Burns Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three types of burns?

A

Thermal, chemical, and radiation.

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2
Q

What piece of basic support is common with burns? Why?

A

Oxygen.

Inhalation injury, inflammation or compression of airways, increased oxygen demand.

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3
Q

What is usually done immediately upon arrival with burns to the neck and throat? What symptom indicates this need?

A

Intubation. Stridor is a strong indicator of need to intubate.

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4
Q

What are the three types of smoke inhalation injuries?

A

Metabolic asphyxiation - CO bonds with hemoglobin over O2 - pulse ox won’t work here, need SpCO

Upper airway - above the glottis - more dangerous due to more limited airway space

Lower airway - below the glottis

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5
Q

What assessment is extremely important with inhalation injuries?

A

Auscultation of the lungs.

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6
Q

What is the Lund-Browder calculation?

A

An accurate method of determining the percent of body surface area that has been burned.

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7
Q

Why is burn area calculation important?

A

Factors in to fluid resuscitation calculations.

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8
Q

Above what TBSA requires fluid resuscitation?

A

15% in adults, 10% in peds.

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9
Q

What 2 types of fluids are used in fluid resuscitation?

A

Crystaloids & colloids

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10
Q

What is the benefit of crystalloid fluids in burn patients?

A

Salt solutions are cheap volume replacement while maintaining osmolality.

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11
Q

What is the benefit of colloid fluids in burn patients?

A

Large molecules in colloids provide a greater expansion effect than crystalloids and require less volume in sensitive patients.

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12
Q

What is the Parkland (Baxter) formula?

A

Calculates fluid resuscitation volume for the first 24 hours.

4 mL * %TBSA * kg body weight.

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13
Q

What are the two rates that the Parkland fluid resuscitation formula runs at?

A

50% in the first 8 hours, 50% over the following 16 hours.

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14
Q

What factors increase the risk for complications from burns?

A

Old age, young age, preexisting heart, lung, and kidney disease, PVD, uncontrolled diabetes, malnutrition, alcoholism, drug abuse, obesity.

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15
Q

Why is high fluid volume throughput important in burns?

A

Protein from damaged tissue needs to be flushed through the kidneys rapidly to prevent renal damage. Fluid loss through wounds is also accelerated.

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16
Q

What is a complication common to circumferential burns? How is it dealt with?

A

Compartment syndrome. Escharotomy - skin is perforated to relieve pressure. Think of it like a skull flap but for skin.

17
Q

What is given prophylactically to nearly every burn patient?

A

A tetanus shot.

18
Q

What PPE is necessary for care of a burn pt with open wounds?

A

Gown, cap, gloves, and mask to protect them from you.

19
Q

What environmental parameter needs to be controlled for both SCI and burn patients?

A

Room temperature should be ~85, as pt has limited thermoregulation.

20
Q

What wound care complication can develop when pts must be subjected to extreme pain daily? What should be done to mitigate this?

A

PTSD. Always use IV analgesics before wound care, and assess for need for sedatives as well.

21
Q

What are the phases of burn care?

A

Pre-hospital - before specialized care is available.

Emergent - stabilization of injury. Think ABCs.

Acute - inpatient treatment of wounds - fluids, nutrition, wound care, surgical care, PT / OT, psychosocial support. Think infection, pain, nutrition, and support.

Rehabilitative - exercise, PT, nutrition, psych support. Think scarring, itching, limited mobility, etc.

22
Q

What are the two types of wound depth?

A

Full thickness - requires debridement and grafting.

Partial thickness - remove eschar, wound closes in 10-21 days.

23
Q

What are the two types of skin grafts?

A

Split-thickness - traditional “sheet” of skin, mesh-expanded and then applied to wound.

Cultured epithelial - biopsies are taken from the pt, grown in a lab, and then re-grafted.

24
Q

By how much does the metabolism accelerate in severe burn cases?

A

50% - 100%

25
Q

Why would a burn patient need TPN?

A

Throat damage, ventilation, unable to meet increased metabolic demand.

26
Q
A