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Review Questions for MRI- Carolyn Roth & William Faulkner Jr. > Part A: MRI screening and safety > Flashcards

Part A: MRI screening and safety Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Family members and ancillary personnel accompanying the patient in the scan room:
    a. Need not screened because they are not undergoing MRI
    b. Can enter the scan room to check on the patient but cannot stay during scanning
    c. Should be screened as if they are going through the procedure themselves
    d. Must wear a lead apron during the procedure
A

c. Should be screened as if they are going through the procedure themselves

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2
Q
  1. In preparation for the MRI examination, patients should be encouraged to:
    a. Wear their own clothing so as the feel ‘at home’ with the study
    b. Wear a wrist watch so they are aware of the length of the exam
    c. Keep their hearing aid in so as to hear to hear the commands and requests of the technologist
    d. Change into a hospital down or scrub suit provided by the imaging center and known to be MR safe (containing no metallic components such as snaps and/ or zippers)
A

d. Change into a hospital down or scrub suit provided by the imaging center and known to be MR safe (containing no metallic components such as snaps and/ or zippers)

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3
Q
  1. Mrs Jones has just been sent to the MRI department from the emergency room, following a eve motor vehicle accident. She has suffered a fracture of C3 and her physicians are concerned about a cervical spinal cord compression a that level. Select the best method for proceeding with this case.
    a. Rush her quickly into the scanner on her own stretcher so as not to aggravate the fracture.
    b. Ask her and her family about the possibility of her having metal fragments in her body
    c. On finding out that he has had a total hip replacement, cancel the exam
    d. Allow her to wear her favorite gold necklace during the procedure
A

b. Ask her and her family about the possibility of her having metal fragments in her body

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4
Q
  1. Persons that should be educated about the effects of the static magnetic field, especially in high field superconducting magnets include:
  2. The nursing staff and the code team
  3. The housekeeping staff and members of the fire department
  4. The anesthesiologists and respiratory therapists
  5. The technologist and the radiologist

a. 4 only
b. 1 and 4 only
c. 1, 3 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

A

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

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5
Q
  1. According to the White Paper on MRI safety, persons are identified into “levels” whereby :Level 2” personnel include:
    a. Persons with no MRI safety training
    b. Persons with limited MRI safety training
    c. Persons with extensive training in MRI safety to include the broader aspects of MRI (such as the magnetic field,. gradient and RF fields- to name a few)
    d. There are no Level 2 personnel in the White Paper of MRI safety
A

c. Persons with extensive training in MRI safety to include the broader aspects of MRI (such as the magnetic field,. gradient and RF fields- to name a few)

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6
Q
  1. According to the White Paper on MRI safety, imaging centers should be separate into ‘Zones’ including all of the following EXCEPT:
    a. Zone 0- the parking lot
    b. Zone 1- freely accessible to any ‘Level’ if MRI personnel
    c. Zone 2- the interface between Zone 1 and Zone 2
    d. Zone 3- the ‘warm’ Zone, generally the console area and the last stop before the scan room
    e. Zone 4- The ‘hot’ Zone, the scan room itseld
A

a. Zone 0- the parking lot

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7
Q
  1. A screening questionnaire for patients about to undergo MRI should include information about:
    a. Prior injuries
    b. Prior surgery and implants
    c. Pregnancy
    d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

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8
Q
  1. the terminology for devices and implants in the MRI was modified a few years ago, whereby the term MR compatible has been replaced with all of the following EXCEPT:
    a. MR reliable
    b. MR safe
    c. MR unsafe
    d. MR conditional
A

a. MR reliable

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9
Q
  1. Absolute contraindications to MRI include:
  2. Intracranial vascular clips, unless they are KNOWN to be safe
  3. Cardiac pacemakers, unless they are KOWN to be safe
  4. Pregnancy
  5. Intraocular, ferrous foreign bodies

a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1, 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 4 only

A

d. 1, 2 and 4 only

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10
Q
  1. The accepted standard of care for the detection of intraocular ferrous foreign bodies is:
    a. Computed tomography
    b. MRI
    c. Plain film
    d. Visual examination
A

c. Plain film

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11
Q
  1. A method that is more accurate in the detection of small intraocular ferrous foreign bodies is:
    a. Computed tomography (CT)
    b. MRI
    c. Plain film
    d. Visual examination
A

a. Computed tomography (CT)

