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REM C LVL 3 Flashcards

1
Q

External forces directly affect all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Management structure of organization
B. Market segmentation strategies
C. Types of products/services offered
D. Choice of businesses to acquire or sell

A

A. Management structure of organization

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2
Q

______ are instances when engineer managers make decisions that will have implications in the future.

A. Forecasting
B. Network Models
C. Inventory Models
D. Queuing Theory

A

A. Forecasting

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3
Q

Management must foster the morale of its employees. This principle emphasizes on the need for teamwork and the importance of communication in obtaining it.

A. Equity
B. Order
C. Initiative
D. Esprit de corps

A

D. Esprit de corps

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4
Q

What does PERT stands for?

A. Product Evaluation Review Technique
B. Price Evaluation Review Technique
C. People Evaluation Review Technique
D. Program Evaluation Review Technique

A

D. Program Evaluation Review Technique

Program Evaluation Review Technique (PERT) is a technique that enables engineer managers to schedule, monitor, and control large and complex projects by employing three time estimates for each activity.

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5
Q

A staff specialist’s right to give advice to a superior.

A. Line authority
B. Head authority
C. Functional authority
D. Staff authority

A

D. Staff authority

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6
Q

What is the most widely used chart in management of scheduling and controlling of projects?

A. CPM
B. Gantt Chart
C. Smith Chart
D. PERT

A

B. Gantt Chart

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7
Q

It is determining the scope of work and how it is combined in a job.

A. Division of labor
B. Departmentation
C. Span of control
D. Delegation of authority

A

A. Division of labor

Division of labor - determining the scope of work and how it is combined in a job

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8
Q

The linking of activities in the organization that serves to achieve a common goal or objective.

A. Division of labor
B. Delegation of authority
C. Departmentation
D. Coordination

A

D. Coordination

Coordination linking of activities in the organization that serves to achieve a common goal or objective

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9
Q

What network model enables engineer managers to schedule, monitor, and control large and complex projects by employing three time estimate for each activity?

A. Program Evaluation Review Technique (PERT)
B. Life Cycle Model
C. Critical Path Method (CPM)
D. Forecasting

A

A. Program Evaluation Review Technique (PERT)

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10
Q

To determine a qualified applicant, the engineer manager will subject the applicant to a test that is used to measure a person’s current knowledge of a project?

A. personality test
B. aptitude test
C. interest test
D. performance test

A

D. performance test

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11
Q

The process of assigning various degrees of decision-making authority to subordinate.

A. Departmentation
B. Span of control
C. Delegation of authority
D. Division of labor

A

C. Delegation of authority

Delegation of authority - process of assigning various degrees of decision-making authority to subordinate

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12
Q

A specialist’s right to oversee lower level personnel involved in that specialty, regardless of where the personnel are in the organization.

A. Head authority
B. Staff authority
C. Functional authority
D. Line authority

A

C. Functional authority

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13
Q

It implies an understanding of proficiency in a specific kind of activity, particularly one involving methods, processes, procedures or techniques.

A. Managerial skill
B. Human skill
C. Technical skill
D. Conceptual skill

A

C. Technical skill

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14
Q

_______is an inventory model used for planned shortages.

A. Quantity discount model
B. Economic order quantity model
C. Back order inventory model
D. Production order quantity model

A

C. Back order inventory model

Back order inventory model - an
inventory model used for planned shortages

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15
Q

Which of the following is not a content of the production plan?

A. How much material must be purchased
B. Situational analysis and target market
C. How many employees are required
D. The amount of capacity the company must have

A

B. Situational analysis and target market

Situational analysis and target market is a content for the marketing plan.

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16
Q

Models where large complex tasks are broken into smaller segments that can be managed independently.

A. Queuing Theory
B. Inventory Models
C. Network Models
D. Forecasting

A

C. Network Models

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17
Q

This describes how to determine the number of services units that will minimize both customer waiting time and cost of service.

