septic shock secondary to:
A. weak vessel tone caused by nervous
B. failure of the blood vessels to adequately dilate
C. poor vessels function and severe volume loss
D. an infection that weakens cardiac contractions
C. poor vessels function and severe volume loss
which of the following is a physical change that typically occurs in the adolescent age group
A. the normal pulse rate steadily increases
B. secondary sexual development begins
C. muscle and bone growth both decrease
D. the systolic blood pressure decreases
B. secondary sexual development begins
the adult epi auto injector delivers ____ mg of epi, and the infant child auto injector delivers ___ mg.
A. 0.3; 0.15
B. 0.1;0.01
C. 0.01; 0.1
D. 0.03; 0.3
A. 0.3; 0.15
which of the following is an anatomic difference between children and adults
A. the trachea of an infant is proportionately longer than an adult’s trachea
B. an infant’s tongue is proportionately larger than an adult’s tongue
C. the rib cagee of an infant is less flexible than an adult’s rib cage
D. an infants head accounts for less body weight that an adult’s head
B. an infant’s tongue is proportionately larger than an adult’s tongue
Temporary, widespread vasodilation and syncope caused by a sudden nervous system reaction MOST accurately describes:
A. neurogenic shock
B. vasovagal shock
C. psychogenic shock
D. neurologic shock
C. psychogenic shock
which of the following medications blocks the release of histamines?
A. Albuterol (Ventolin)
B. acetaminophen (Tylenol)
C. epinephrine (adrenalin)
D. diphenhydramine (benadryl)
D. diphenhydramine (benadryl)
which of the following physiologic actions does epi produce when given for an Allergic reaction?
A. blocking of further histamine release
B. Vasoconstriction and bronchodilation
C. bronchodilation and vasodilation
D. bronchoconstriction and vaso constriction
B. Vasoconstriction and bronchodilation
When assessing a patient with signs and symptoms of shock, it is important to remember that:
A. multiple fractures are the most common cause of hypovolemic shock
B. blood pressure may be the last measurable factor to change in shock
C. irreversible shock often responds well to a prompt blood transfusion
D. the patients respirations are deep during the early stages of shock
B. blood pressure may be the last measurable factor to change in shock
which of the following is not a common factor that would affect a 75-year-old patient’s vital signs
A. medications
B. overall health
C. medical conditions
D. increased weight
D. increased weight
you are assessing a young male who was stung on the leg by a scorpion. He is conscious and alert, his breathing is regular and unlabored, and his blood pressure is 122/64 mm Hg. assessment of his leg reveals a wheal surrounded by an area of redness. He states that he had a “bad reaction” the last time he was stung by a scorpion, and carries his own epi you should:
A. apply high flow oxygen, apply a chemical cold pack directly to the injection site, and transport at once.
B. apply high flow oxygen, obtain approval from medical control to assist him with his epi, and transport
C. assess his ABC’s and vital signs in 15 mins and allow him to drive himself to the hospital if he remains stable
D. apply oxygen as needed, clean the area with soap and water or a mild antiseptic, and transport him to the hospital
D. apply oxygen as needed, clean the area with soap and water or a mild antiseptic, and transport him to the hospital
which of the following statements regarding age-related changes in the nervous system is correct
A. interconnections between brain cells often prevent a loss of knowledge or skill, despite a loss of neurons
B. generally speaking, the brain increases in size by 10% to 20% by the time a person reaches 80 years of age
C. because of a decrease in the number of brain cells, a person’s level of intelligence decreases with age
D. the metabolic rate in the brain increases with age, but the consumption of oxygen decreases significantly
A. interconnections between brain cellss often prevent a loss of knowledge or skill, despite a loss of neurons
A man jumped from the roof of his house and landed on his feet. He complains of pain to his heels, knees, and lower back. This mechanism of injury is an example of:
A. distraction
B. hyperflexion
C. axial loading
D. hyperextension
C. axial loading
A patient who cannot remember the events that preceded his or her head injury is experiencing:
A. posttraumatic amnesia
B. anterograde amnesia
C. prograde amnesia
D. retrograde amnesia
D. retrograde amnesia
A patient with a head injury presents with abnormal flexion of his extremities. What numeric value should you assign to him for motor response?
A. 4
B. 2
C. 5
D. 3
D. 3
A reflex arc occurs when:
A. a sensory nerve sends a message to the brain, but the motor nerve fails to send the appropriate response to the body
B. the motor nerves function automatically without receiving a message from the CNS
C. a sensory nerve detects an irritating stimulus and bypasses the brain by sending a direct message to the motor nerve
D. the brain interprets sensory information that it receives from peripheral and cranial nerves and sends a signal to the muscles
C. a sensory nerve detects an irritating stimulus and bypasses the brain by sending a direct message to the motor nerve
which of the following statements regarding an infant’s vital signs is correct
A. an ifant’s heart rate generally ranges between 70 and 110 beats/min
B. by six months of age, an infant’s normal tidal volume is 2 to 4 mL/Kg
C. an infants normal heart rate increases by 10 beats /min each month
D. an infants normal body temperature is typically higher than a preschooler’s normal body temperature
D. an infants normal body temperature is typically higher than a preschooler’s normal body temperature
A tight-fitting motorcycle helmet should be left in place unless:
A. the patient must be placed onto a long backboard
B. the patient complains of severe neck or back pain
C. the helmet is equipped with a full face shield or visor
D. it interferes with your assessment of the airway
D. it interferes with your assessment of the airway
After your partner assumes manual in-line stabilization of the patient’s head, you should:
A. use four people to log roll the patient onto a backboard
B. assess distal neurovascular status in the extremities
C. apply an appropriately sized rigid cervical collar
D. thoroughly palpate the patient’s head for deformities
B. assess distal neurovascular status in the extremities
You are transporting a 33 year old male who was involved in a major motor vehicle crash. You have addressed all immediate and potentially life-threatening conditions and have stabilized his condition with the appropriate treatment. With an estimated time of arrival at the hospital of 20 minutes, you should:
A. arrange for an ALS rendezvous
B. repeat your secondary assessment
C. reassess his condition in 5 minutes
D. take his vital signs in 15 minutes
C. reassess his conditions in 5 minutes
Bleeding within the brain tissue itself is called a(n):
A. epidural hematoma
B. subarachnoid hemorrhage
C. intracerebral hematoma
D. subdural hematoma
C. intracerebral hematoma
Common signs and symptoms of a serious head injury include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. widening pulse pressure
B. decerebrate posturing
C. a rapid, thready pulse
D. cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ears
C. a rapid, thready pulse
Common signs of a skull fracture include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. superficial scalp lacerations
B. noted deformity to the skull
C. ecchymosis around the eyes
D. mastoid process bruising
A. superficial scalp lacerations
which of the following statements regarding middle adults is correct
A. significant impairments in hearing and vision begin to occur in persons between the ages of 41 and 44 years
B. cardiovascular health becomes an issue in this age group, as does the greater incidence of cancer
C. women in the middle adult age group typically experiences menopause in their late 50s early 60s
D. increased cholesterol levels in the middle age group often do not respond to exercise and diet
B.