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12
Q
  1. Before a patient enters the MRI environment they should be screened for:
    a. Prior injuries
    b. Prior surgical implants
    c. Pregnancy
    d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

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13
Q
  1. Of the following implants, which would be considered acceptable to scan by MRI?
    a. Ferrous aneurysms clips
    b. Neurostimulators
    c. Cardiac Pacemakers
    d. Heart valves
A

d. Heart valves

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14
Q
  1. If monitoring is to be achieved by electrical and/or mechanical devices, it is important that compatibility with the MR system be demonstrated by:
    a. Clearance by the FDA (Food and Drug Administration)
    b. Prior testing
    c. Manufacturer declaration
    d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

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15
Q
  1. The following items are usually allowed to enter the scan room in high magnetic field systems:
    a. Surgical stainless steel hemostats
    b. Surgical steel scissors
    c. Copper tools
    d. Laryngoscopes
A

c. Copper tools

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16
Q
  1. When used for MRI, cables from RF coils and ECG leads should be:
    a. Braided and placed straight through the imager
    b. Laid along the patient’s right arm, along the bore
    c. Formed into loops within the imager
    d. Neatly coiled and ready for use
A

a. Braided and placed straight through the imager

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17
Q
  1. Surface coil cables can potentially cause damage to the patient when:
    a. They are not frayed and rest along the arm of the patient
    b. They are slightly touching the patient and are frayed
    c. They are looped and not touching the patient
    d. All of the above
    e. None of the above
A

d. All of the above

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18
Q
  1. A quench can be used to:
    a. Improve image quality in MRI
    b. Rapidly remove superconductivity and the magnetic field
    c. Maintain magnetic field homogeneity
    d. Satisfy the thirst of the technologist
    e. Lubricate the magnet coils
A

b. Rapidly remove superconductivity and the magnetic field

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19
Q
  1. During a quench, patients and operators should be evacuated from the room to avoid:
    a. Asphyxiation and frostbite
    b. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
    c. Ruptured tympanic membranes
    d. a and c
    e. a, b and c
A

d. a and c

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20
Q
  1. What is regulated by FDA?
    a. Length
    b. Diameter
    c. Acoustic noise
    d. Scan time
A

c. Acoustic noise

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21
Q
  1. For optimum operation of MRI systems, the ambient temperature and relative humidity should remain between:
    a. 30°F and 50°F/ 30% and 50%
    b. 65°F and 75°F/ 65% and 70%
    c. 70°F ad 90°F/ 70% and 100%
    d. No specific temperature or humidity range
A

b. 65°F and 75°F/ 65% and 70%

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22
Q
  1. The acceptable safe level for exposure to magnetic fringe fields with respect to patients with cardiac pacemakers has been reported to be:
    a. Between 5g and 15g
    b. Between 5T and 15T
    c. Between 15g and 30g
    d. Below 5g
A

d. Below 5g

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23
Q
  1. Magnetic field shielding can be achieved either actively or passively. Passive shielding can be achieved by lining the MRI room with:
    a. Copper
    b. Steel
    c. Lead
    d. None of the above
A

b. Steel

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24
Q
  1. RF shielding can be achieved by lining the MRI room with:
    a. Copper
    b. Steel
    c. Lead
    d. None of the above
A

a. Copper

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25
Q
  1. It is acceptable for the general population to be exposed to a field strength of:
    a. 2.0 Tesla
    b. 4.0 Tesla
    c. 8.0 Tesla
    d. 5.0 gauss
A

d. 5.0 gauss

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26
Q
  1. The unit of measure of RF absorption is:
    a. Watts per pound
    b. Volts per pound
    c. Watts per kilogram
    d. Volts per kilogram
A

c. Watts per kilogram

27
Q
  1. MR imagers are magnetic field shielded such that:
    a. Any metallic objects can enter the scan room
    b. The fringe field is confined to/ within the bore
    c. The fringe field is confined to / within the scan room
    d. There is no fringe field
A

c. The fringe field is confined to / within the scan room

28
Q
  1. Fringe files are less of a concern for:
    a. Mid-field superconducting imagers
    b. Low-field resistive imagers
    c. High-field superconductive imagers that are shielded
    d. Low field, vertical field permanent magnet imagers
A

