REM C LVL 2 Flashcards

Question 1

Q

Stranded steel wires in a group which generally is not part of the conducting system, its primary function being to support wires or cables of the system.

A. guy
B. messenger
C. support
D. conduit

Answer

A

B. messenger

Question 2

Q

Define as wires or cables entering the building, terminated to the main cross connecting point within the building
from the nearest telephone facility.

A. local loop
B. service entrance
C. drop wire
D. subscribers loop

Answer

A

B. service entrance

Question 3

Q

A smoke detector, using sampling tubes, that senses smoke in the air circulating within air-conditioning or ventilating ducts.

A. Duct Detector
B. Multi-criteria Detector
C. Flame Detector
D. Beam Detector

Answer

A

A. Duct Detector

Question 4

Q

The minimum voltage value that is
considered hazardous is:

A. 50 V RMS AC
B. 45 V RMS AC
C. 24 V RMS AC
D. 12V RMS AC

Answer

A

B. 45 V RMS AC

Question 5

Q

An opening underground run or system
into which workers reach, but do not
enter.

A. handhole
B. rathole
C. finger hole
D. manhole

Answer

A

A. handhole

Question 6

Q

A detector that detects abnormally high
temperature, abnormally fast rate of
temperature rise, or both.

A. Duct Detector
B. Carbon Monoxide Detector
C. Heat Detector
D. Smoke

Answer

A

C. Heat Detector

Question 7

Q

A general term applied to the whole or
portion of the physical property of a
communication company which contributes to the furnishing of communication service.

A. division
B. plant
C. zone
D. area

Question 8

Q

What refers to as linkage by wire, radio,satellite or other means, of two or more telecommunications carrier or operators with one another for the purpose of
allowing or enabling the subscriber of
one carrier or operator to access or
reach the subscribers of the other
carrier or operator?

A. Interconnection
B. Outside plant sharing
C. Gateway
D. Toll patching

Answer

A

A. Interconnection

Question 9

Q

An undertaking the object of which is to
transmit audio, video, text, images or
other signal or messages for reception of a broad audience in a geographical area via wired or wireless means.

A. Communications
B. Broadcasting
C. Telecommunications
D. Transmission Engineering

Answer

A

B. Broadcasting

Question 10

Q

“Powers, Functions and Responsibilities of the CPD Councilrdquo; is provided in what section of RA 10912?

A. Section 8
B. Section 6
C. Section 7
D. Section 5

Answer

A

A. Section 8

Question 11

Q

“Separability Clause” is provided in what
section of RA 10912?

A. Section 18
B. Section 19
C. Section 17
D. Section 16

Answer

A

C. Section 17

Question 12

Q

RA9292 defines ____ as “shall include but not be limited to office buildings, hotels, motels, hospitals,condominiums, stores, apartments,
supermarkets, schools, studios, stadia,parking areas, memorial chapels/parks,watercraft and aircraft used for business or profit, and any other building/s or area/s for business purposes, where electronic or electronically-controlled machinery or equipment are installed and/or are
being used, sold, maintained,
assembled, manufactured or operated.”

A. Consulting Services
B. Commercial Establishment
C Industrial Plant
D. Communications

Answer

A

B. Commercial Establishment

Question 13

Q

RA9292 defines ____ as “shall include services requiring adequate technical expertise, experience and professional capability in undertaking advisory and review, pre-investment or feasibility studies, design, planning,
construction, supervision, management and related services, and other technical studies or special studies in the field of electronics engineering.”

A. Communications
B. Industrial Plant
C. Consulting Services
D. Commercial Establishment

Answer

A

C. Consulting Services

Question 14

Q

Within_ years after the effectivity of
RA 9292, the Board shall issue
Certificate of Registration and
Professional Identification Cards
without examination to all applicants for
registration as Electronics Technicians
who comply to all the requirements
stated in section 20.