During your primary assessment of a 19-year-old unconscious male who experienced severe head trauma, you not that his respirations are rapid, irregular, and shallow. He has bloody secretions draining from his mouth and nose. You should:
A. immobilize his spine and transport immediately
B. pack his nostrils to stop the drainage of blood
C. assist his ventilations with a bag valve mask
D. suction his oropharynx for up to 15 seconds
D. suction his oropharynx for up to 15 seconds
You respond to a residence for a patient with a severe leg injury following an accident with a chainsaw. When you arrive, you find the patient, a 44 year old male, lying supine in the backyard. He has a partial amputation of his right lower leg that is actively bleeding. The patient is conscious and breathing adequately; however, he is restless and his skin is diaphoretic. You should:
A. assess the rate and quality of his pulse
B. administer 100% supplemental ocygen
C. immediately evaluate his airway
D. apply direct pressure to the wound
D. apply direct pressure to the wound
During your primary assessment of a semiconscious 30-year-old female with closed head trauma, you note that she has slow, irregular breathing and a slow, bounding pulse. As your partner maintains manual in-line stabilization of her head, you should:
A. apply 100% oxyen via a nonrebreathing mask and obtain baseline vital signs
B. instruct him to assist her ventilations while you perform a rapid assessment
C. immediately place her on a long backboard and prepare for rapid transport
D. perform a focused secondary assessment of the patient’s head and neck
B. instruct him to assist her ventilations while you perform a rapid assessment
Following a head injury, a 20-year-old female opens her eyes spontaneously, is confused, and obeys your commands to move her extremities. You should assign her a GCS score of:
A. 15
B. 13
C. 14
D. 12
C. 14
If you do not have the appropriate-size cervical collar, you should:
A. use rolled towels to immobilize the patient’s head
B. ask the patient to keep his or her head in a neutral position
C. place sandbags on either side of the patient’s head
D. defer cervical immobilization and apply lateral head blocks
A. use rolled towels to immobilize the patient’s head
In the setting of a head injury, hypertension, bradycardia, and biot respirations indicate:
A. internal bleeding in the chest
B. an underlying skull fracture
C. decreased cerebral blood flow
D. herniation of the brain stem
D. herniation of the brain stem
In which of the following situations would the EMT be the LEAST likely to immobilize a patient’s spine?
A. no distracting injuries or evidence of intoxication
B. unresponsive, but moving all extremities equally
C. pain to the c-spine, but no numbness or tingling
D. no spinal pain, but tingling in the extremities
A. no distracting injuries or evidence of intoxication
It would be MOST appropriate to perform a focused secondary assessment on a patient who:
A. has blood draining from the ears following a head injury
B. struck his or her head and is experiencing nausea or vomiting
C. was restrained during a high-speed motor vehicle crash
D. fainted and fell to the ground from a standing position
D. fainted and fell to the ground from a standing position
Rapid deceleration of the head, such as when it impacts the windshield, causes:
A. stretching or tearing of the anterior aspect of the brain and compression injuries or bruising to the posterior aspect of the brain
B. compression injuries or bruising to the anterior portion of the brain and stretching or tearing to the posterior portion of the brain
C. compression injuries and contusions to the anterior, posterior, and lateral aspects of the brain
D. primary impact to the posterior aspect of the brain, resulting in compression injuries, bruising, or torn blood vessels
B. compression injuries or bruising to the anterior portion of the brain and stretching or tearing to the posterior portion of the brain
The____is the best-protected part of the CNS and controls the functions of the cardiac and respiratory systems
A. cerebellum
B. cerebral cortex
C. spinal cord
D. brain stem
D. brain stem
The cervical spine is composed of____vertebra.
A. 6
B. 5
C. 7
D. 8
C. 7
The effectiveness of positive pressure ventilations when treating a head-injured patient can ONLY be determined by:
A. a neurosurgeon or emergency department physician
B. noting a decrease in the heart rate during ventilations
C. reassessing the patient’s blood pressure after 10 minutes
D. immediate reassessment after the intervention
D. immediate reassessment after the intervention
The five sections of the spinal column, in descending order, are the:
A. cervical, coccygeal, thoracic, sacral, and lumbar
B. coccygeal, sacral, lumbar, thoracic, and cervical
C. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal
D. thoracic, cervical, lumbar, coccygeal, and sacral
C. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal
The GCS is used to assess:
A. eye opening, verbal response, and motor response
B. sensory response, pupil reaction, and heart rate
C. verbal response, eye opening, and mental status
D. mental status, eye opening, and respiratory rate
A. eye opening, verbal response, and motor response
The meninges, along with the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) that circulates in between each meningeal later, function by:
A. regenerating brain cells after they have been damaged
B. delivering oxygen directly to the CNS
C. producing leukocytes that protect the brain from infection
D. acting as a shock absorber for the brain and spinal cord
D. acting as a shock absorber for the brain and spinal cord
A 19 year old male is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless after being struck in the center of the chest with a softball. Based on the mechanism of injury, what MOST likely occured?
A. asystole secondary to massive intrathoracic hemorrhage due to traumatic rupture of the aorta
B. collapse of both lungs due to fractured ribs that perforated the lung tissue and caused cardiac arrest
C. fracture of the sternum that caused a rupture of the myocardium and led to a cardiac dysrhythmia
D. ventricular fibrillation when the impact occured during a critical portion of the cardiac cycle
D. ventricular fibrillation when the impact occurred during a critical portion of the cardiac cycle
A 28 year old male was struck in the chest with a baseball bat during an altercation. He is conscious and alert and complains of severe chest pain. Your assessment reveals a large area of ecchymosis over the sternum and a rapid, irregular pulse. In addition to providing supplemental oxygen, you should:
A. apply bulky dressings to the sternum
B. prepare for immediate transport
C. apply an AED and assess his BP
D. determine if he has cardiac problems
B. prepare for immediate transport
A 37 year old male was pinned between a flatbed truck and a loading dock. On exam, you find bruising to the chest, distended neck veins, bilaterally diminished breath sounds, and bilateral scleral hemmorhaging. You should:
A. suspect a sever hemopneumothorax
B. perform a secondary assessment
C. aggressively manage his airway
D. request a paramedic ambulance
C. aggressively manage his airway
A 13-year-old child is on a home ventilator. The parents called because the mechanical ventilator is malfunctioning, and the child has increasing respiratory distress. You should:
Select one:
A.
reset the ventilator by unplugging it for 30 to 60 seconds.
B.
place a call to the home health agency treating this patient.
C.
disconnect the ventilator and apply a tracheostomy collar.
D.
attempt to troubleshoot the mechanical ventilator problem.
C.
try repositioning the hearing aid or remove it and turn down the volume.
According to the “E” in the DOPE mnemonic, which of the following actions should you perform to troubleshoot inadequate ventilation in a patient with a tracheostomy tube?
Select one:
A.
Look for blood or other secretions in the tube.
B.
Listen to breath sounds to assess for a pneumothorax.
C.
Attempt to pass a suction catheter into the tube.
D.
Check the mechanical ventilator for malfunction.
D.
Check the mechanical ventilator for malfunction.
According to the Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA):
Select one:
A.
all healthcare facilities must provide a medical assessment and required treatment, regardless of the patient’s ability to pay.
B.
a healthcare facility has the right to refuse assessment and treatment to a patient, but only if his or her condition is not deemed critical.
C.
all healthcare facilities are legally obligated to provide assessment and care only if the patient is critically ill or injured.
D.
a patient maintains the legal right to recant his or her consent to emergency treatment, even after signing in to the emergency department.
A.
all healthcare facilities must provide a medical assessment and required treatment, regardless of the patient’s ability to pay.
An important aspect in the assessment of a patient who experienced a previous brain injury involves:
Select one:
A.
contacting the patient’s physician to determine the extent of the brain injury.
B.
speaking with the patient and family to establish what is considered normal for the patient.
C.
presuming that he or she has cognitive impairment until proven otherwise.
D.
recalling that most patients with a brain injury have other organ dysfunction.
B.
speaking with the patient and family to establish what is considered normal for the patient.
As many as 40% of patients with Down syndrome have:
Select one:
A.
diabetes mellitus.
B.
intracranial bleeding.
C.
a heart condition.
D.
unilateral paralysis.
C.
a heart condition
Because a tracheostomy tube bypasses the nose and mouth:
Select one:
A.
bleeding or air leakage might occur around the tube.
B.
secretions can build up in and around the tube.
C.
severe swelling of the trachea and bronchi can occur.
D.
the risk of a local infection is significantly high.
B.
secretions can build up in and around the tube.