d. Low field, vertical field permanent magnet imagers

29
Q
  1. In July of 2003, the FDA’s Center for Devices and Radiological Health (CDRH) modified the limit on RF absorption (dose) to ______ for the HEAD
    a. 2.0 W/kg absorption for 5 minutes
    b. 3.0 W/kg absorption for 10 minutes
    c. 4.0 W/kg absorption for 15 minutes
    d. 12.0 W/kg absorption for 5 minutes
A

c. 4.0 W/kg absorption for 15 minutes

30
Q
  1. The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) limits the allowable RF absorption to:
    a. 0.2 W/kg averaged over the body
    b. 0.4 W/kg averaged over the body
    c. 2.0 W/kg averaged over the body
    d. 4.0 W/kg averaged over the body
A

d. 4.0 W/kg averaged over the body

31
Q
  1. The term used to describe RF absorption is:
    a. Sensitive acquisition range (SAR)
    b. Specific absorption rate (SAR)
    c. Susceptibility attack region (SAR)
    d. None of the above
A

b. Specific absorption rate (SAR)

32
Q
  1. The predominant biologic effect of RF fields is:
    a. Induced voltages
    b. Tissue heating
    c. Hypothermia
    d. Magnetic hemodynamic effect
A

b. Tissue heating

33
Q
  1. RF antenna effects can cause:
    a. Better reception on tour car radio
    b. RF interference artifacts
    c. Thermal injury and flames
    d. b and c
A

d. b and c

34
Q
  1. The FDA limits the effect of RF absorption to an increase in core body temperature of:
    a. 0.1°C
    b. 1°C
    c. 10°F
    d. There is no limit
A

b. 1°C

35
Q
  1. The increase is body temperature as the result of RF absorption is:
    a. Barely detectable
    b. Greatest on the outside, becoming less at the center
    c. Greatest at the center, becoming less on the surface
    d. Evenly distributed throughout the body
A

b. Greatest on the outside, becoming less at the center

36
Q
  1. RF energy used in MRI is classified as:
    a. High energy, ionizing radiation
    b. High energy, nonionising radiation
    c. Low energy, nonionising radiation
    d. Low energy, ionising radiation
A

c. Low energy, nonionising radiation

37
Q
  1. As the flip angle is doubled, RF deposition increases by a factor of:
    a. One
    b. Two
    c. Three
    d. Four
A

d. Four

38
Q
  1. RF heating is more of a concern in imaging sequence such as:
    a. Gradient echo
    b. Echo planar
    c. Spin echo
    d. Fast spin echo
A

d. Fast spin echo

39
Q
  1. Areas of the body that are most sensitive to the heat (from SAR) are:
    a. Brain and spinal cord
    b. Vertebral bodies
    c. Globes of the eyes and testicles
    d. Pancreas and liver
A

c. Globes of the eyes and testicles

40
Q
  1. For adult imaging in MRI, the FDA guidelines limit the field strength of clinical imagers to:
    a. 1.5T and below
    b. 2T and below
    c. 4.0T
    d. 8.0T
A

d. 8.0T

41
Q
  1. A magnetic field strength of 1T is equal to:
    a. 1000g
    b. 10 000g
    c. 100 000g
    d. 10g
A

b. 10 000g

42
Q
  1. All of the following are regulated by the FDA EXCEPT:
    a. Field strength of the main magnet for clinical imaging
    b. RF absorption (SAR)
    c. Gradient length
    d. Acoustic noise
A

c. Gradient length

43
Q
  1. No biologic effects have been reported in humans as the result of exposore to:
    a. Static magnetic fields above 2T
    b. Time-varying magnetic fields
    c. RF fields
    d. Static magnetic fields below 2T
A

d. Static magnetic fields below 2T

44
Q
  1. The field strength at the isocenter is measured in units of:
    a. Gauss
    b. Tesla
    c. Watts
    d. SAR
A

b. Tesla

45
Q
  1. Magnetic field strength outside the imager is usually measured in:
    a. Gauss
    b. Tesla
    c. Watts
    d. SAR
A

a. Gauss

46
Q
  1. The attractive force that an object will experience at a distance of 6 feet from isocenter is dependent on:
    a. The ferromagnetic properties of the object
    b. The mass of the object
    c. The field strength of the system
    d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