A. 5 (five)
B. none of these choices
C. 7 (seven)
D. 3 (three)

Answer

A

A. 5 (five)

Question 15

Q

To pass the licensure examination, a candidate for Electronics Engineer or Electronics Technician must obtain a passing rating of seventy percent (70%) in each subject given during the
examination. However, if a candidate
who obtains a passing rating in the
majority of the subjects but obtains a
rating in the other subject/s below
seventy percent (70%) but not lower
than sixty percent (60%), shall be allowed to take one removal examination on the subject/s where he/she failed to obtain the passing rating:Provided, finally, that should the examinee fail to obtain a passing rating in the removal examination, he/she shall be considered as having failed the entire licensure examination. In which section of RA 9292 can this rule be found?

A. Section 18
B. Section 19
C. Section 17
D. Section 16

Answer

A

D. Section 16

Question 16

Q

RA9292 defines ____ as “any transmission, emission or reception of voice, data, electronic messages, text,written or printed matter, fixed or
moving pictures or images, words
music or visible or audible signals or
sounds, or any information, intelligence
and/or control signals of any design/
format and for any purpose, by wire,radio, spectral, visual/optical/light, or other electronic, electromagnetic and technological means.”

A. Telecommunications
B. Broadcasting
C. Information and Communications
Technology
D. Communications

Answer

A

A. Telecommunications

Question 17

Q

RA 9292 interprets ____ as “all
manufacturing establishments and
other business endeavors where
electronic or electronically-controlled
machinery or equipment are installed
and/or are being used, sold, maintained,
assembled or operated.”

A. Telecommunications
B. Commercial Establishment
C. Industrial Plant
D. Electronics

Answer

A

C. Industrial Plant

Question 18

Q

Section 31 of RA 9292 refers to

A. Qualifications for Examinations
B. Practice of the Profession
C. Continuing Professional Education
(CPE)
D. Repealing Clause

Answer

A

C. Continuing Professional Education
(CPE)

Question 19

Q

In handling unsolicited or unwanted
commercial and promotional
advertisement and surveys,
complainants who are not satisfied with the action of the Public Telecom Entities or Content Providers may bring the
matter to the NTC in writing within ____
from receipt of the alleged text spam.

A. 3 months
B. 1 month
C. 5 months
D. 7 months

Answer

A

A. 3 months

Question 20

Q

As provided in ACT 3846, the
construction of a radio station shall
begin only when

A. The NTC has already issued a Permit to
construct.
B. the firm applying for the construction permit has submitted to the NTC its application for the same.
C. the technical documents has already been
signed and sealed by the PECE.
D. A personnel of NTC has conveyed through telephone that the application has already been approved.

Answer

A

A. The NTC has already issued a Permit to
construct.

Question 21

Q

According to NTC Memorandum
Circular 4-2-92, this is a certificate or
written authority issued by the NTC to a
person, firm, company, association or
corporation authorizing the holder
thereof to operate during the period
specified in said authorization a mobile
station in the maritime mobile service
located on board a vessel.1

A. Cargo Ship Safety Radio Certificate
B. Ship Radio Station License
C. Ship Earth Station License
D. Exemption Certificate

Answer

A

B. Ship Radio Station License

Question 22

Q

What government agency was
designated as the chairman of the
Electronic Commerce Promotion

A. DOTC
B. NEDA
C. NTC
D. DTI

Question 23

Q

This memorandum circular shall cover
all wireless data networks and devices
operating within 2400MHz to 2483 MHz,5150MHz to 5350MHz and 5470MHz to 5850MHz bands

A. NTC Memorandum Circular 4-2-92
B. NTC Memorandum Circular 08-07-200
C. NTC Memorandum Circular 09-09-2003
D. NTC Memorandum Circular 04-06-2007

Answer

A

C. NTC Memorandum Circular 09-09-2003

Question 24

Q

In accordance with Radio Laws and
Regulations, a base station in the Land Mobile Service must maintain entry in its logbook, for a period of ____ if emergency signal is received.

A. 2 years
B. 1 year
C. 3 years
D. 4 years

Answer

A

A. 2 years

Question 25

Q

It is an operator input device which
consists of a large, smooth board and an electronic tracking device which can be moved over the surface to follow
existing lines.

A. Digitizers
B. Cursor control
C. Keyboard terminals
D. None of these choices

Answer

A

A. Digitizers

The digitizer is an operator input device which consists of a large, smooth board (the appearance is similar to a mechanical drawing board) and an electronic tracking device which can be moved over the surface to follow
existing lines. It is a common technique
in CAD systems for taking x, y coordinates from a paper drawing.