Because hearing-impaired patients typically have more difficulty hearing high-frequency sounds, it is important for you to:
Select one:
A.
lower the pitch of your voice.
B.
speak in a monotone voice.
C.
increase the pitch of your voice.
D.
try basic sign language first.
A.
lower the pitch of your voice.
By placing one hand on your head and the other hand over your abdomen, you are asking a hearing-impaired patient if he or she:
Select one:
A.
is nauseated.
B.
is hurt.
C.
needs help.
D.
is sick.
D.
is sick.
Down syndrome is a genetic defect that occurs as the result of:
Select one:
A.
a triplication of chromosome 21.
B.
a sperm that contains 24 chromosomes.
C.
a separation of chromosome 21.
D.
an extra pair of chromosomes.
A.
a triplication of chromosome 21.
EMS personnel would most likely be called to the residence of a patient receiving home health care when the home care provider:
Select one:
A.
has recognized a change in the patient’s health status.
B.
must confirm that a specific intervention is required.
C.
needs simple assistance in providing patient care.
D.
has a question that is specific to the patient’s condition.
has recognized a change in the patient’s health status.
EMTs are dispatched for a fall. The patient, a 16-year-old female with Down syndrome, is experiencing difficulty walking and says that her fingers “feel like needles.” The EMTs should suspect:
Select one:
A.
a cervical spine injury.
B.
a seizure.
C.
an intracranial hemorrhage.
D.
hydrocephalus.
a cervical spine injury.
EMTs are dispatched for a patient in cardiac arrest. When they arrive, they find that the patient is pulseless, apneic, and wearing an external defibrillator vest. In this situation, the EMTs should:
Select one:
A.
perform CPR and leave the vest in place.
B.
apply the AED pads over the vests’ pads.
C.
wait 5 minutes prior to using the AED.
D.
quickly remove the vest and perform CPR.
perform CPR and leave the vest in place.
EMTs are dispatched for a patient whose central venous catheter is malfunctioning. When they arrive and assess the patient, they find bleeding from the tubing attached to the line. The EMTs should:
Select one:
A.
request an ALS ambulance to clamp the tubing.
B.
carefully remove the catheter and transport.
C.
gently manipulate the catheter to reduce the bleeding.
D.
apply direct pressure to the tubing and transport.
apply direct pressure to the tubing and transport.
In contrast to conductive hearing loss, sensorineural hearing loss is caused by:
Select one:
A.
nerve damage.
B.
barotrauma.
C.
eardrum perforation.
D.
earwax accumulation.
nerve damage.
The tip of a central venous catheter rests in the: 51. Which of the following statements regarding interaction with the caregiver of a child or adult with special health care needs is correct?
Select one:
A.
In most cases, it is more appropriate for the EMT to contact medical control prior to speaking with the patient’s primary caregiver.
B.
Communication with the patient’s caregiver or family members is important because they are the most familiar with the patient’s condition.
C.
Before performing an assessment of the patient’s ABCs, the EMT should ask the caregiver about the patient’s medical condition.
D.
In general, the EMT should only speak with a certified home health care provider because he or she is the expert on the patient’s illness.
Communication with the patient’s caregiver or family members is important because they are the most familiar with the patient’s condition.
When assessing or providing care to a patient with an intellectual disability, you should:
Select one:
A.
be observant for signs of fear or reluctance from the patient.
B.
frequently reassure him or her that everything will be okay.
C.
move swiftly and deliberately to quickly accomplish the task.
D.
explain procedures while in the process of performing them.
be observant for signs of fear or reluctance from the patient.
When caring for patients with cerebral palsy, it is important to remember that:
Select one:
A.
most patients can walk but have an unsteady gait.
B.
hearing aids are usually ineffective for patients with hearing loss.
C.
their limbs are often underdeveloped and prone to injury.
D.
they cannot walk and are totally dependent upon you.
their limbs are often underdeveloped and prone to injury.
When interacting with an intellectually disabled patient, the best approach is to:
Select one:
A.
ask your team members to wait until you can establish a rapport with the patient.
B.
position yourself slightly above the patient’s level to reduce his or her anxiety.
C.
speak primarily with the patient’s family to establish the degree of disability.
D.
approach the patient as a team to reassure him or her that you are there to help.
ask your team members to wait until you can establish a rapport with the patient.
Which of the following statements regarding cerebral palsy is correct?
Select one:
A.
Most cases of cerebral palsy develop within the first 10 years of life and are typically caused by meningitis.
B.
Approximately 25% of patients with cerebral palsy possess some varying degrees of developmental delay.
C.
Conditions such as brain injury at birth, postpartum infections, and fetal hypoxia can cause cerebral palsy.
D.
A key clinical feature of cerebral palsy is paralysis of the respiratory muscles, which confines the patient to a ventilator.
Conditions such as brain injury at birth, postpartum infections, and fetal hypoxia can cause cerebral palsy.
A disposable oxygen humidifier should be considered for ambulance services that often transport patients for ___ hour(s) or more.
Select one:
A.
3
B.
1
C.
2
D.
4
1
A medical transport helicopter is incoming, and you are responsible for setting up the landing zone (LZ). You should:
Select one:
A.
place four flares 100 feet apart in an “X” pattern.
B.
use yellow caution tape to mark off the LZ perimeter.
C.
ask bystanders to stand at all four corners of the LZ.
D.
use weighted cones to mark all four corners of the LZ.
use weighted cones to mark all four corners of the LZ.
A portable oxygen cylinder should have a minimum capacity of ____ of oxygen.
Select one:
A.
1,000 L
B.
250 L
C.
750 L
D.
500 L
500 L
After assessing your patient, you determine that his condition is stable. You provide the appropriate treatment and then load him into the ambulance. While en route to the hospital, you should:
Select one:
A.
use your lights and siren but drive slowly and defensively.
B.
turn your emergency lights off and obey all traffic laws.
C.
drive slowly and remain in the far left-hand lane, if possible.
D.
keep your emergency lights on but avoid using the siren.
turn your emergency lights off and obey all traffic laws.
As soon as you leave the hospital and are en route back to your station, you should inform the dispatcher:
Select one:
A.
whether you are back in service.
B.
of the name of the accepting physician.
C.
that you are prepared for another call.
D.
about the patient’s clinical condition.
whether you are back in service.
For every emergency request, the dispatcher should routinely gather and record all of the following information, except the:
Select one:
A.
caller’s phone number.
B.
patient’s medical history.
C.
nature of the call.
D.
location of the patient(s).
patient’s medical history.
General guidelines for safe ambulance driving include all of the following, except:
Select one:
A.
avoiding routes with heavy traffic congestion.
B.
assuming that other drivers will not see you.
C.
avoiding one-way streets whenever possible.
D.
regularly using the siren as much as possible.
regularly using the siren as much as possible.
If you could only take two pieces of equipment with you to a patient’s side, you should choose the:
Select one:
A.
cervical collar and long backboard.
B.
AED and portable suction unit.
C.
BVM and portable oxygen.
D.
oral airways and sterile dressings
AED and portable suction unit.
If you properly assess and stabilize a patient at the scene, driving to the hospital with excessive speed:
Select one:
A.
is often necessary if the patient is critical.
B.
will decrease the driver’s reaction time.
C.
increases the patient’s chance for survival.
D.
is allowable according to state law.
will decrease the driver’s reaction time.
In general, medevac helicopters should be utilized when:
Select one:
A.
ground transport would leave your service area without an ambulance for greater than 30 minutes.
B.
ground transport to the hospital exceeds 30 to 45 minutes, even if the patient’s present condition is stable.
C.
a patient has been in cardiac arrest for more than 15 minutes and has not responded to CPR and defibrillation.
D.
a patient has a time-dependent injury or illness, and traffic conditions would cause a significant delay in definitive care
a patient has a time-dependent injury or illness, and traffic conditions would cause a significant delay in definitive care.
In which of the following situations would the EMTs most likely utilize a police escort?
