14295B Laboratory/Pharmacy Flashcards
(252 cards)
1
Q
Inhalation is divided into what 3 major types?
A
Vaporization
Gas
Nebulization
2
Q
Topically applied medications serve what 2 purposes?
A
Local and systemic effects
3
Q
How is the reference Drug Facts and Comparisons organized?
A
Therapeutic medication class
4
Q
What reference contains a quick and concise medication info?
A
Drug Information Handbook
5
Q
What are the 6 rights of medication administration?
A
Patient Medication Dose Route Time Documentation
6
Q
Medications usually what what 3 names?
A
Chemical
Generic
Brand/Trade
7
Q
Aluminum acetate solution (Burrows Solution) is used as what?
A
Wet-to-dry dressing for relief of inflammatory conditions of the skin
8
Q
What is used as a topical astringent and protectant to blistered, raw or oozing areas of the skin?
A
Calamine lotion
9
Q
Definition of emollients
A
Bland or fatty substances applied to the skin to make it more pliable and soft
10
Q
What is known as the “blue bible” of pharmacology?
A
Remington: The Science and Practice of Pharmacy
11
Q
What is the generic name for cocoa butter?
A
Theobroma oil
12
Q
Zinc oxide is a white petrolatum emollient containing what percentage of zinc oxide powder?
A
20%
13
Q
Expectorants are more accurately know as what?
A
Bronchomucotropic agents
14
Q
Define dosage range
A
The min and max amount to produce the desired effect
15
Q
What is HCL?
A
Pseudophedrine Hydrochloride
16
Q
Define posology
A
The study of dosages and the criteria that influence it
17
Q
What is the generic name for Mucinex D?
A
Pseudophedrine
Guaifenesin
18
Q
Define pharmacodynamics
A
Study of the action or the effects of medications on living organisms
19
Q
What medication may be taken to ease the effects of radiation sickness?
A
Dimenhydrinate
Dramamine
20
Q
What medication is used to treat GERD?
A
Ranitidine
Zantac
21
Q
What are histamine H2 receptor antagonists effective in preventing?
A
Peptic ulcers
22
Q
Oral medication should be avoided for how long after taking an antacid?
A
2hrs
23
Q
What is used to reduce phosphate absorption in patients with chronic renal failure?
A
Magnesium Hydroxide
Milk of Magnesia
24
Q
What text sets the standards for the quality, purity, strength and provides standards for medications?
A
United States Pharmacopeia and National Formulary
25
Contraindications to give magnesium hydroxide?
Abdominal pain
Nausea
Vomiting
26
What designates the USP-NF as the official reference for medications marketed in the US?
US Federal Food, Medication and Cosmetics Act
27
Prolonged use of magnesium hydroxide may cause what?
Kidney stones
28
What is the major advantage of taking Aluminum Hydroxide?
No systemic alkalosis
29
Define pharmacognosy
Deals with biological biochemical and economic features of natural meds
30
Why is Maalox better than Amphojel?
Less constipating
31
What effect to antiseptics have on microbes?
Suppressing
32
Define pharmacotherapeutics
The use of meds in the treatment of diseases
33
What effect do germicides have on microbes?
Lethal
34
Disinfectants generally have what effect?
Germicidal
35
What is the standard by which all other antiseptic agents are measured for effectiveness?
Phenol
| Carbolic acid
36
High concentrations of phenol can cause what?
Tissue destruction
37
What inactivates phenol?
Alcohol
38
What does betadine release into the skin?
Free iodine
39
What decreases the effectiveness of hexachlorophene?
Pus or serum
40
Hexachlorophene should not be used on what patients?
Premature infants
Denuded skin
Burns
Mucous membranes
41
Define toxicology
Study of poisons
42
Residual amounts of hexachlorophene can be removed with what?
Alcohol
43
Glutaraldehyde is used to sterilize materials that are not resistant to heat and is effective against what kind of bacteria?
Vegetative
44
What % is hydrogen peroxide usually available in?