47
Q
  1. As a conductive medium (e.g blood) moves across a magnetic field, an effect known as the magnetic hemodynamic effect occurs, resulting in:
    a. Increased blood pressure
    b. Increased temperature
    c. Elevated T-wave
    d. No noticeable effect
A

c. Elevated T-wave

48
Q
  1. It is _____ for all patients to be provided with hearing protection in the form of _____.
    a. Required/ headphones or earplugs
    b. Recommended/ headphones or earplugs
    c. Required/ head coil
    d. Recommended/ helmet
A

b. Recommended/ headphones or earplugs

49
Q
  1. The gradient magnetic fields:
    a. Produce heat in the gradient coils during the scan
    b. Can produce noise to cause temporary hearing loss
    c. Change rapidly during the scanning process
    d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

50
Q
  1. When a patient is placed within the bore of the magnetic resonance imager, an effect can be noted on the ECG whereby there is an elevated ‘T’ wave. This ‘effect’ is known as all EXCEPT:
    a. Magnetohyrodynamic effect
    b. Magnet-hydrodynamic effect
    c. Magnet-hemodynamic effect
    d. Magnetophosphenes
A

d. Magnetophosphenes

51
Q
  1. The ‘effect’ whereby the patient experiences a visual impression of seeing ‘stars in their eyes’, is known as _________.
    a. Magnetohyrodynamic effect
    b. Magnet-hydrodynamic effect
    c. Magnet-hemodynamic effect
    d. Magnetophosphenes
A

d. Magnetophosphenes

52
Q
  1. The FDA limit on time-varying magnetic fields is ________.
    a. 10 G/cm
    b. 6 T/s
    c. 1 G/cm
    d. Until the patient experiences peripheral nerve stimulation
A

d. Until the patient experiences peripheral nerve stimulation

53
Q
  1. Time-varying magnetic field (TVMF) effects include all of the following EXCEPT:
    a. Heat and increases body temperature
    b. Acoustic damage and hearing loss
    c. Peripheral nerve stimulation and tingling
    d. Magnetophosphenes and ‘stars in the eyes’
A

a. Heat and increases body temperature

54
Q
  1. TVMF effects are of greater concern for which scan sequences?
    a. FSE
    b. EPI
    c. GE
    d. SE
A

b. EPI

55
Q
  1. The strength of gradient magnetic fields is measued in:
    a. MilliTesla per meter
    b. Watts per kilogram of body weight
    c. Watts per time
    d. Gauss per centimeter
    e. a and d
A

e. a and d

56
Q
  1. Gradient magnetic fields are a safety concern because they:
    a. Produce large amounts of RF energy
    b. Induce currents in conductors
    c. Cause short-term memory loss
    d. All of the above
A

b. Induce currents in conductors

57
Q
  1. Time-varying magnetic fields have reported to have caused:
    a. Mild cutaneous sensations and images of flashing lights in patients
    b. Involuntary muscle contractions and cardiac arrhythmias in patients
    c. Neither of the above
    d. a and b
A

d. a and b

58
Q
  1. The FDA limit for the static magnetic field for clinical imaging for patients over 1 month of age is:
    a. 1.0T
    b. 1.5T
    c. 4.0T
    d. 8.0T
A

c. 4.0T

59
Q
  1. The FDA limit for the static magnetic field for clinical imaging (including any and all patients) is:
    a. 1.0T
    b. 1.5T
    c. 4.0T
    d. 8.0T
A

c. 4.0T

60
Q
  1. The imaging sequence that is of most concern for time-varying magnetic field effects is:
    a. Spin echo
    b. Gradient echo
    c. Fast pspn echo
    d. Echo planar
A

d. Echo planar

61
Q
  1. Gradient rise time is:
    a. The time it takes for a gradient to get to full amplitude
    b. The time it takes for the cake to rise
    c. The time it takes for one TR to occur
    d. The time it takes for one acquisition to be complete
A

a. The time it takes for a gradient to get to full amplitude

62
Q
  1. The duty cycle is:
    a. The time it takes for the gradient to reach its full amplitude
    b. The time it takes for one TR to occur
    c. The time the gradients are on during a TR period
    d. How much the gradient changes the magnetic field over a specific distance
A

c. The time the gradients are on during a TR period

63
Q
  1. To avoid auditory damage during MRI, all patients should be offered:
    a. Headphones
    b. Earplugs
    c. Antinoise devices
    d. a and b
    e. a, b and c
A

e. a, b and c

Review Questions for MRI- Carolyn Roth & William Faulkner Jr. (18 decks)

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