A. Forecasting
B. Queuing Theory
C. Network Models
D. Inventory Models

A

B. Queuing Theory

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18
Q

FOX Company has a ratio of (total debt/total assets) that is above the industry average, and a ratio of (long term debt/equity) that is below the industry average. These ratios suggest that the firm:

A. utilizes assets effectively
B. has a relatively low dividend payout ratio
C. has too much equity in the capital structure
D. has relatively high current liabilities

A

D. has relatively high current liabilities

Total debt includes both current and long-term debt; the above relationships could occur only if FOX Company has a higher-than- average level of current liabilities.

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19
Q

What is the Unit of Production Method?

A. The amount of depreciation each year is fixed and equal.
B. System of recording larger depreciation expenses during the earlier years.
C. Way to work out the loss of value of an asset over time.
D. Method of calculating the depreciation of the value of an asset over time.

A

D. Method of calculating the depreciation if the value of an asset over time.

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20
Q

The ratio of quick assets to current liabilities is known as the:

A. profit margin
B. acid-test ratio
C. net margin
D. debt

A

B. acid-test ratio

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21
Q

What is Capital Market?

A. A market structure is defined by a large number of small firms competing against each other.
B. Market in which securities are bought and sold.
C. A financial market in which long- term debt or equity-backed securities are bought and sold.
D. Entrepreneurs in one country copy an existing market.

A

C. A financial market in which long- term debt or equity-backed securities are bought and sold.

Capital business sectors are the place where reserve funds and ventures are diverted between providers-individuals or establishments with cash-flow to loan or contribute-and those out of luck.

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22
Q

Raising more money than profitable used causes?

A. Capitalization
B. Over-Capitalization
C. Excess Share Capital
D. Dividend

A

B. Over-Capitalization

Over-capitalization results from raising more money than can be profitably used. Over- capitalization takes place when a company raises more money by the issue of shares and debentures than can be profitably used.

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23
Q

What refers to the additional cost that results from increasing the output of a system and is often associated with a “go-no-go” decisions?

A. variable cost
B. fixed cost
C. incremental cost
D. opportunity cost

A

C. incremental cost

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24
Q

What is Objectivity Principle?

A. The concept that the financial statements of an organization
B. The underlying accounting principle that the dollar will remain constant across fiscal periods
C. Accounting principle for recording revenues and expenses
D. Every business transaction requires recordation in two different accounts

A

A. The concept that the financial statements of an organization

The objectivity principle is the idea that the financial reports of an association be founded on strong proof. The purpose behind this rule is to keep the supervisory group and the bookkeeping division of a substance from delivering budget reports that are skewed by their viewpoints and predispositions.

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25
Q

Which of the following would best explain a situation where the ratio of (net income/total equity) of a firm is higher than the industry average, while the ratio of (net income/total assets) is lower than the industry average?

A. The firm’s debt ratio is higher than the industry average.
B. The firm’s equity multiplier must be lower than the industry average.
C. The firm’s asset turnover is higher than the industry average.
D. The firm’s net profit margin is higher than the industry average.

A

A. The firm’s debt ratio is higher than the industry average.

Assets are financed either by debt or equity. The situation described above could occur only if the firm is financing more assets with debt than are industry competitors.

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26
Q

In exchange for hosting a platform for business to be conducted, the ______ receives compensation.

A. Bundling
B. Freemium
C. Marketplace
D. Affiliate

A

C. Marketplace

Marketplaces are somewhat straight-forward: in exchange for hosting a platform for business to be conducted, the marketplace receives compensation. Although transactions could occur without a marketplace, this business models attempts to make transacting easier, safer, and faster.

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27
Q

________ is responsible for sourcing raw materials and producing finished products by leveraging internal labor, machinery, and equipment.