3%
45
What is hydrogen peroxide usually used to treat?
NUG
46
What is mostly used in a solid form to cauterize mucous membranes and to treat aphthous ulcers?
Silver nitrate
47
What is the most common side effect of silver nitrate?
Turns skin black
48
What is silver nitrate in liquid form used for?
Gonorrheal ophthalmia
49
What happens if a wet dressing of silver nitrate dries out?
Causes argyria
| Turns skin slate grey, uncureable
50
Prior to penicillin, what was the first effective chemotherapeutic?
Sulfonamides
51
What year was penicillin introduced?
1941
52
What is penicillin's mechanism of action?
Inhibits cells wall synthesis
53
Penicillin G, Aqueous may only be administered how?
Parenteral IV only
54
Penicillin G, Benazathine is used to treat infections caused by what group of bacteria?
Streptococcal group A
55
Define therapeutics
Science of treating disease by any method that will relive pain, treat or cure infection
56
What has a longer duration of action than most other penicillins?
Penicillin G, Procain, Aqueous
57
What is the drug of choice for uncomplicated group A beta hemolytic streptococcal infections?
Penicillin V Potassium
58
What is used to teat penicillin G resistant staphylococci?
Dicloxacillin sodium
| Dynapen
59
What is used to treat shigella, salmonella, e-coli and gonorrhea?
Ampicillin
| Polycillin
60
Amoxicillin is preferred over Ampicillin due to it's effectiveness to treat what?
Shiggella
61
Amoxicillin and Clavulante potassium are used to treat infections caused by what?
Bacteria
62
Cephalosporin C is an antimicrobial agent of what origin?
Fungal
63
What percentage of PTs allergic to penicillin may also be allergic to cephalosporin?
5-16%
64
Cephalosporin antibiotics are generally divided into how many generations?
3
65
What is a unique characteristic about third generation cephalosporin agents?
Much broader gram-negative spectrum
66
What was the first truly broad spectrum antibiotic?
Tetracycline
| Introduced in 1948
67
What is tetracycline's mechanism of action?
Blocking formation of polypeptides used in protein synthesis
68
What is the most common side effect of tetracyclines?
Gastrointestinal disturbances
| Not indicated for children/pregnant women
69
Why should children and pregnant women not take tetracyclines?
Discolors teeth and depresses bone marrow growth
70
What should not be consumed while taking tetracyclines?
Milk
| Antacids
71
What is given for rocky mounted spotted fever?
Tetracycline
72
When is tetracycline given around meal time?
1hr before
| 2hrs after
73
What is the method of action in aminoglycosides?
Inhibits protein synthesis
74
Define pharmacy
Preparation, dispensing and proper use of meds
75
When is neomycin sulfate used?
Skin infections/burns
| Reduce intestinal flora pre surgery
76
What is used in patients w/ penicillin sensitivities?
Macrolides
77
What is the drug of choice when penicillin is contraindicated?
Erythromycin
78
What is a side effect of erythromycin?
Skin sunburns easily
79
What is the treatment for Vincent's angina?
Hydrogen Peroxide
80
Treatment of choice for tinea pedis?
Undecyclenic acid
81
What accounts for the largest number of chronic disabling diseases?
Parasitic infections
82
What is prescribed, despite it's toxicity, for scabies and ectoparasites?
Permethrin
83
Drug of choice for pin worms and round worms?
Mebendanzole
84
What is chloroquine phosphate used for?
Acute malarial attacks
85
What laxative is preferred by the x-ray dept?
Magnesium citrate
86
What laxative produces effect in 6hrs?
Dulcolax
87
What laxative takes up to 72hrs to produce it's effect?
Metamucil
88
What drug is known as potassium sparing?
Triamterene
89
What drug is known as potassium depleting?
Hydrochlorothiazide
90
What medication is prescribed for PTs allergic to aspirin?
Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
91
When is Motrin not recommended?
GI bleeding
Renal impairment
3rd trimester
92
When is Mobic contraindicated?