Select one:
A.
The EMTs are transporting a critical pediatric patient through traffic.
B.
The call is dispatched as an unresponsive patient with CPR in progress.
C.
The weather is treacherous, and there are numerous roads washed out.
D.
The EMTs are unfamiliar with the location, but the police officer is familiar with the location.
The EMTs are unfamiliar with the location, but the police officer is familiar with the location.
Minimum airway and ventilation equipment that should be carried on every ambulance include all of the following, except:
Select one:
A.
adult and pediatric bag-valve masks.
B.
Combitubes, or laryngeal mask airways.
C.
mounted and portable suctioning units.
D.
various sizes of oral and nasal airways.
Combitubes, or laryngeal mask airways.
It is 10:30 pm, and you have requested air medical transport for a critically injured patient. When you arrive at the designated landing zone, you should:
Select one:
A.
survey the area for power lines or other hazards.
B.
mark the landing site using personnel with flashlights.
C.
provide the flight crew with a patient status update.
D.
mark the proposed landing area with road flares.
survey the area for power lines or other hazards.
The least practical place to store a portable oxygen cylinder is:
Select one:
A.
inside the jump kit.
B.
on the ambulance stretcher.
C.
in the driver’s compartment.
D.
near the side or rear door.
in the driver’s compartment.
The main objective of traffic control at the scene of a motor vehicle crash is to:
Select one:
A.
prevent curious onlookers from observing the scene.
B.
facilitate a route for the media to access the scene.
C.
warn oncoming traffic and prevent another crash.
D.
get oncoming traffic past the scene as soon as possible.
warn oncoming traffic and prevent another crash.
The six-pointed Star of Life emblem identifies vehicles that:
Select one:
A.
are equipped with supplies to manage a mass-casualty situation.
B.
have complied with state regulations for ambulance certification.
C.
are staffed by a minimum of one certified advanced EMT (AEMT).
D.
meet federal specifications as licensed or certified ambulances.
meet federal specifications as licensed or certified ambulances.
The use of lights and siren on an ambulance:
Select one:
A.
is required any time a patient is being transported to the hospital.
B.
signifies a request for other drivers to yield the right of way.
C.
allows other drivers to hear and see you from a great distance.
D.
legally gives the emergency vehicle operator the right of way.
signifies a request for other drivers to yield the right of way.
Upon arriving at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash at night, you find that the safest place to park your ambulance is in a direction that is facing oncoming traffic. You should:
Select one:
A.
place a flare near the crash.
B.
turn all warning lights off.
C.
turn your headlights off.
D.
quickly access the patient.
turn your headlights off.
When a helicopter must land on a grade (uneven ground), you should:
Select one:
A.
move the patient to the aircraft as soon as it lands.
B.
approach the aircraft from the uphill side.
C.
approach the aircraft from the downhill side.
D.
attempt to approach the aircraft from behind.
approach the aircraft from the downhill side.
A 50-year-old female is entrapped in her passenger car after it struck a tree. As the rescue team is preparing to extricate her, you quickly assess her and determine that she is breathing shallowly and her radial pulse is absent. You should:
Select one:
A.
secure her with a short backboard or vest device.
B.
maintain spinal stabilization as she is extricated.
C.
begin CPR as the rescue team begins extrication.
D.stabilize her condition before extrication begins.
maintain spinal stabilization as she is extricated.
When parking your ambulance at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you should position the ambulance:
Select one:
A.
alongside the scene to rapidly access the patient(s).
B.
50′ past the scene on the opposite side of the road.
C.
50′ before the scene on the same side of the road.
D.
100′ past the scene on the same side of the road.
100′ past the scene on the same side of the road.
A 33-year-old restrained driver of a motor vehicle crash is awake and alert, complaining only of neck pain and left leg pain. The vehicle is stable, and no hazards are present. When removing this patient from his vehicle, you should:
Select one:
A.
apply a full leg splint prior to extrication.
B.
immobilize him with a vest-style device.
C.
use the rapid extrication technique.
D.
maintain slight traction to his neck area.
immobilize him with a vest-style device.
A hiker was injured when he fell approximately 20′ from a cliff. When you arrive at the scene, a member of the technical rescue group escorts you to the patient, who is positioned on a steep incline. The most appropriate method of immobilizing and moving the patient to the ambulance is to:
Select one:
A.
apply a vest-style immobilization device and move him using a stair chair device.
B.
immobilize him to a long backboard and use the four-person carry to move him.
C.
immobilize him with a short backboard and place him on the ambulance stretcher.
D.
immobilize his spine with a long backboard and place him in a basket stretcher.
immobilize his spine with a long backboard and place him in a basket stretcher.
A unique consideration when dealing with a hybrid vehicle is that:
Select one:
A.
the battery has higher voltage than a traditional vehicle battery.
B.
rescue teams should disconnect the positive battery cable first.
C.
cutting the battery cables often results in an explosion or fire.
D.
you must locate the ignition switch and cut it to prevent a fire.
the battery has higher voltage than a traditional vehicle battery.
As you and your team are removing an unresponsive patient from her wrecked car, you note that she has deformities to both of her legs and a deformity to her left humerus. You should:
Select one:
A.
splint the deformities before moving her any further.
B.
assess distal neurovascular functions in her extremities.
C.
realign the deformed extremities before continuing.
D.
support the injured extremities and continue removal.
support the injured extremities and continue removal.
Common duties and responsibilities of EMS personnel at the scene of a motor vehicle crash include all of the following, except:
Select one:
A.
preparing all patients for transportation.
B.
assigning all patients a triage category.
C.
ongoing assessment of critical patients.
D.
keeping bystanders at a safe distance.
keeping bystanders at a safe distance.
Upon arrival at a motor vehicle crash, the EMT should:
Select one:
A.
leave only the essential warning lights activated.
B.
turn off the emergency flashing lights and headlights.
C.
turn off the ambulance and set the emergency brake.
D.
park at least 300 feet away from the accident scene.
leave only the essential warning lights activated.
Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you can see three patients, one who is entrapped in his car and two who have been ejected from their vehicle. You should:
Select one:
A.
immediately request additional resources.
B.
begin triage to determine injury severity.
C.
request law enforcement for traffic control.
D.
call medical control for further direction.
immediately request additional resources.
You are standing by at the scene of a hostage situation when the incident commander advises you that one of his personnel has been shot. The patient is lying supine in an open area and is not moving. As the SWAT team escorts you to the patient, you should:
Select one:
A.
limit your primary assessment to airway and breathing only.
B.
treat only critical injuries before moving him to a safe place.
C.
grab him by the clothes and immediately move him to safety.
D.
perform a rapid assessment and move him to a place of safety.
grab him by the clothes and immediately move him to safety.
Your unit has been dispatched to stand by at the scene of a structure fire. There are no injuries of which you are aware. Upon arriving at the scene, you should:
Select one:
A.
contact medical control and apprise him or her of the situation.
B.
ask the incident commander where the ambulance should be staged.
C.
park your ambulance behind the incident commander’s vehicle.
D.
set up a staging area where firefighters can be treated if necessary.
ask the incident commander where the ambulance should be staged.
A 19-year-old female has just been extricated from her severely damaged car. She is on a long backboard and has been moved to a place of safety. As your partner maintains manual stabilization of her head, you perform a rapid assessment. The patient is unresponsive, has slow and shallow respirations, and has bilateral closed femur deformities. You should:
Select one:
A.
stabilize her legs with long board splints.
B.
direct your partner to begin ventilatory assistance.
C.
apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.
D.
obtain baseline vital signs and transport at once.
direct your partner to begin ventilatory assistance.
Disentanglement involves:
Select one:
A.
removing a patient from a dangerous position.
B.
extrication techniques that EMTs are trained in.
C.
the use of simple access tools such as a pry bar.
D.
gaining access to a patient in a crashed vehicle.
removing a patient from a dangerous position.