Question 26

Q

A text string that usually indicates the
measurement value.

A. Center Text
B. Center Mark
C. Arrowheads
D. Dimension Text

Answer

A

D. Dimension Text

Dimension text is a text string that
usually indicates the measurement
value. The text can also include prefixes,
suffixes, and tolerances.

Question 27

Q

It is also called projection lines or
witness lines.

A. Arrowheads
B. Extension lines
C. Dimension line
D. Centerlines

Answer

A

B. Extension lines

Extension lines, also called projection lines or witness lines, extend from the feature to the dimension line.

Question 28

Q

The functionality areas of CAD application can be grouped into ____ categories.

A. 2
B. 4
C. 1
D. 3

Answer

A

B. 4

The four categories are geometric
modelling, engineering analysis, design review and evaluation and automated drafting.

Question 29

Q

What are broken lines that mark the
center of a circle or arc.

A. Centerlines
B. Extension Lines
C. Arrowheads
D. Center Mark

Answer

A

A. Centerlines

Centerlines are broken lines that mark
the center of a circle or arc.

Question 30

Q

The text contained in the identifying
label is entered using ____

A. Book title capitalization
B. Character capitalization
C. Word capitalization
D. Sentence capitalization

Answer

A

D. Sentence capitalization

Sentence capitalization is a
phenomenon in which the first character of every word in the sentence should be in capital letter. The text contained in is entered using this phenomenon.

Question 31

Q

What is the full form of CNC?

A. Computer number control
B. Computer network control
C. Computer numbers count
D. Computer numerical control

Answer

A

D. Computer numerical control

Computer numerical control is the full
form of CNC. If we provide software-
based numerical control then it is called
as computer numerical control. The
other three options are not the perfect
choice for the full form of CNC.

Question 32

Q

What does CNC machine use to control
motion and speed?

A. Programs, as well as computer
keyboard, Graphical user interface
B. GUI
C. Feedback system
D. Numerical

Answer

A

A. Programs, as well as computer
keyboard, Graphical user interface

CNC machine uses the program to
control motion and speed. The feedback system is used to record data from the sensor and compare it with input data.The graphical user interface provides a facility to understand the position of the tool according to the input program.

Question 33

Q

In a GUI, the window that is currently in
use is called the

A. Framed window
B. Biggest window
C. Active window
D. Top window

Answer

A

C. Active window

The window that is currently in use is
called the active window.

Question 34

Q

What is the function of the GUI
(Graphical user interface)?

A. To record the data from the sensor
B. To control motion and speed
C. Converts program into the action of the
driver
D. To understand the position of the tool
according to the input program

Answer

A

D. To understand the position of the tool
according to the input program

To understand the position of the tool
according to the input program is the
function of GUI. CNC programs are used
to control motion and speed. Machine
control unit converts the program into the action of the driver. The feedback system is to record the data from the sensor and compare it with input data.

Question 35

Q

It is a checked exception that occurs
while executing queries on a database
for Structured Query Language syntax.

A. ClassNotFoundException
B. SQLException
C. IlegalArgumentException
D. IllegalStateException

Answer

A

B. SQLException

SQLException is a checked exception
that occurs while executing queries on a
database for Structured Query
Language syntax.

ClassNotFoundException is a checked
exception that occurs when the required
class is not found – either due to a
command-line error, a missing CLASS
file or an issue with the classpath.

IllegalStateException is an unchecked
exception that occurs when an
environment’s state does not match the
operation being executed.

IllegalArgumentException is an
unchecked exception that occurs when
an incorrect argument is passed to a
method.

Question 36

Q

What does CLR stands for?

A. Continued length run
B. Common length run
C. Continued language runtime
D. Common language runtime

Answer

A

D. Common language runtime

CLR stands for Common Language
Runtime.

Question 37

Q

What is file handling in java?

A. It is creating, deleting, and modifying
files using a java program.
B. Creating new method
C. All of these choices
D. Filing method to different file to extract
them better

Answer

A

A. It is creating, deleting, and modifying
files using a java program.

File handling is used for creating,
deleting, and modifying files using a
java program.