3rd trimester
93
What chapter of the MANMED sets for the control, custody and accountability for controlled substances?
Chpt 21
94
What CNS stimulant is used in conjunction w/ diet therapy for obesity?
Dexadrine
95
What is the drug of choice for petit mal epilepsy?
Phenobarbital
| Luminal
96
What CNS depressant is used for short term treatment of insomnia?
Pentobarbital
97
The major medical use for opium has been for what?
Anti-peristaltic activity
98
What synthetic analgesic is not as effective as morphine in its analgesic properties?
Demerol
99
What are the 3 types of psychotherapeutic agents?
Major tranquilizers
Minor tranquilizers
Mood modifiers
100
What is considered a good all around tranquilizer?
Thioridazine
| Mellaril
101
What is the drug of choice for schizophrenia?
Haldol
102
What is the drug of choice for status epilepticus?
Diazepam
| Valium
103
In the US military, valium is also known as what?
CANA- Convulsive Antidote, Nerve Agent
104
Prozac can also be useful in treating what else?
Bulimia
| OCD
105
What med is used for short term treatment of insomnia?
Ambien
106
Define toxic dose
Least amount of medication that will produce symptoms of poisoning
107
What skeletal muscle relaxant is prescribed in conjunction with physical therapy?
Flexeril
108
What term is used to describe the normal adult dose?
Therapeutic dose
109
What vitamin is necessary for carbohydrate metabolism?
Vitamin B1
| Thiamine
110
Deficiency of what vitamin leads to diagnosis of beriberi?
Vitamin B1
| Thiamine
111
What vitamin functions as a coenzyme necessary for tissue respiration?
Vitamin B2
| Riboflavin
112
Deficiency of Vitamin B2 results in what?
Visual disturbances
| Fatigue
113
What vitamin is used in the treatment of pellagra?
Vitamin B3
| Niacin
114
What vitamin is used in conjunction of INH therapy?
```
Vitamin B6
(Pyridoxine hydrochloride)
```
115
What vitamin regulates calcium and phosphorus metabolism?
Vitamin D
116
Deficiency of Vitamin D leads to what in adults/kids?
Adults: Asteomalacia
Kids: Rickets
117
What vitamin is necessary in preventing RBCs from being destroyed?
Vitamine E
118
Which fat soluble vitamin has many synthetic forms that are water soluble?
Vitamin K
119
What inhalation anesthesia is used in most operative procedures with patients of all ages?
Halothane
| Fluothane
120
What drug is use for spinal anesthesia?
Procaine hydrochloride
| Novocaine
121
What drug is the standard which all other anesthetics are compared?
```
Lidocaine hydrochloride
(0.05g max /hr when used w/ epinephrine
```
122
What topical anesthetic is used for almost every ophthalmic procedure?
Proparacaine
| Ophthectic, Ophthaine
123
What two factors affecting dosage?
Age (most common)
| Weight
124
What oxytocic treats postpartum and post-abortal hemorrhage?
Ergonovine maleate
125
What has a more direct bearing on the dose than any otehr factor?
Weight
126
What instruction is referred to for immunizations?
BUMEDINST 6230.15
127
How is Hep A exposed?
Food/water
128
How is Hep B exposed?
Blood/bodily fluids
129
What causes acute febrile respiratory viral infections that cause epidemics within military populations?
Influenza A/B
130
Mode of transmission for MMR?
Respiratory
| Person-to-person
131
Define metrology
Arithmetic of pharmacy
| Study and science of weights and measures
132
What is the official system of weight and measures?
Metric system
133
What is the relationship of one quality to another of like value?
Ratio
134
What is the expression of equality of two ratios?
Proportion
135
Define elixirs
Aromatic, sweetened hydroalcholic solutions containing meds
136
Define suspensions
Course dispersions comprised of finely divided insoluble material suspended in a liquid medium
137
Define ointments
Semisolid, fatty or oily preparations of medicinal substances
138
What are the two types of balances?