A. Retailer
B. Subscription
C. Manufacturer
D. Fee-of-service

A

C. Manufacturer

A manufacturer is responsible for sourcing raw materials and producing finished products by leveraging internal labor, machinery, and equipment. A manufacturer may make custom goods or highly replicated, mass- produced products. A manufacturer can also sell goods to distributors, retailers, or directly to customers.

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28
Q

A patent is granted for a specified amount of time because of the assumption:

A. That during this time firm will cover its development costs
B. That firm will earn a sufficient profit during this period
C. To limit the monopoly of the firm
D. That it will stimulate idea and development of a better product

A

D. That it will stimulate idea and development of a better product

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29
Q

How can a member resign from a cooperative society?

A. Withdrawing his capital
B. Transferring his share to another person
C. Transfer his shares to a fellow member.
D. None of these choices

A

A. Withdrawing his capital

A member of a co-operative society can leave the society by withdrawing his capital from the society.

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30
Q

_______ business models attract customers by introducing them to basic, limited-scope products.

A. Marketplace
B. Bundling
C. Affiliate
D. Freemium

A

D. Freemium

Freemium business models attract customers by introducing them to basic, limited-scope products. Then, with the client using their service, the company attempts to convert them to a more premium, advance product that requires payment. Although a customer may theoretically stay on freemium forever, a company tries to show the benefit of what becoming an upgraded member can hold.

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31
Q

Which of the following is not one of the criteria of the behavioural segmentation base used for consumer markets?

A. Media usage
B. Consumption
C. Life stage
D. Product usage

A

C. Life stage

The behavioural segmentation base
consists of the following criteria:
purchase/transaction; consumption/
usage; product usage; media usage.

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32
Q

To be effective, the process of market segmentation must meet which of the following basic requirements?

A. The market segment must reflect the population’s changing attitudes and lifestyles.
B. The firm must avoid focusing on non-
variables such as profitability and volume.
C. The market segment must have
measurable purchasing power and size.
D. The company must expand beyond its
marketing capabilities to capture growing
markets.

A

C. The market segment must have
measurable purchasing power and size.

To evaluate market segments uses a rating approach for different segment attractiveness factors, such as market growth, segment profitability, segment size, competitive intensity within the segment, and the cyclical nature of the
industry (e.g. whether or not the
business is seasonal).

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33
Q

The operations strategy which refers to service firms distributing their products in many different forms and places is called

A. Ubiquitization
B. Servitization
C. Globalization
D. Mass customization

A

A. Ubiquitization

The operations strategy which refers to service firms distributing their products in many different forms and places is
called Ubiquitization

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34
Q

To segment consumer good and service markets we use market information we have collected classified as segmentation bases. These bases
include profile, behavioural, and psychological criteria. Examples of profile criteria include

A. media usage, transaction history, age, and
geographics.
B. demographic, life stage, geographic,
and geo-demographic criteria.
C. gender, age, occupation, life stage, and
benefits sought criteria.
D. occupation, income, product usage, and
lifestyle (psychographics).

A

B. demographic, life stage, geographic,
and geo-demographic criteria.

Gender, age and occupation are
examples of profile criteria;

life stage and benefits sought are examples of psychological criteria.

Occupation and incomes are examples of profile criteria;

product usage is an example of
behavioural criteria and

lifestyle is an example of psychological criteria.

Media usage and transaction history are
examples of behavioural criteria;

age and geographics are examples of profile
criteria.

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35
Q

Set of forces and conditions that
originate with suppliers, customers and
competitors.

A. General environment
B. External environment
C. Task Environment
D. Internal environment

A

C. Task Environment

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36
Q

The value of what should be done and
what should not be done for the
business point of view.

A. Unitarian view of ethics
B. Business Ethics
C. Separatist view of ethics
D. Integrated view of ethics

A

B. Business Ethics

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37
Q

What refers to the rational way to
conceptualize, analyze and solve
problems in situations involving limited
information about the decision
environment?

A. Simulation
B. Sampling theory
C. Decision theory
D. Queuing theory

A

C. Decision theory

38
Q

What describes how to determine the
number of service unit that will
minimize both customer’s waiting time
and cost of service?

