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PMP Certificate '23 > PMP Exam REVIEW > Flashcards

PMP Exam REVIEW Flashcards

1
Q

What’s a Gap Analysis?

A

To find out the existing shortcomings, who needs training and increased knowledge, and who is at a good level.

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2
Q

Personas technique

A

Created to represent a user type that might use a site, brand, or product similarly.

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3
Q

Who helps produce the project charter?

A

The charter should be produced by the team, or at least with the team’s active participation.

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4
Q

The project manager decides on?

A

The overall direction of the projects

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5
Q

The product owner decides on?

A

The scope

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6
Q

The product owner is responsible for?

A

Prioritizing user stories and making decisions about the work.

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7
Q

What is risk mitigation?

A

The action is taken to reduce the probability of occurrence and/or impact of a threat.

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8
Q

What’s a sprint retrospective?

A

A meeting of the team members facilitated by the scrum master for the team to identify its own improvements.

Reviews the teams processes and practices and is used to identify ways the team can improve its performance, collaboration.

Retrospective looks at the qualitative (people’s feelings) and quantitative (measurements) data, then using that data to find root causes, designing countermeasures and developing action plans.

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9
Q

What happens in a sprint review?

A

the product is reviewed and improvements are identified.

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10
Q

What does the benefits management plan include?

A

The target benefits, such as net present value calculations, timeframe for realizing benefits, and the metrics associated with the benefits (strategic alignment).

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11
Q

What is reframing through diversity mean?

A

Complexity Management: Complex systems often benefit from viewing them from diverse perspectives.

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12
Q

In agile projects, the project deliverables will be?

A

will be reviewed and accepted incrementally throughout the project.

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13
Q

The project team charter includes?

A

The project team values, agreements, and operating guidelines, and establishes clear expectations regarding acceptable behavior by project team members.

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14
Q

The scrum master is?

A

The coach of the development team and process owner in the scrum framework.

Removes obstacles, facilitates productive events and defends the team from disruptions.

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15
Q

What is the requirements tractability matrix?

A

It’s a grid that links product requirements from their origin to the deliverables that satisfy them.

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16
Q

What are the benefits of a hybrid project management approach?

A

provides the opportunity for early revenue generation through incremental delivery as requested by the sponsor while allowing the project team members to work independently with individually assigned tasks.

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17
Q

What is decomposition used for?

A

dividing and subdividing the project scope and project deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts.

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18
Q

What is the Ishikawa diagram technique?

A

An effective way to indentify the root cause.

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19
Q

What is the 5 Whys technique?

A

Identifying the root cause of a problem by repeatedly using the question Why. The answer for each Why becomes the driver for identifying the next Why. It provides a visual representation of the problem being analyzed.

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20
Q

What are the benefits of negotiation skills?

A

Resolves conflicts to ensure success is achieved with minimal risk to project objectives and resolves various issues in projects, organizations and the business domain.

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21
Q

What is the payback period used to determine?

A

It’s used to determine the time needed to recover an investment. And is particularly useful to assess how long it will take to recoup the initial investment in the project.

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22
Q

What are the three scrum artifacts?

A

Increments, product backlog and sprint backlog

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23
Q

Who is the only person who has the authority to cancel the iteration?

A

The product owner.

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24
Q

What is the achievement theory?

A

People are motivated by the need for achievement, power, or affiliation.

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25
Q

In agile, on average, what range of productivity loss occurs?

A

20 percent to 40 percent

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26
Q

What does set-based design involve?

A

Set-based design involves investigating multiple designs or alternatives early in the project to reduce uncertainty. Explores options, consider trade-offs, and learn from working with various alternatives.

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27
Q

What are leading indicators used for?

A

Used to predict future project performance and enable proactive actions. Providing early warning signs that can help project managers take corrective measures before issues become critical.

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28
Q

What is a risk trigger?

A

Triggers are warning signs of an impending risk event (events or conditions that indicate that a risk is about to occur).

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29
Q

What does the Return on Investment measure?

A

Measures the amount of financial return compared to the cost of an investment.

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30
Q

What does a mood chart track?

A

Tracks the mood or reactions of a group of very important stakeholders.

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31
Q

What is impact mapping?

A

Impact mapping is a strategic planning method used to create a visual roadmap for aligning product development with an organization’s strategic goals.

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32
Q

To make sure that necessary measures are in place for successful launch the project manager should be?