Torsion
| Electronic
139
All pharmacies are required to have how many of this Class A balance
One
140
What is the angle of taper within a ribbed funnel?
60*
141
What is the name of a glass container with metric measurements inscribed on it?
Erlenmeyer flask
142
What is used to reduce substances to fine powders?
Mortar and pestle
143
What is a knife-like utensil with a rounded, flexible, smoothly ground blade for transferring quantities?
Spatula
144
What is used to measure liquids volumetrically?
Graduates
145
Define immiscibility
Incapable of being mixed of two or more liquids
146
Define salting out
Precipitation due to change in solution that results in decreased solubility
147
Define eutexia
Liquification of solids mixed in a dry state
148
What is the other name of the Metric system?
International system of units
149
What are the prefixes for 10, 100, 1000?
Deca
Hecto
Kilo
150
What are the prefixes for 1, 01, 001?
Deci 1/10
Centi 1/100
Milli 1/1000
151
What should not follow metric symbols?
Period
152
What are the basic units of Apothercaries' system?
Weight: grain "gr"
Volume: minim "m"
153
What are the basic units of weight in Avoirdupois system?
dram: 27.344 grains
ounce: 16 drams
pound: 16 ounces
154
?ml=1tsp
5ml=1tsp
155
?ml=1tbsp
15ml=1tbsp
156
?tbsp=1/2 fl oz
15ml=1/2 fl oz
157
What is the most important tool used by the pharmacy?
Prescription
158
What form is used for one medication order?
DD 1289
159
What form is used for multiple medication order?
NAVMED 6710/6
160
What is the max number of prescriptions that can be ordered on a NAVMED 6710/6?
```
4
superscription
inscription
subscription
signa
```
161
What form are controlled meds ordered on?
DD 1289
162
How many parts are in the DD 1289?
4 parts
163
Define superscription
Take thou
164
Define inscription
Quantity of med
165
Define subscription
Directions to the compounder
166
Define signa
Directions to the patient
167
Verification of labels on meds occurs how many times when filling a prescription?
3 times
168
What symbol follows schedule 2-5 meds?
2: N
| 3-5: C
169
All prescriptions not filed separately are maintained in?
General files
170
How long are prescriptions required to be kept on file?
2 yrs
171
How man refills per schedule are allowed?
I- not acceptable for use
II- fill w/in 7 days
III- fill w/in 30 days
IV- 5 refills w/in 6 mon
172
How often is inventory of controlled substances conducted?
Quarterly
173
How many members are appointed to the CSIB by the CO?
3 members
174
Define pyrogens
Products of the growth of microorganisms
175
Young's rule
Age in yrs/age in yrs +12 x normal adult dose
176
Clark's rule
PT lbs/150 x adult dose
177
What is the lab form number?
SF 545
178
Where is a listing of SF forms found?
P-117
179
Alcohol pads contain what percentage of a solution?
70%
180
Which finger is the best to stick?
Middle or ring
| Puncture perpendicular to grooves
181
How deep is a lancet puncture?
2mm
182
What is the preferred source of blood for clinical examination?
Venipuncture
183
Why is the first drop of blood wiped away from a finger stick?
Prevent sample dilution from tissue fluid
184
Proper tourniquet placement?
3-4" above site
185
What angle is a venipuncture needle inserted?
15-30*
186
When is tourniquet removed during venipuncture procedure?
When blood flows into tube
187
Max time a tourniquet can be left?
1 min
188
What color tube is best choice for routine chem tests?
Red top
189
What color tube is used for CBC?
Lavender
190
What additive is in green top tubes?
Heparin
191
What part of the microscope is the prepared specimen placed for examination?
Mechanical stage
192
What objective is used for a detailed history of stained bacterial smears?
Oil immersion
193
What are the 3 objectives/strengths on a microscope?
10x- low
40x- high
100x- oil immersion
194
Magnification of the ocular lens?
10x
195
What 5 tests are included in a CBC?
```
RBC count
Hemoglobin determination
Hematocrit calculation
WBC count
WBC differential
```
196
What 3 factors affect hemoglobin values?