Question 38

Q

Which is valid C expression?

A. int my_num = 100000;
B. int $my_num= 10000;
C. int my_num = 100,000;
D. int my num= 1000;

Answer

A

A. int my_num = 100000;

Space, comma and $ cannot be used in
a variable name.

Question 39

Q

Which is correct with respect to the size
of the data types in C?

A. int < chat > float
B. char > int > float
C. int < char < float
D. char < int< float

Answer

A

D. char < int< float

The correct order of the data types as
per the size is: char < int > float.

Question 40

Q

Property which allows to produce different executable for different platforms in C is called?

A. Selective inclusion
B. File inclusion
C. Conditional compilation
D. Recursive macros

Answer

A

C. Conditional compilation

Conditional compilation is the
preprocessor facility to produce a
different executable.

Question 41

Q

Conditional statements are also known
as ____ statements

A. Array
B. None of these choices
C. List
D. Decision-making

Answer

A

D. Decision-making

Conditional statements, also known as decision-making statements, are used to make decisions. In programming, we want to be able to control the flow of
execution of our program, and we want
to be able to execute a specific set of
statements only if a specific condition is
met, and a different set of statements
only if the condition is not met. As a
result, we use conditional statements to
determine whether or not a specific
block of code should be executed based
on a given condition.

Question 42

Q

If the function returns no value then it is
called

A. Data type function
B. Calling function
C. Void function
D. Main function

Answer

A

C. Void function

Void (NonValue-Returning) functions:
Void functions are created and used just
like value-returning functions except
they do not return a value after the
function executes.

Question 43

Q

Jay is considering adding a repetition
statement within his Java programming
final project. Jay is unsure of the
number of times each loop needs to
execute. Analyze the conditional
statements below and select which
statement best fits the need identified
by Jay within his programming.

A. For loop
B. While loop
C. If-Else
D. Switch statement

Answer

A

B. While loop

Question 44

Q

Which is the correct format specifier for
double type value in C?
A. %f
B. %d
C. %LF
D. %If

Answer

A

D. %If

The %If is used to represent a double
type value in C programming language.

Question 45

Q

What is a friend member function in C+
+?

A. Member function which doesn’t have
access to private members
B. Member function which can access all the
members of a class
C. Member function which can modify any
data of a class
D. Non-member functions which have access to all the members (including private) of a class

Answer

A

D. Non-member functions which have access to all the members (including private) of a class

A non-member function of a class
which can access even the private data
of a class is a friend function. It is an
exception on access to private
members outside the class. It is
sometimes considered as a member
functions since it has all the access that
member functions in general have.

Question 46

Q

It is used to depict how packages and
their elements have been organized.

A. Deployment Diagram
B. Package Diagram
C. Component Diagram
D. Object Diagram

Answer

A

B. Package Diagram

Package Diagram - We use Package
Diagrams to depict how packages and their elements have been organized. A package diagram simply shows us the dependencies between different packages and internal composition of packages. Packages help us to organise UML diagrams into meaningful groups
and make the diagram easy to
understand. They are primarily used to
organise class and use case diagrams.

Question 47

Q

The feature by which one object can
interact with another object is

A. Data binding
B. Message reading
C. Message passing
D. Data transfer

Answer

A

C. Message passing

The interaction between two objects is
called the message passing feature.
Data transfer is not a feature of 00P as
well as message reading.

Question 48

Q

The most widely use UML diagram and
is the building block of all object
oriented software systems.

A. Composite Structure Diagram
B. Object Diagram
C. Class Diagram
D. Component Diagram

Answer

A

C. Class Diagram

Class Diagram - The most widely use
UML diagram is the class diagram. It is the building block of all object oriented software systems. We use class
diagrams to depict the static structure
of a system by showing system’s
classes, their methods and attributes.
Class diagrams also help us identify
relationship between different classes
or objects.

Question 49

Q

How to overcome diamond problem?