Extrication is defined as:
Select one:
A.
removal from a dangerous situation or position.
B.
using heavy equipment to access a patient.
C.
dismantling an automobile to remove a victim.
D.
immobilizing a patient before moving him or her.
removal from a dangerous situation or position.
If a technical rescue team is required at the scene but is not present when you arrive, you should:
Select one:
A.
remain with your ambulance until the rescue team arrives at the scene.
B.
have fire personnel initiate the rescue process if they are at the scene.
C.
check with the incident commander to ensure that the team is en route.
D.
don personal protective equipment and begin the rescue process.
check with the incident commander to ensure that the team is en route.
In contrast to simple access, complex access:
Select one:
A.
involves forcible entry into a vehicle.
B.
often involves simply unlocking a door.
C.
is a skill commonly taught to EMTs.
D.
does not involve the breaking of glass.
involves forcible entry into a vehicle.
Once entrance and access to the patient have been provided, you should:
Select one:
A.
administer high-flow oxygen.
B.
allow extrication to commence.
C.
perform a primary assessment.
D.
begin treating his or her injuries
perform a primary assessment.
Situational awareness is most accurately defined as:
Select one:
A.
performing an initial scan of the scene to identify hazards that will pose an immediate threat to you and your crew.
B.
predicting the presence of certain hazards at the scene after receiving initial information from the dispatcher.
C.
an ongoing process of information gathering and scene evaluation to determine appropriate strategies and tactics.
D.
the ability to recognize any possible issues once you arrive at the scene and act proactively to avoid a negative impact.
the ability to recognize any possible issues once you arrive at the scene and act proactively to avoid a negative impact.
The EMT’s role at the scene of a search and rescue attempt is to:
Select one:
A.
stand by at the command post until the person is located.
B.
report to a location where the patient will be carried.
C.
accompany search team members and provide care.
D.
direct the search effort from a centralized location.
stand by at the command post until the person is located.
The reasons for rescue failure can be recalled by the mnemonic FAILURE. According to this mnemonic, the “U” stands for:
Select one:
A.
unprepared to effectively manage the scene.
B.
underutilizing personnel at the scene.
C.
underestimating the logistics of the incident.
D.
undertrained to correctly utilize equipment.
underestimating the logistics of the incident.
The scene size-up at a motor vehicle crash or other incident:
Select one:
A.
determines who is allowed to safely enter the hot zone.
B.
is an ongoing process until the incident is terminated.
C.
should be performed by the most experienced EMT.
D.
is a quick visual assessment of the scene prior to entry.
is an ongoing process until the incident is terminated.
A 49-year-old man has been removed from his overturned tanker, which was carrying a hazardous material. The tank ruptured, and he was exposed to the material. When rescue personnel bring him to the decontamination area, they note that he is unconscious and has slow, shallow breathing. They should:
Select one:
A.
cut away all of the patient’s clothing and do a rapid rinse to remove as much of the contaminating matter as they can.
B.
request that EMS personnel don standard precautions, enter the warm zone, and begin immediate treatment of the patient.
C.
decontaminate the patient as they would any other patient and then move him to the area where EMTs are waiting.
D.
defer the decontamination procedure and bring the patient directly to awaiting EMS personnel for immediate treatment.
cut away all of the patient’s clothing and do a rapid rinse to remove as much of the contaminating matter as they can.
A critical function of the safety officer is to:
Select one:
A.
stop an emergency operation whenever a rescuer is in danger.
B.
monitor emergency responders for signs of stress and anxiety.
C.
determine the most efficient approach to extricate a victim.
D.
brief responders during the demobilization phase of an incident.
stop an emergency operation whenever a rescuer is in danger.
A patient in respiratory arrest at the scene of a multiple-casualty incident would typically be classified as a fourth priority (black tag; expectant) patient, unless:
Select one:
A.
there are at least three other patients in respiratory arrest.
B.
he or she has external signs of severe thoracic trauma.
C.
he or she has signs of an injury to the cervical spine.
D.
there are enough resources to provide care for him or her.
there are enough resources to provide care for him or her.
A tour bus has overturned, resulting in numerous patients. When you arrive, you are immediately assigned to assist in the triage process. Patient 1 is a middle-aged male with respiratory distress, chest pain, and a closed deformity to his right forearm. Patient 2 is a young female who is conscious and alert but has bilateral femur fractures and numerous abrasions to her arms and face. Patient 3 is an older woman who complains of abdominal pain and has a history of cardiovascular disease. Patient 4 is unresponsive, is not breathing, has a weak carotid pulse, and has a grossly deformed skull. What triage categories should you assign to these patients?
A.
Patient 1, immediate (red); Patient 2, minimal (green); Patient 3, delayed (yellow); Patient 4, expectant (black)
B.
Patient 1, delayed (yellow); Patient 2, immediate (red); Patient 3, delayed (yellow); Patient 4, immediate (red)
C.
Patient 1, immediate (red); Patient 2, delayed (yellow); Patient 3, immediate (red); Patient 4, expectant (black)
D.
Patient 1, delayed (yellow); Patient 2, delayed (yellow); Patient 3, minimal (green); Patient 4, immediate (red)
C.
Patient 1, immediate (red); Patient 2, delayed (yellow); Patient 3, immediate (red); Patient 4, expectant (black)
A supervisor who has more than seven people reporting to him or her:
Select one:
A.
is more beneficial to the overall effort than a supervisor with fewer personnel because his or her team can accomplish more tasks.
B.
has exceeded an effective span of control and should divide tasks and delegate the supervision of some tasks to another person.
C.
should assign a specific task to each person reporting to him or her and regularly follow up to ensure that the tasks were carried out.
D.
should regularly report to the incident commander (IC) to inform him or her of the functions that his or her team is performing.
has exceeded an effective span of control and should divide tasks and delegate the supervision of some tasks to another person.
According to the JumpSTART triage system, infants or children not developed enough to walk or follow commands, including children with special needs:
Select one:
A.
are treated immediately in the primary triage area and then transported.
B.
should be taken to the treatment area for immediate secondary triage.
C.
are initially triaged on the basis of whether they have distal pulses.
D.
are the first to be transported, regardless of the severity of their injuries.
should be taken to the treatment area for immediate secondary triage.
According to the JumpSTART triage system, if a pediatric patient has a respiratory rate of 40 breaths/min, you should:
Select one:
A.
assess neurologic status.
B.
assign an immediate category.
C.
look for posturing.
D.
assess for a distal pulse.
assess for a distal pulse.
According to the START triage system, what should you do if a patient is found to have a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min?
Select one:
A.
Assess for bilateral radial pulses.
B.
Administer high-flow oxygen.
C.
Assess his or her neurologic status.
D.
Triage the patient as delayed.
Assess for bilateral radial pulses.
According to the START triage system, which of the following patients should be triaged as an immediate priority (red tag)?
Select one:
A.
Conscious, in severe pain, with radial pulses present
B.
Apneic, despite manually opening the airway
C.
Unresponsive with a respiratory rate of 34 breaths/min
D.
Conscious with a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min
Unresponsive with a respiratory rate of 34 breaths/min
After primary triage, the triage supervisor should communicate all of the following information to the medical branch officer, except:
Select one:
A.
recommendations for movement to the treatment area.
B.
the recommended transport destination for each patient.
C.
the number of patients that are in each triage category.
D.
the total number of patients that have been triaged.
the recommended transport destination for each patient.
As a triage supervisor, you:
Select one:
A.
must prepare patients for transport before they leave the triage area.
B.
should communicate with area hospitals regarding their capabilities.
C.
must not begin treatment until all patients have been triaged.
D.
are responsible for providing initial treatment to all patients.
must not begin treatment until all patients have been triaged.
At a very large incident, the __________ section is responsible for managing the tactical operations usually handled by the incident commander on routine EMS calls.