A. Sampling theory
B. Queuing theory
C. Waterfall model
D. Network model

A

B. Queuing theory

39
Q

What contains the rules regarding the
activities of a company?

A. Article of Association
B. Memorandum of Association
C. None of these choices
D. Partnership Deed

A

B. Memorandum of Association

A Memorandum of association of a firm
contains rules regarding the
constitution and activities of the
company. A Memorandum of
Association (MOA) is a legal document
that specifies the scope of business
activities of the company and
information about the shareholding of
the company.

40
Q

Partnership Firm Agreement is known
as?

A. Agreement
B. Partnership Contract
C. Partnership Deed
D. Partnership Act

A

C. Partnership Deed

A partnership deed is an understanding between the accomplices of a firm that traces the agreements of association
among the accomplices. It indicates the
different terms like benefit/misfortune
sharing, pay, interest on capital,drawings, affirmation of another accomplice.

41
Q

Create a customer is a valid definition
of?

A. Factory Purpose
B. Entrepreneur
C. Business Purpose
D. None of these choices

A

C. Business Purpose

A valid definition of a business purpose
is to Create a customer. The customer
is a foundation of a business and keeps
it in existence.

42
Q

_ is a time draft drawn by a seller
upon a purchase payable to the seller as payee and accepted by the purchaser as evidence that the goods shipped are
satisfactory and that the price is due
and payable.

A. None of these choices
B. Promissory note
C. Trade acceptance
D. Trade creditors

A

C. Trade acceptance

Trade creditors refers to suppliers
extending credit to a buyer for use in
marketing, processing, or reselling
goods for profit.

The trade acceptance is a time draft
drawn by a seller upon a purchase payable to the seller as payee and accepted by the purchaser as evidence that the goods shipped are satisfactory and that the price is due and payable.

A promissory note is an unconditional promise in writing made by one person to another, signed by the maker, engaging to pay, on demand or at a fixed or determinable future time.

43
Q

What factor is used in selecting a target
market?

A. The number of competitors serving the
market
B. The size of the market
C. None of these choices
D. Both of these choices

A

D. Both of these choices

Both factors are taken into
consideration when selecting a target
market.

44
Q

An unconditional promise in writing
made by one person to another, signed
by the maker, engaging to pay, on
demand or at a fixed or determinable
future time is called

A. Trade creditors
B. None of these choices
C. Promissory note
D. Trade acceptance

A

C. Promissory note

Trade creditors refers to suppliers
extending credit to a buyer for use in
marketing, processing, or reselling
goods for profit.

The trade acceptance is a time draft
drawn by a seller upon a purchase payable to the seller as payee and accepted by the purchaser as evidence that the goods shipped are satisfactory and that the price is due and payable.

A promissory note is an unconditional promise in writing made by one person to another, signed by the maker, engaging to pay, on demand or at a fixed or determinable future time.

45
Q

If multiple inheritance is implemented,
which upcasting will be correct?

A. Upcast to any base class
B. Upcast to send base class listed in
inheritance
C. Upcast is not possible
D. Upcast to first base class listed in
inheritance

A

A. Upcast to any base class

The upcasting of derived class object is
possible to any base class. This is
because the base class object can represent any of its derived classes using upcasting.

46
Q

What is called when an object is created
in Perl?

A. Constructor
B. Variable
C. Destructor
D. All of these choices

A

D. All of these choices

The constructor of a class is the first subroutine to be called when an object of that class is initiated.

47
Q

Perl Programming language is

A. General purpose programming language
B. All of these choices
C. High-level interpreted programming
language
D. Dynamic programming language

A

B. All of these choices

Perl is a general-purpose, high-level
interpreted, and dynamic programming
language.

48
Q

What is the standard i/o header file in
which Input/output functions are
declared?