A. Using alias name
B. Using separate derived class
C. Can’t be done
D. Using virtual keyword with same name
function

Answer

A

D. Using virtual keyword with same name
function

To overcome the ambiguity and conflict
we can use keyword virtual. This will
help us to differentiate the functions
with same name that came to last
derived class in diamond problem.

Question 50

Q

It can be referred to as a screenshot of
the instances in a system and the
relationship that exists between them.

A. Class Diagram
B. Composite Structure Diagram
C. Component Diagram
D. Object Diagram

Answer

A

D. Object Diagram

Object Diagram - An Object Diagram can
be referred to as a screenshot of the
instances in a system and the
relationship that exists between them. Since object diagrams depict behaviour when objects have been instantiated,
we are able to study the behaviour of the system at a particular instant. An object diagram is similar to a class diagram except it shows the instances of classes in the system. We depict
actual classifiers and their relationships
making the use of class diagrams. On
the other hand, an Object Diagram
represents specific instances of classes
and relationships between them at a
point of time.

Question 51

Q

Which of the following is a behavior
diagram?

A. Sequence Diagram
B. Composite Structure Diagram
C. Component Diagram
D. Package Diagram

Answer

A

A. Sequence Diagram

State Machine Diagrams, Activity
Diagrams, Use Case Diagrams,
Sequence Diagram, Communication
Diagram, Timing Diagram and
Interaction Overview Diagram are the
behavior diagrams in a Unified Modeling
Language. While Class Diagram,
Composite Structure Diagram, Object
Diagram, Component Diagram,
Component Diagram, Package Diagram
are the Structural UML Diagrams.

Question 52

Q

The function scanf() is used to

A. Input a set of values
B. To take logical decisions
C. Print a set of values
D. Do mathematical manipulations

Answer

A

A. Input a set of values

Within C Programming language,
scanf() is a commonly used function for
receiving user input. The scanf()
function scans formatted data from
conventional input devices like
keyboards.

Question 53

Q

Which of the following is structural UML
diagram?

A. Object Diagram
B. Activity Diagrams
C. Sequence Diagram
D. Communication Diagram

Answer

A

A. Object Diagram

State Machine Diagrams, Activity
Diagrams, Use Case Diagrams,
Sequence Diagram, Communication
Diagram, Timing Diagram and
Interaction Overview Diagram are the
behavior diagrams in a Unified Modeling
Language. While Class Diagram,
Composite Structure Diagram, Object
Diagram, Component Diagram,
Component Diagram, Package Diagram
are the Structural UML Diagrams.

Question 54

Q

What is encapsulation in 00P?

A. It is a way of combining various data
members into a single unit
B. It is a way of combining various data
members and member functions into a
single unit which can operate on any data
C. It is a way of combining various member
functions into a single unit
D. It is a way of combining various data members and member functions that operate on those data members into a single unit

Answer

A

D. It is a way of combining various data members and member functions that operate on those data members into a single unit

It is a way of combining both data
members and member functions, which operate on those data members, into a single unit. We call it a class in OOP generally.

Question 55

Q

If the interest rate on debt is lower than
ROA, then a firm will ____ by
increasing the use of debt in the capital
structure.

A. decrease the ROE
B. increase the ROE
C. change the ROE in an indeterminable
manner
D. not change the ROE

Answer

A

B. increase the ROE

If ROA is higher than the interest rate,
then ROE will increase by an amount
that depends on the debt to equity ratio

Question 56

Q

What is Bank Overdraft?

A. A negotiable instrument similar to a bill of
exchange.
B. A document used by a company’s
accounts payable department containing
the supporting documents for an invoice.
C. A negotiable instrument where payment is
guaranteed by the issuing bank.
D. A line of credit that covers your
transactions if your bank account
balance drops below zero.

Answer

A

D. A line of credit that covers your
transactions if your bank account
balance drops below zero.

An overdraft facility linked to your everyday transaction account is an unsecured line of credit designed to cover short-term cash flow shortfalls

Question 57

Q

The Expenses, Profit & Loss of an organisation are recorded in which account?

A. Current Account
B. Nominal Account
C. Personal Account
D. None of these choices

Answer

A

B. Nominal Account

The nominal account records all the
transactions of a business for one fiscal
year.