Age
Sex
Altitude
197
Low RBC count means?
Anemia
198
Normal hemoglobin levels /100ml of blood?
M: 14-18
F: 12-16
199
Define hematocrit
Volume of erythrocytes expressed as a % of whole blood volume
200
Normal hematocrit values?
M: 42-52%
F: 37-47%
201
What is the normal WBC count?
4,800-10,800/mm^3
202
What term means high WBC count?
Leukocytosis
203
What term means low WBC count?
Leukopenia
204
What causes leukopenia?
Radiation
Anaphylactic shock
Viral infections
205
What part of the CBC is most indicative of the severity of an infection?
WBC differential
206
What are the 5 types of WBC?
```
Neutrophil
Eosinophil
Basophil
Lymphocyte
Monocyte
```
207
Define morphology
Study of the form and structure of organisms
208
What comprises the largest % of leukocytes?
Neutrophil
209
What leukocyte functions by ingesting bacteria?
Neutrophil
210
What leukocyte responds to parasitic infections and allergic reactions?
Eosinophils
211
What WBC has a large, scattered dark blue granules that are darker than the nucleus?
Basophils
212
Rise in basophils is indicative of what?
Inflammatory disorders
| Leukemias
213
What WBC fights viral infections?
Lymphocyte
214
What WBC has a clear sky blue halo around the cytoplasm?
Lymphocyte
215
What is the term for bacteria that cause disease?
Pathogen
216
What WBC has bluish-gray cytoplasm and is the largest of the WBCs?
Monocyte
217
4 growth requirements for bacteria?
Temperature
Oxygen
Nutrition
Moisture
218
3 bacterial shapes?
Cocci- round
Rod- bacillus
Spiral- spirochete
219
What bacteria causes strep throat?
Streptococcus pyogenes
220
What bacteria causes bubonic plague?
Yersinia pestis
221
What is the name of a foreign body that causes a detectable reaction?
Antigen
222
What test is used to detect syphilis?
RPR
223
Monospot test for?
Mononucleosis
224
What is indicative of a pos RPR?
Black clumps on white background
| Neg- gray
225
What is a positive monospot test look like?
Agglutination
| clumping
226
Best urine specimen for screening?
Morning void
227
What is the desired urine amount for testing?
12ml
| 10-15 for children
228
What color urine will have bile present?
yellow or brown
229
What color urine will have Pyridium?
Dark orange
230
Normal specific gravity limits
1.015-1.030
231
If one drop of 2% acetic acid is added to urine it will dissolve what cells?
RBCs
232
What cell is not normally found in urine?
RBCs
233
What urine test result is indicative of uncontrolled diabetes?
Glucose and ketones in urine
234
What are the 2 methods of collecting blood?
Capillary
| Venipuncture
235
When is venipuncture method selected?
Pediatric
Severely burned
ICU
236
What part of the microscope concentrates and focuses the light onto the specimen?
Condenser
237
What part of the microscope is located on the condenser to control the amount and angle of light?
Iris diaphragm
238
What usually causes leukocytosis?
Systemic or localized infections
239
Psychrophilic temp range
Cold loving
| 4*C
240
Mesophilic temp range
Body temp
| 35*C
241
Thermophilic temp range
42*C
242
Normal adult urine output?
600-2000ml
| 1500ml average
243
What causes urine to be yellow or brown but turn green when shaken?
Bile
244
WBC count for PT w/ acute infection
Above 50,000
245
What Hgb concentration indicates anemia?
Below 7
246
Specific gravity will be highest when?
Morning
247
What instrument is used to test specific gravity?
Refractometer
248
How long does it take for urine reagent strips to show results?
2min
249
What level of magnification is used to examine urine?
40x
250
What microscopic observation may indicate a urinary tract disease?
More than 3 WBC in high-powered field
251
Casts in a urine sample indicate what?
Kidney disorder
| Urine will have albumin
252
Casts in urine indicate?
Albumin