A. stdio.h
B. stdlib.h
C. string.h
D. conio.h

A

A. stdio.h

stdio.h - This is is the standard i/o
header file in which Input/output
functions are declared

conio.h - This is the console input/
output header file

string.h - All string related functions are
defined in this header file

stdlib.h -This header file contains
general functions

math.h -All maths related functions are
defined in this header file

49
Q

If two index are given as argument to
substring function then

A. String starting from first index and
ending at second index position
B. String starting from first index and of
length equal to send argument
C. String starting from first index and of
length equal to sum of two arguments
D. String of length equal to sum of two
arguments is returned

A

A. String starting from first index and
ending at second index position

A value of string type is returned from this function. The returned string is a substring that starts from the first argument position, till the second index position. The indices must be less than the length of actual string.

50
Q

What does dynamic_cast return after
successful type casting?

A. Doesn’t return any address
B. Address of object that is used for
conversion
C. Address of object which is converted
D. Address of object that is mentioned in the
syntax

A

C. Address of object which is converted

The address of the object which is
converted is returned by the dynamic_cast operator. This is done to safely convert the subtype to supertype.This ensures the proper assignment and conversion from one type to another.

51
Q

Downcasting ____

A. Can’t result in unexpected result
B. Can’t result in any error
C. Can result only in out of memory error
D. Can result in unexpected results

A

D. Can result in unexpected results

The result of downcasting can be
unexpected. This is because
downcasting is done on the objects into
the objects which doesn’t contain any
information of data in lateral object.

52
Q

If two arguments are passed to the
indexOf() function then

A. Second argument indicates the occurrence number of specified character from starting
B. Second argument indicates the index of
the character in first argument
C. Second argument indicates the index of
the character from the last of the string
D. Second argument indicates the occurrence
number of specified character from end

A

A. Second argument indicates the occurrence number of specified character from starting

The string may have more than one
occurrence of a character. We use this function to get the index at which the specified number of times a specific character has occurred in a string. For example, we can get the index of 5th occurrence of character “j” in a string

53
Q

If only one parameter is passed to
substring function then

A. It returns the string from specified
index till the end
B. It returns the character at the specified
position
C. It returns the string of length 1 from the
specified index
D. It returns the string from starting of string
till the specified index

A

A. It returns the string from specified
index till the end

The substring function returns a string
value. The string is the substring
starting from the specified index till the
end. The substring function has to be
called with the object of string class.

54
Q

Which is the proper syntax of
dynamic_cast?

A. dynamic_cast(object)
B. dynamic_cast new (object)
C. dynamiccast(object)
D. dynamic_cast(object)

A

D. dynamic_cast(object)

The dynamic_cast is the name of the operator, which is followed by the new type in which the object have to be converted. Then the object name is given. This object name is then used after the type conversion.

55
Q

How to prevent the
ClassCastExceptions?

A. By using is-a check
B. By using arrow operator with check
function
C. By using instanceof
D. By checking type of conversion

A

C. By using instanceof

The instanceof operator can be used to
check the compatibility of the
conversion. This has to be done to
check whether the casting would be
safe or not.

56
Q

When is the downcasting used?

A. To separate inherited class from base
class
B. To disable one class in inheritance
C. To write a more complex code
D. To compare two objects

A

D. To compare two objects

The downcasting can be used whenever there is a need to compare one object to another. Equals() function can be used
to compare whether the objects were of
same age. We can use getClass() function too.

57
Q

A label control’s ____ property determines whether the control automatically sizes to fit its current contents.

A. AutoSize property
B. Control property
C. Autoformat property
D. Auto control property

A

A. AutoSize property

The label control’s autosize property
determines whether the control
automatically sizes to fit its current
contents. The appropriate settings
depend on the label’s purpose. Label control that identifies other control,uses the default setting that is true.

58
Q

Designers at times use colour as the
means of ____ a user interface.