Question 58

Q

It is when an investor or a lender gives a
business funds to assist with starting,
growing, and managing day-to-day
operations.

A. Market planning
B. None of these choices
C. Raising capital
D. Financing

Answer

A

C. Raising capital

Raising capital is when an investor or a lender gives a business funds to assist with starting, growing, and managing day-to-day operations. Some entrepreneurs consider raising capital to
be a burden, but most consider it a
necessity. Regardless of their stance on the matter, raising capital is an essential step for entrepreneurs, founders,
business owners, or anyone looking to
start a company.

Question 59

Q

It involves the borrowing of money and
paying it back with interest.

A. None of these choices
B. Equity financing
C. Debt financing
D. Raising capital

Answer

A

C. Debt financing

Debt financing involves the borrowing of money and paying it back with interest.The most common form of debt
financing is a loan. Debt financing
sometimes comes with restrictions on
the company’s activities that may
prevent it from taking advantage of
opportunities outside the realm of its
core business. Creditors look favorably upon a relatively low debt-to-equity ratio,which benefits the company if it needs to access additional debt financing in the future.

Question 60

Q

Which Ratio protects the Creditors?

A. Higher Inventory Ratio
B. Lower Debt Equity Ratio
C. Return on Investment Ratio
D. Liquidity Assets

Answer

A

B. Lower Debt Equity Ratio

Lower the Debt Equity ratio higher is the protection to creditors. Creditors usually like a low debt to equity ratio because a low ratio (less than 1) is the indication of greater protection to their money.

Question 61

Q

The P/E ratio that is based on a firm’s
financial statements and reported in the
newspaper stock listings is different
from the P/E ratio derived from the
dividend discount model (DDM)
because

A. The DDM uses different earnings
measures in the denominator
B. The people who construct the ratio from
financial statements have inside
information
C. The prices reported are not accurate
D. The DDM uses a different price in the
numerator

Answer

A

A. The DDM uses different earnings
measures in the denominator

Both ratios use the same numerator-
the market price of the stock. But P/Es from financial statements use the most recent past accounting earnings, while the DDM uses expected future

Question 62

Q

If you write an original story, what type
of intellectual property gives you the
right to decide who can make and sell
copies of your work?

A. Copyright
B. Geographical indications
C. Patents
D. Registered designs

Answer

A

A. Copyright

Copyright gives you the right to decide who can make and sell copies of your work.

Question 63

Q

The creditors’ claims against an asset.

A. Lien
B. Contract assignment
C. Bulk transfer
D. Restrictive covenant

Question 64

Q

What does a trademark protect?

A. A secret formula
B. Logos, names and brands
C. A work of art
D. An invention

Answer

A

B. Logos, names and brands

Trademarks protect logos, names and
brands.

Answer 62

A

B. Patents

Patents protect the intellectual property
created by inventors.

Answer 63

A

C. The firm is more likely to avoid
insolvency in short run than other firms
in the industry.

Current assets earn less than fixed
assets; thus, a firm with a relatively high
level of current assets may be less
profitable than other firms. However, its
high level of current assets makes it
more liquid.

Answer 64

A

D. Test markets

Market testing studies use test markets
to carry out controlled experiments in
specific country regions, where specific adverts can be shown, before exposing the ‘new feature’ (offering, campaign,
distribution, etc.) to a full national or
even international launch

Answer 65

A

C. Full-service agency

In order to commission market
research, the client must determine
whether or not he or she wants to
commission an agency, a consultant, a
field and tabulation agency, or a data
preparation and analysis agency (who,unlike field and tab, do not undertake the fieldwork). Typically, a consultant might be used for a small job which does not require extensive fieldwork, a
field and tab agency when the
organization can design its own
research but not undertake the data
collection, a data preparation and
analysis agency when it can both design
and collect the data but does not have
the expertise to analyse it, and a fullservice agency when it does not have the expertise to design the research,and collect or analyse the data.

Answer 66

A

C. It is a good idea for small businesses
to compete solely on price

Answer 67

A

B. All of these choices

Answer 68

A

A. The size of the agency.

The criteria used to evaluate the
agencies’ suitability, once they have
submitted a proposal, might include the
following:

The agency’s reputation;
The agency’s perceived expertise;
Whether the study offers value for money;
The time taken to complete the study,
The likelihood that the research design will provide insights into the management problem.