Select one:
A.
logistics
B.
operations
C.
planning
D.
finance
operations
As the first-arriving senior EMT at the scene of an incident, you should perform a scene size-up and then:
Select one:
A.
call for additional resources.
B.
establish command.
C.
begin the triage process.
D.
quickly identify the walking wounded.
establish command.
Burn patients without airway compromise and patients with multiple bone or joint injuries should be marked with a __________ triage tag at a mass-casualty incident.
Select one:
A.
green
B.
black
C.
yellow
D.
red
yellow
During a HazMat incident, you are working in the treatment area. As patients are removed from the danger zone, you should:
Select one:
A.
remain where you are and have the patients brought to you.
B.
quickly decontaminate the patients and begin assessing them.
C.
retrieve patients from the decontamination area and begin treatment.
D.
perform a rapid assessment and then have them decontaminated.
remain where you are and have the patients brought to you.
Following proper decontamination, a 30-year-old male is brought to you. He is semiconscious and has rapid, shallow respirations. A quick visual assessment reveals no obvious bleeding. You should:
Select one:
A.
administer high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.
B.
ask a firefighter what the patient was exposed to.
C.
begin some form of positive-pressure ventilation.
D.
perform a rapid assessment to locate critical injuries.
begin some form of positive-pressure ventilation.
General principles for approaching a potential HazMat incident include:
Select one:
A.
parking the ambulance in a location that is upwind and downhill.
B.
taking standard precautions before entering any HazMat scene.
C.
maintaining a safe distance and viewing the scene with binoculars.
D.
asking for wind direction from dispatch and entering downwind.
asking for wind direction from dispatch and entering downwind.
Injuries or conditions that would be classified as first priority (red tag; immediate) include all of the following, except:
Select one:
A.
any airway or breathing difficulty.
B.
severe medical problems.
C.
fractures of multiple long bones.
D.
uncontrolled or severe hemorrhage.
fractures of multiple long bones.
Level _____ hazardous materials would cause irritation on contact but only mild residual injury, even without treatment.
Select one:
A.
2
B.
0
C.
3
D.
1
1
Placards and labels on a storage container are intended to:
Select one:
A.
provide specific information about the chemical being carried.
B.
broadly classify chemicals as being explosive or nonexplosive.
C.
give a general idea of the hazard inside that particular container.
D.
advise responders of the appropriate neutralizing measures.
give a general idea of the hazard inside that particular container.
A 52-year-old male presents with a fever of 102.5°F and a severe headache. As you assess him, you note the presence of multiple blisters on his face and chest, which are all identical in shape and size. This patient’s clinical presentation is most consistent with:
Select one:
A.
cutaneous anthrax.
B.
yellow fever virus.
C.
sarin toxicity.
D.
smallpox.
smallpox
After eating at a local restaurant, a 20-year-old male complains of blurred vision, difficulty speaking, and difficulty breathing. He is conscious; however, his respirations are profoundly labored and producing minimal tidal volume. You should:
Select one:
A.
apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.
B.
position him supine and elevate his legs.
C.
request a paramedic to administer atropine.
D.
assist his ventilations with high-flow oxygen.
assist his ventilations with high-flow oxygen
All of the following are vesicant agents, except:
Select one:
A.
phosgene oxime.
B.
sarin.
C.
lewisite.
D.
sulfur mustard.
sarin
All of the following biologic agents or diseases can be transmitted from person to person, except:
Select one:
A.
viral hemorrhagic fevers.
B.
smallpox.
C.
ricin.
D.
pneumonic plague.
ricin
As the first arriving emergency responder at the scene of a suspected terrorist or weapon of mass destruction incident, you should request additional resources as needed and then:
Select one:
A.
carefully inspect the area for the presence of secondary explosive devices.
B.
function as the incident commander until additional personnel arrive.
C.
remain where you are until additional ambulances arrive at the scene.
D.
direct your partner to begin triaging patients as you call medical control.
function as the incident commander until additional personnel arrive.
As you and your partner report for duty, you check your ambulance and begin talking about the possibility of a terrorist attack. The most effective and appropriate way to determine the likelihood of this happening is to:
Select one:
A.
know the current threat level issued by the Department of Homeland Security.
B.
check with local businesses to see if they have received any terrorist threats.
C.
ask your immediate supervisor if he or she has been watching the local news.
D.
ascertain the current situation overseas regarding the number of casualties.
know the current threat level issued by the Department of Homeland Security.
At present, the likelihood of a nuclear attack against the United States is very low because:
Select one:
A.
the United States has an effective early warning system to detect an incoming nuclear missile.
B.
other than the United States, no other countries are currently in possession of nuclear weapons.
C.
all nuclear devices or weapons that different countries are in possession of are currently accounted for.
D.
terrorist nations do not have the ability to deliver a nuclear weapon via missile or bomb.
terrorist nations do not have the ability to deliver a nuclear weapon via missile or bomb.
Botulinum is:
Select one:
A.
a potent bacterial neurotoxin.
B.
rarely associated with death.
C.
an acute viral infection.
D.
a disease of the leukocytes.
a potent bacterial neurotoxin
Continual reassessment of the scene at a suspected terrorist or weapon of mass destruction incident is most important because:
Select one:
A.
weather conditions might change quickly.
B.
bystanders might destroy the evidence.
C.
terrorists are often at the scene after an attack.
D.
a secondary explosive device might detonate.
a secondary explosive device might detonate.
Early signs and symptoms of smallpox include all of the following, except:
Select one:
A.
body aches.
B.
skin blisters.
C.
headaches.
D.
high fever.
skin blisters
Exposure to _________ would most likely result in immediate respiratory distress.
Select one:
A.
lewisite
B.
tabun
C.
chlorine
D.
soman
chlorine
In determining the potential for a terrorist attack, you should routinely observe all of the following on every call, except:
Select one:
A.
weather conditions.
B.
the type of call.
C.
victim’s statements.
D.
the location type.
weather conditions
Multiple people in a small town began experiencing abdominal cramps, excessive salivation and urination, and muscle twitching shortly after a small crop duster plane made several passes over the community. As you are assessing the patients, you further determine that most of them are bradycardic and have miosis. In addition to high-flow oxygen, the most appropriate treatment for these patients includes:
Select one:
A.
activated charcoal and glucose.
B.
atropine and pralidoxime chloride.
C.
amyl nitrate and naloxone.
D.
epinephrine and hyperbaric oxygen.
atropine and pralidoxime chloride.
Initial signs and symptoms associated with viral hemorrhagic fevers include:
Select one:
A.
joint pain and unequal pupils.
B.
headache and sore throat.
C.
acute onset of double vision.
D.
severe abdominal muscle spasms.
headache and sore throat
Nerve agents were first discovered while in search of a superior:
Select one:
A.
detergent.
B.
pesticide.
C.
vaccine.
D.
antibiotic.
pesticide
Pulmonary hemorrhage and inner ear damage are examples of __________ blast injuries.
Select one:
A.
miscellaneous
B.
tertiary
C.
primary
D.
secondary
primary
Signs and symptoms of exposure to a nerve agent include:
Select one:
A.
salivation, pinpoint pupils, and diarrhea.
B.
dry mouth, dilated pupils, and headache.
C.
hypertension and severe pulmonary edema.
D.
tachycardia, flushed skin, and unequal pupils.
salivation, pinpoint pupils, and diarrhea
Symptoms of both inhaled and ingested ricin include:
Select one:
A.
joint pain and bradycardia.
B.
dehydration and convulsions.
C.
liver necrosis and diarrhea.
D.
fever and headache.
fever and headache
The EMT should expect that a patient who was exposed to cyanide will have:
Select one:
A.
an abnormally slow pulse rate.
B.
an abnormally slow respiratory rate.
C.
a normal pulse oximetry reading.
D.
skin that is cherry red and hot.
a normal pulse oximetry reading.
The incubation period for Ebola can be up to:
Select one:
A.