A. Exquisite
B. Charming
C. Fascinating
D. Identification

A

D. Identification

Designers at times want to identify a
special element, using colour. But it
should not be the only means to identify an element. Each element should have an identifying level.

59
Q

Designers generally use ____ colour for the background, and ____ for the text.

A. White, black
B. Black, white
C. Black, white
D. Blue, pink

A

A. White, black

Designers generally use white colour for the background and black colour for the text, because dark colour as background is hard for eyes and light colour as text may appear blurry.

60
Q

An object’s ___ is used to display the type, style, and size of the font, used to display the object’s text.

A. Size property
B. Style property
C. Text property
D. Font property

A

D. Font property

An object’s font property is used to
display the type, style and size of font.
The type of the font includes- regular,
bold, italics or underlined. The size is 8,10, 14, etc and the style is ‘Times new Roman’, ‘Sans Serif’ etc.

61
Q

Designers generally avoid using ____ and ___ in an interface.

A. Underline and bold
B. Regular and bold
C. Bold and italics
D. Italics and underline

A

D. Italics and underline

Designers generally avoid using italics
and underline in a text, because they
make difficult to read; since in some
font style italics is too difficult to read,and underline in some font style looks as if an error has occurred, thus
distracting the user.

62
Q

What will happen if you activate the
Bottom 3D view?

A. It will plot a mirrored image of your 2D
drawing
B. None of these choices
C. It will convert .dwg to raster image
D. Automatic adjustment of annotation
objects

A

A. It will plot a mirrored image of your 2D
drawing

The quickest way to plot a mirrored
image of your 2D drawing is to activate
Bottom 3D view.

63
Q

What keyboard key is used for toggling
the grid mode?

A. F5
B. F7
C. F10
D. F11

A

B. F7

F5 - Toggle Isoplane
F7 - Toggle Grid Mode
F10 - Toggle Polar Mode
F11 - Toggle Object Snap Tracking

64
Q

It guides cursor movement to specified
angles.

A. F10
B. F9
C. F12
D. F11

A

A. F10

F9 - Restricts cursor movement to
specified grid intervals

F10 - Guides cursor movement to
specified angles.

F11 - Tracks the cursor horizontally and
vertically from object snap locations.

F12 - Displays distances and angles near the cursor and accepts input as you use Tab between fields.

65
Q

To select a set of objects in the
workspace, what should be done?

A. By a crossing window drawn from right to
left.
B. By a crossing window drawn left to
right.
C. None of these choices
D. Shift + clicking on the objects

A

B. By a crossing window drawn left to
right.

By a crossing window drawn left to right selects the objects present in the design space.

66
Q

Which command in CAD transforms a
discrete item into a polyline?

A. Merge
B. Add
C. Union
D. Join

A

D. Join

Objects can be converted into discrete objects in polyline with the help of the join command.

67
Q

According to Memorandum circular No.
03-06-2016, TANKERS at bay, river,
harbor and lakes or engaged on a
coastwise voyage are required to have

A. VHF, MF/HF SSB Radio installation (20-100
Watts Power Output), GPS (150 GT and
above) & AIS (500 GT and above)
B. VHF,MF/HF SSB Radio installation (20-100
Watts Power Output), GPS
C. VHF, MF/HF SSB Radio installation(20-100 Watts Power Output), GPS regardless of size
D. VHF, MF/HF SSB Radio installation (20-100
Watts Power Output), GPS (150 GT and
above) & AIS (300 GT and above)

A

C. VHF, MF/HF SSB Radio installation(20-100 Watts Power Output), GPS regardless of size

68
Q

According to NTC MC 03-06-2016 or the
amendment of NTC MC 04-09-1988
PRESCRIBED EQUIPMENT FOR SHIP
STATIONS OF VARIOUS VESSELS
PLYING DOMESTIC ROUTES AND
OTHER REQUIREMENT under Regulation 16 of SOLAS convention, 4125 and 6215 KHz is used for

A. PCG/Harbormaster
B. Internship and Safety
C. Alternate HF/SSB International Distress
Channel
D. HF/SSB International Distress Channel

A

C. Alternate HF/SSB International Distress
Channel

69
Q

What is the prime time block for FM
radio in Metro Manila?