Answer 69

A

C. Competitors

Answer 70

A

B. Distributors

Answer 71

A

C. six (6) months to three (3) years

Answer 72

A

D. External environment

Answer 73

A

C. Highly creative & in love with the
invention

Answer 74

A

C. forfeiture

Answer 75

A

A. Budget

Budget is a plan which sets forth the
projected expenditure for a certain
activity and explains where the required
funds will come from.
A program is a single-use plan designed
to coordinate a large set of activities.
A project is a single-use plan that is
usually more limited in scope than a
program and is sometimes prepared to
support a program.

Answer 76

A

A. Financial ratio analysis

Answer 77

A

A. Material management

Answer 78

A

A. fair value

Answer 79

A

B. corporate income is taxed first as corporate income then taken as personal income then taken as personal income from the individual
payments stock

Answer 80

A

B. Service factory

Service processes - those that refer to
provision of services to persons by hand
or with machinery

Service factory - this offers a limited mix of services which results to some economies of scale in operation

Service shop - provides a diverse mix
of services

Mass service - a company that
provides services to a large number of
people simultaneously

Answer 81

A

A. Continuous flow processing

Machine-paced assembly line - a type of production process produces mostly standard products with machines playing a significant role

Continuous flow processing - is characterized by the rapid rate at which items move through the system

Batch/continuous flow hybrid - a combination of the batch and the continuous flow processing

Answer 82

A

C. Mass service

Service processes - those that refer to
provision of services to persons by hand
or with machinery

Service factory - this offers a limited mix of services which results to some economies of scale in operation

Service shop - provides a diverse mix
of services

Mass service - a company that
provides services to a large number of
people simultaneously

Answer 83

A

B. Work-flow layout

Inventory control is the process of
establishing and maintaining
appropriate levels of reserve stocks of
goods.

Work-flow layout is the process of
determining the physical arrangement
of the production system.

Quality control refers to the
measurement of products or services
against standards set by the company.

Answer 84

A

A. strategic plan

Answer 85

A

D. Program

Budget is a plan which sets forth the
projected expenditure for a certain
activity and explains where the required
funds will come from.

A program is a single-use plan designed to coordinate a large set of activities.

A project is a single-use plan that is usually more
limited in scope than a program and is
sometimes prepared to support a
program.

Answer 86

A

C. Performance appraisal

Strategic plan - provides the basic
control mechanism for the organization

Operating budget - indicates the
expenditures, revenues, or profits planned for some future period regarding operations

Performance appraisal - this measures
employee performance

Statistical report - this pertains to those that contain data on various developments within the firm

Answer 87

A

D. Concurrent control

Answer 88

A

C. escalatory clause

Answer 89

A

D. Controlling

When management anticipates
problems and prevents their occurrence,the type of control measure undertaken is called feedforward control.

When operations are already ongoing and activities to detect variances are made, concurrent control is said to be undertaken.

When information is gathered about a
completed activity, and in order that
evaluation and steps for improvement
are derived, feedback control is
undertaken.

Answer 90

A

A. Procedure

The balance sheet contains information
about the company’s assets, liabilities
and capital accounts while the income statement contains information about the company*rsquo;s gross income,
expenses, and profits.

Answer 91

A

D. Operational planning

Strategic planning refers to the process
of determining the major goals of the
organization and policies and strategies
for obtaining and using resources to
achieve these goals.

Intermediate planning is the process of determining the contributions that subunits can
make with allocated resources.

Operational planning refers to the
process of determining how specific tasks can best be accomplished on time with available resources.

Answer 92

A

B. Effective

Answer 93

A

D. Physiological needs

Answer 94

A

C. Formal organization

The formal organization is the structure
that details lines of responsibilities,
authority and position. What is depicted
in the organization chart is the formal
organization.

Answer 95

A

A. All of these choices

All are purposes of an organizational
structure.

Answer 96

A

D. Statistical report

Policies refer to the framework within
which objectives must be pursued while a procedure is a plan that describes the exact series of actions to be taken in a given situation.

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