72 hours.
B.
6 months.
C.
21 days.
D.
1 week.
21 days
During your assessment of a patient with blunt chest trauma, you note that the patient has shallow breathing and paradoxical movement of the left chest wall. You should:
Select one:
A.
assist ventilations with a bag valve mask.
B.
make note of it and continue your assessment.
C.
request a paramedic to decompress the chest.
D.
apply high-flow oxygen via nonrebreathing mask.
assist ventilations with a bag valve mask.
Following a stab wound to the left anterior chest, a 25-year-old male presents with a decreased level of consciousness and signs of shock. Which of the following additional assessment findings should increase your index of suspicion for a cardiac tamponade?
Select one:
A.
Widening pulse pressure
B.
Diminished breath sounds
C.
Engorged jugular veins
D.
A rapid, irregular pulse
Engorged jugular veins
Following blunt trauma to the chest, an 18-year-old female presents with respiratory distress, shallow breathing, and cyanosis. Her blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg and her pulse is 130 beats/min and thready. You should:
Select one:
A.
place her supine and elevate her lower extremities.
B.
provide ventilation assistance with a bag valve mask.
C.
perform a rapid head-to-toe physical assessment.
D.
apply 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.
provide ventilation assistance with a bag valve mask.
While jogging, a 19-year-old male experienced an acute onset of shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. He is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. Your assessment reveals that he has diminished breath sounds over the left side of the chest. You should:
Select one:
A.
recognize that he needs a needle decompression.
B.
administer oxygen and transport to the hospital.
C.
circumferentially tape a dressing around his chest.
D.
immediately perform a rapid head-to-toe exam.
administer oxygen and transport to the hospital.
You are transporting a stable patient with a possible pneumothorax. The patient is receiving high-flow oxygen and has an oxygen saturation of 95%. During your reassessment, you find that the patient is now confused, hypotensive, and profusely diaphoretic. What is most likely causing this patient’s deterioration?
Select one:
A.
A total collapse of the affected lung
B.
Blood accumulation in the pleural space
C.
Compression of the aorta and vena cava
D.
Hidden bleeding in the thoracic cavity
Compression of the aorta and vena cava
You arrive at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash. The patient, a 50-year-old female, was removed from her vehicle prior to your arrival. Bystanders who removed her state that she was not wearing a seatbelt. The patient is unresponsive, tachycardic, and diaphoretic. Your assessment reveals bilaterally clear and equal breath sounds, a midline trachea, and collapsed jugular veins. You should be most suspicious that this patient has experienced a:
Select one:
A.
massive hemothorax.
B.
laceration of the aorta.
C.
tension pneumothorax.
D.
pericardial tamponade.
laceration of the aorta.
You have sealed the open chest wound of a 40-year-old male who was stabbed in the anterior chest. Your reassessment reveals that he is experiencing increasing respiratory distress and tachycardia, and is developing cyanosis. You should:
Select one:
A.
begin rapid transport at once.
B.
begin ventilatory assistance.
C.
call for a paramedic ambulance.
D.
partially remove the dressing.
partially remove the dressing.
A flail chest occurs when:
Select one:
A.
more than three ribs are fractured on the same side of the chest.
B.
multiple ribs are fractured on both sides of the thoracic cage.
C.
a segment of fractured ribs bulges during the inhalation phase.
D.
a segment of the chest wall is detached from the thoracic cage.
a segment of the chest wall is detached from the thoracic cage.
A patient who presents with profound cyanosis following a chest injury:
Select one:
A.
is most likely experiencing severe blood loss.
B.
should be placed in Trendelenburg’s position.
C.
requires prompt ventilation and oxygenation.
D.
has most likely experienced a ruptured aorta.
requires prompt ventilation and oxygenation.
A rapid, irregular pulse following blunt trauma to the chest is most suggestive of a:
Select one:
A.
ruptured aorta.
B.
pericardial tamponade.
C.
myocardial contusion.
D.
tension pneumothorax
myocardial contusion
A simple pneumothorax:
Select one:
A.
is caused by penetrating chest trauma.
B.
often has a nontraumatic cause.
C.
is commonly caused by blunt chest trauma.
D.
heals on its own without any treatment.
is commonly caused by blunt chest trauma.
An open pneumothorax is:
Select one:
A.
a fractured rib that perforates the tissue of the lung surface.
B.
an open chest wound through which air moves during breathing.
C.
the entry of air into the pleural space from a perforated lung.
D.
extreme pleural pressure that causes the lung to rupture.
an open chest wound through which air moves during breathing.
Elevation of the rib cage during inhalation occurs when:
Select one:
A.
intrathoracic pressure decreases.
B.
abdominal contents descend.
C.
the intercostal muscles contract.
D.
the diaphragm descends.
the intercostal muscles contract.
Hemoptysis is defined as:
Select one:
A.
vomiting blood.
B.
abnormal blood clotting.
C.
blood in the pleural space.
D.
coughing up blood.
coughing up blood
If a patient with a chest injury only inhales small amounts of air per breath, he or she:
Select one:
A.
must increase his or her respiratory rate to maintain adequate minute volume.
B.
often breathes at a slower rate because of lung damage caused by the injury.
C.
will eliminate more carbon dioxide than if he or she were breathing deeply.
D.
will maintain adequate minute volume if his or her respiratory rate stays the same.
must increase his or her respiratory rate to maintain adequate minute volume.
If a person’s tidal volume decreases, but his or her respiratory rate remains unchanged:
Select one:
A.
excess carbon dioxide will be eliminated.
B.
minute volume will remain unchanged.
C.
minute volume will increase.
D.
minute volume will decrease.
minute volume will decrease
Irritation or damage to the pleural surfaces that causes sharp chest pain during inhalation is called:
Select one:
A.
pleurisy.
B.
dyspnea.
C.
pneumothorax.
D.
pneumonitis.
pleurisy
Patients with rib fractures will commonly:
Select one:
A.
prefer to lie in a supine position.
B.
breathe rapidly and shallowly.
C.
develop a sucking chest wound.
D.
take a series of deep breaths.
breathe rapidly and shallowly
Pneumothorax is defined as:
Select one:
A.
blood collection within the pleural space.
B.
accumulation of air between the lungs.
C.
blood collection within the lung tissue.
D.
accumulation of air in the pleural space.
accumulation of air in the pleural space.
Signs and symptoms of a tension pneumothorax include all of the following, except:
Select one:
A.
collapsed jugular veins.
B.
profound cyanosis.
C.
unilaterally absent breath sounds.
D.
altered mental status.
collapsed jugular veins.
Subcutaneous emphysema is an indication that:
Select one:
A.
air is escaping into the chest wall from a damaged lung.
B.
blood is slowly accumulating within the tissue of the lung.
C.
at least half of one lung has completely collapsed.
D.
your patient is experiencing a pericardial tamponade.
air is escaping into the chest wall from a damaged lung.
The ________ nerves supply the diaphragm.
Select one:
A.
costal
B.
phrenic
C.
vagus
D.
intercostal
phrenic
A 22-year-old male was kicked in the abdomen several times. You find him lying on his left side with his knees drawn up. He is conscious and alert and complains of increased pain and nausea when he tries to straighten his legs. His blood pressure is 142/82 mm Hg, his pulse rate is 110 beats/min and strong, and his respirations are 22 breaths/min and regular. In addition to administering high-flow oxygen, you should:
Select one:
A.
place him supine but allow him to keep his knees bent.
B.
transport him in the position in which you found him.
C.
keep him on his side but gently straighten his legs.
D.
apply full spinal motion restriction precautions.
transport him in the position in which you found him.
A 40-year-old male presents with severe abdominal pain after blunt trauma. He is diaphoretic, intensely thirsty, and has a weak and rapid pulse. Appropriate treatment for this patient includes all of the following, except:
Select one:
A.
promptly transporting him to the hospital.