A. 7:00 AM to 7 PM
B. 6:00 AM to 6 PM
C. 6:00 AM to 8 PM
D. 7:00 AM to 8 PM

A

C. 6:00 AM to 8 PM

70
Q

The acquisition, production,
transformation, storage and
transmission/reception of data and
information by electronic means in
forms such as vocal, pictorial, textual,numeric or the like; also refers to the theoretical and practical applications and processes utilizing such data and information.

A. Information and Communications Technology
B. Communications
C. Telecommunications
D. Broadcasting

A

A. Information and Communications Technology

71
Q

Based on Memorandum Circular No.
4-09-88 (Prescribed Equipment for Ship
Stations of Various Vessels Plying
Domestic Routes and Other
Requirements) what is the prescribed
radio installation for passenger vessels
below 350 GT and less than 5 hour of
navigation?

A. VHF with capability on
156.2/156.8/156.6 MHz
B. VHF with capability on
156.8/156.6/156.3 MHz
C. VHF with capability on
156.6/156.5/156.3 MHz
D. Radio installation optional

A

B. VHF with capability on
156.8/156.6/156.3 MHz

72
Q

Which law states that those who
passed the BAR and BOARD
examinations shall be automatically
considered as civil service eligible

A. EO 467
B. RA 1080
C. RA 5734
D. PD 223

A

B. RA 1080

73
Q

What is the title of Section 8 of RA
10912?

A. Secretariat
B. CPD as Mandatory Requirement in the Renewal of Professional License and Accreditation System for the Practice of
Professions
C. Career Progression and Specialization
D. Powers, Functions and Responsibilities
of the CPD Council

A

D. Powers, Functions and Responsibilities
of the CPD Council

74
Q

Section 5 of RA 9292.

A. Powers and Functions of the Board
B. Categories of Practice
C. Composition of the Board
D. Nature and Scope of Practice of
Electronics Engineering and Electronics
Technician Professions

A

D. Nature and Scope of Practice of
Electronics Engineering and Electronics
Technician Professions

75
Q

When is the effectivity date of the
implementing Rules and Regulation of
R.A. 9292?

A. October 2, 2007
B. May 27,2007
C. April 17,2004
D. May 24,2004

A

A. October 2, 2007

76
Q

According to Republic Act 10912,
____ refers to learning that occurs
in daily life assessed, through the
recognition, validation and accreditation process, and which can contribute to a qualification

A. Informal learning
B. Self-directed learning.
C. Lifelong learning
D. Online learning activities

A

A. Informal learning

77
Q

According to Republic Act 10912,
____ refers to a status gained after
a person has been assessed to have
achieved learning outcomes or
competencies in accordance with the standard specified for a qualification title, and is proven by a document issued by a recognized agency or body.

A. Skill Set
B. Competence
C. Qualification
D. Experience

A

C. Qualification

78
Q

What is the title of Section 12 of RA
10912?

A. CPD as Mandatory Requirement in the
Renewal
B. Recognition of Credit Units
C. Career Progression and Specialization
D. Role of Concerned Government Agencies
and the Private Sector

A

C. Career Progression and Specialization

79
Q

Revocation and Suspension of
Certificate of Registration, Professional Identification Card and Cancellation of Special Permits is what section of RA 9292?

A. 23
B. 22
C. 21
D. 24

A

A. 23

80
Q

In reference to RA10912, it refers to
planned and systematic processes that
provide confidence in the design,
delivery and award of qualifications
within an education and training system,
and is a component of quality
management that is focused on
ensuring that quality requirements will
be fulfilled

A. Professional
B. Qualification
C. Quality Assurance
D. Pathways and Equivalencies

A

C. Quality Assurance

Quality assurance refers to planned and
systematic processes that provide
confidence in the design, delivery and
award of qualifications within an
education and training system, and is a component of quality management that is focused on ensuring that quality
requirements will be fulfilled.

81
Q

In reference to RA10912, a mechanism
that provide access to qualifications
and assist professionals to move easily
and readily between the different
education and training sectors, and
between these sectors, and the labor market, through the Philippine Credit Transfer System is referred to as:

A. Philippine Qualifications Framework
B. Continuing Professional Development
C. Pathways and Equivalences
D. Assessment Framework

A

C. Pathways and Equivalences

82
Q

For equipment locations, antenna
towers, and all allied installations, the
ground resistance must never exceed

A. 43 ohms
B. 5 ohms
C. 3 ohms
D. 25 ohms

A

B. 5 ohms

83
Q

It is a discharge through air, around or over the surface of solid, liquid or other insulation, between parts of different
potential of polarity, produced by the
application of voltage such that the
breakdown path becomes sufficiently
ionized to maintain an electric arc.

A. Air joint
B. Alpeth
C. Flashover
D. Handhole

A

C. Flashover

84
Q

Book 1 of the Philippine Electronics
Code of 2014 is known as:

A. Fire Detection and Alarm System
B. Cable Television System
C. Distributed Antenna System
D. Telecommunications Facilities
Distribution System

A

D. Telecommunications Facilities
Distribution System

Philippine Electronics Code of 2014
Book 1 - Telecommunications Facilities
Distribution System
Book 2 - Fire Detection and Alarm
System
Book 3 - Cable Television System
Book 4 - Distributed Antenna System

85
Q

What is the title of the New Philippine
Electronics Code Book 1?

A. Cable Television System
B. Fire Detection and Alarm System
C. Telecommunication Facilities
Distribution System
D. Distributed Antenna System

A

C. Telecommunication Facilities
Distribution System

86
Q

What is the maximum power suggested
by KBP on 919? 1312 AM broadcast
station in Metro Manila?

A. 5 kW
B. 15 kW
C. 10 kW
D. 20 kW

A

D. 20 kW

87
Q

Individuals who perform physical
checks, tests, and procedures to
determine whether a system performs
as required for acceptance or
reacceptance.

A. Testing Personnel
B. Maintenance and Service Personnel
C. Work Personnel
D. Inspection Personnel

A

A. Testing Personnel

88
Q

to the TV broadcast standards, what is the maximum effective radiated power in Metro Manila and Metro Cebu for
channels 7-13?

A. 500 kW
B. 1000 kW
C. 1500 kW
D. 300 kW

A

B. 1000 kW

89
Q

It provides certain level of safety to
humans and property in case of
equipment damages.

A. Surge arrester
B. Lightning rod
C. fuse
D. Bonding or grounding

A

D. Bonding or grounding

90
Q

The heat detector located at the lowest point along the slope shall be installed at a point at

A. least 3 meter above the horizontal base of
the slope
B. least 2 meter above the horizontal base of
the slope
C. least 1 meter above the horizontal base
line of the slope
D. least 4 meter above the horizontal base of
the slope

A

C. least 1 meter above the horizontal base
line of the slope

91
Q

An FDAS component containing one or
more indicator lamp/LED’s or
alphanumeric display in which each
indication provides statues information about an addressable or conventional device, a group of devices, a zone, a
circuit, or an LCD and graphic condition.

A. Detector
B Alarm display
C. Enunciator
D. Annunciator

A

D. Annunciator

92
Q

Which of the following is not a useful base for segmenting organizational characteristics?

A. By turnover.
B. By industry type.
C. By organizational size.
D. By geographical location.

A

A. By turnover.

There are two main groups of interrelated variables used to segment business-to-business markets. The first set of variables involves organizational characteristics, such as organizational size and location. The second group is based upon the characteristics surrounding the decision-making process of buyer characteristics.

GEAS (14 decks)

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