B.
covering him with a warm blanket.
C.
giving him small sips of plain water.
D.
administering supplemental oxygen.
giving him small sips of plain water.
A 54-year-old male experienced an avulsion to his penis when his foreskin got caught in the zipper of his pants. He was able to unzip his pants and remove the foreskin prior to your arrival. Your assessment reveals that he is in severe pain and that the avulsion is bleeding moderately. The most appropriate treatment for this patient includes:
Select one:
A.
applying direct pressure with a dry, sterile dressing.
B.
administering 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.
C.
covering the avulsion with moist, sterile dressings.
D.
requesting a paramedic to administer pain medication.
applying direct pressure with a dry, sterile dressing.
A man has a large laceration across his lower abdominal wall and a loop of bowel is protruding from the wound. He is conscious and alert and there is minimal bleeding from the wound. You should:
Select one:
A.
cover the bowel with a dry sterile dressing, elevate his lower extremities, and cover him with a blanket.
B.
cover the exposed bowel with a moist sterile dressing and then secure it in place with a dry bandage.
C.
gently irrigate the exposed bowel with sterile saline and then cover the wound with a dry sterile dressing.
D.
make one attempt to replace the bowel back into the abdomen and then cover the wound with a sterile dressing.
cover the exposed bowel with a moist sterile dressing and then secure it in place with a dry bandage.
An unresponsive trauma patient has a large open abdominal wound with massive external bleeding. You should:
Select one:
A.
apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.
B.
ventilate the patient with a bag-mask device.
C.
open the patient’s airway.
D.
apply direct pressure to the wound.
apply direct pressure to the wound.
While assessing a 21-year-old female who struck a tree head-on with her small passenger car, you note that her airbag deployed. You should:
Select one:
A.
perform a head-to-toe assessment while she is in the car.
B.
carefully assess her upper chest for seatbelt-related injuries.
C.
lift the airbag and look for deformity to the steering wheel.
D.
extricate her immediately and transport to a trauma center.
lift the airbag and look for deformity to the steering wheel.
You are dispatched to a residence for a young female who was kicked in the abdomen. While en route to the scene, you should ask the dispatcher if:
Select one:
A.
there are other patients involved.
B.
the patient is conscious.
C.
law enforcement is at the scene.
D.
the severity of the injury is known.
law enforcement is at the scene.
You are transporting a 42-year-old male who experienced blunt abdominal trauma. He is receiving oxygen at 12 L/min via a nonrebreathing mask, and full spinal precautions have been applied. During your reassessment, you note his level of consciousness has decreased and his respirations have become shallow. You should:
Select one:
A.
suction his oropharynx to ensure it is clear of secretions and then increase the oxygen flow rate to 15 L/min.
B.
perform a comprehensive secondary assessment to determine why his clinical status has changed.
C.
reassess his vital signs and then notify the receiving hospital of the change in his clinical status.
D.
insert an airway adjunct if he will tolerate it and begin assisting his ventilations with a bag valve mask.
insert an airway adjunct if he will tolerate it and begin assisting his ventilations with a bag valve mask.
You are transporting a patient with blunt abdominal trauma. The patient is unstable and is experiencing obvious signs and symptoms of shock. Your estimated time of arrival at the hospital is less than 10 minutes. After treating the patient appropriately, you should:
Select one:
A.
begin documenting the call on the patient care form.
B.
forgo the hospital radio report because of his condition.
C.
perform a comprehensive secondary assessment.
D.
closely monitor him and reassess him frequently.
closely monitor him and reassess him frequently.
Your presence is requested by law enforcement to assess a 33-year-old female who was sexually assaulted. The patient is conscious and obviously upset. As you are talking to her, you note an impressive amount of blood on her clothes in the groin area. Her blood pressure is 98/58 mm Hg, her pulse is 130 beats/min, and her respirations are 24 breaths/min. You should:
Select one:
A.
allow her to change her clothes and take a shower before you transport.
B.
control any external bleeding, administer oxygen, and transport at once.
C.
visualize the vaginal area and pack the vagina with sterile dressings.
D.
arrange for a rape crisis center representative to speak with the patient.
control any external bleeding, administer oxygen, and transport at once.
A sign of kidney damage after blunt trauma is:
Select one:
A.
hemoptysis.
B.
hematuria.
C.
hematochezia.
D.
hematemesis.
hematuria
Accumulation of blood in the abdominal cavity will most likely cause:
Select one:
A.
diffuse bruising.
B.
referred pain.
C.
nausea or vomiting.
D.
distention.
distention
All of the following are hollow abdominal organs, except the:
Select one:
A.
ureters.
B.
stomach.
C.
bladder.
D.
spleen.
spleen
Because the depth of an open abdominal wound is often difficult to determine:
Select one:
A.
the EMT must perform a thorough exam.
B.
prompt transport to the hospital is essential.
C.
the abdomen must be vigorously palpated.
D.
vital signs should be monitored frequently.
prompt transport to the hospital is essential.
Bruising to the right upper quadrant of the abdomen after blunt trauma is most suggestive of injury to the:
Select one:
A.
liver.
B.
kidney.
C.
spleen.
D.
stomach.
liver
Compression injuries to the abdomen that occur during a motor vehicle crash are typically the result of:
Select one:
A.
failure to wear seat belts.
B.
rapid vehicle deceleration.
C.
a poorly placed lap belt.
D.
airbag deployment.
a poorly placed lap belt
Contraction or tensing of the abdominal muscles to ease pain is called:
Select one:
A.
guarding.
B.
flexing.
C.
withdrawing.
D.
referring.
guarding
Difficulty breathing and a sunken appearance of the anterior abdominal wall is most indicative of a ruptured:
Select one:
A.
aorta.
B.
stomach.
C.
spleen.
D.
diaphragm.
diaphragm
During your assessment of a patient who experienced blunt trauma to the abdomen, you notice bruising around the umbilicus. This is a sign of:
Select one:
A.
rupture of a hollow organ.
B.
a severe liver laceration.
C.
intra-abdominal bleeding.
D.
a ruptured spleen.
intra-abdominal bleeding.
Early bruising following abdominal trauma often manifests as:
Select one:
A.
dark purple marks.
B.
gross distention.
C.
localized pain.
D.
red areas of skin.
red areas of skin
Peritonitis usually occurs when:
Select one:
A.
bacteria or viruses invade the walls of the gastrointestinal tract.
B.
solid abdominal organs bleed secondary to penetrating trauma.
C.
hollow abdominal organs are damaged and spill their contents.
D.
the vessels that supply the abdominal organs become inflamed.
hollow abdominal organs are damaged and spill their contents.
Placing a pregnant patient in a supine position during the third trimester of pregnancy:
Select one:
A.
results in spontaneous urinary incontinence if the bladder is full.
B.
often causes hypotension secondary to cardiac compression.
C.
might decrease the amount of blood that returns to the heart.
D.
is recommended if the patient has severe abdominal discomfort.
might decrease the amount of blood that returns to the heart.
The mesentery is:
Select one:
A.
a layer of thick skeletal muscles that protects the abdominal organs.
B.
a complex network of blood vessels that supply blood to the liver.
C.
a membranous fold that attaches the intestines to the walls of the body.
D.
the point of attachment between the small and large intestines.
a membranous fold that attaches the intestines to the walls of the body.
The presence of tachycardia following a significant abdominal injury:
Select one:
A.
is always accompanied by hypotension.
B.
indicates a state of decompensated shock.
C.
should be assumed to be a sign of shock.
D.
is most commonly caused by severe pain.
should be assumed to be a sign of shock.
When a hollow organ is punctured during a penetrating injury to the abdomen:
Select one:
A.
it commonly protrudes through the injury site.
B.
peritonitis might not develop for several hours.
C.
it will bleed profusely and rapidly cause shock.
D.
the abdomen will become instantly distended.
peritonitis might not develop for several hours.