A

Determining and aligning performance indicators that will help in assessing successful delivery.

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33
Q

What kind of approach/theory is Theory X?

A

Theory X assumes that individuals work primarily for income and are not highly ambitious. Theory X is a hand-on and top-down approach.

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34
Q

What do project management information systems ensure?

A

PMIS can ensure that stakeholders can easily retrieve the information they need in a timely way.

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35
Q

During which project stage are risk and stakeholders ability to influence project outcomes the highest?

A

Initiating stage is where stakeholders have the greatest ability to influence outcomes of the project. Risk is highest during this stage because of the high degree of unknown factors.

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36
Q

What happens during the iteration review meeting?

A

The product owner receives new requirements from the stakeholders and includes them in the product backlog

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37
Q

In agile, in order to accelerate the sharing of information within and across the organization, what method would you use?

A

By promoting aggressive transparency

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38
Q

What does the resource management plan provide?

A

The resource management plan provides guidance on various aspects of team development including disciplinary actions as a result of team performance assessments.

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39
Q

What does the issue log contain?

A

The project manager should first document the customer’s complaints and critical issues in the issue log.

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40
Q

What are the benefits of having T-Shaped people?

A

Helps in creating a cross-functional team, allows teams to self-organize, helps in forming smaller teams

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41
Q

What is step 1 of the Drexler/Sibbet Team Performance model?

A

Step 1 is orientation, which focuses on helping the project team learn the purpose and mission of the project.

42
Q

What does the stakeholder register include?

A

The organizational position, location and contact details and role on the project. Major requirements, expectations, potential for influencing project outcomes and the phase of the project life cycle where the stakeholder has the most influence or impact.

43
Q

In a ____ organization, the project manager doesn’t manage the budget.

A

functional organization

44
Q

If the project manager was working in a ____ organization, they would need to raise their request for more funds to the functional manager.

A

projectized or strong matirx organization

45
Q

with an adaptive approach the ___ and ____ are fixed, while the _____ can be adjusted to stay within the cost constraint.

A

cost and schedule are fixed, while the scope can be adjusted to stay within the cost constraint

46
Q

Quality audits are conducted to ensure

A

that the project activities comply with the organizational and project processes, policies, and procedures.

47
Q

Quality control focuses on

A

assessing the project performance and ensuring that the project outputs are complete, accurate, and meet customer expectations.

48
Q

the stakeholder engagement assessment matrix includes

A

unaware, resistant, neutral, supportive and leading

49
Q

Pre-assignment is one of the techniques that

A

project managers can use to ensure project success when certain resources are considered important or essential for the project. (predictive and hybrid work environment)

50
Q

A sprint backlog is the set of items that

A

the cross-functional team selects from the product backlog to work on during the upcoming sprint.

51
Q

The Earned Value (EV) is calculated using the following cost variance formula:

A

CV = EV - AC, meaning that the project’s EV = CV + AC

52
Q

the Scrum Master explained to the team that Agile is a(n) _______________, Scrum is a(n) ________________, Refactoring is a(n) __________________, and Product Backlog is a scrum _________________.

A

Agile is an approach. Scrum is a framework. Refactoring is a technique. The product backlog is a scrum artifact.

53
Q

A benefit-cost ratio (BCR) is a

A

monetary or qualitative metric that represents the relationship between a potential project’s costs and benefits.

54
Q

The product owner is responsible for the

A

product backlog.

55
Q

Assigning estimates is the responsibility of the

A

development team who is going to execute the task.

56
Q

When the project sponsor decides to terminate the project for any reason,

A

the project manager should follow their instructions and terminate the project.

57
Q

The product owner is responsible for placing the _____ and ______ items at the top of the product backlog.

A

clearest and most valuable

58
Q

Fishbowl windows and remote pairing

A

are two techniques used to manage communication in remote teams.

59
Q

Estimates should be provided by individuals who are assigned to do the work, such as

A

the development team, and not by the product owner or the Scrum Master.

60
Q

The Rolling wave method is used

A

to address uncertainty by planning near-term work in detail while planning future tasks in a more broad manner

it’s a form of progressive elaboration that sets up near-term plans and “rolls” into the longer term as more details become available

rolling wave planning allows work to progress in current and near-term deliverables while planning for potential work packages continues.

61
Q

Ideal hours are also referred to as

A

effort hours, man-hours, or person-hours

62
Q

When estimating tasks, we don’t use ______, because interruptions are common in an eight-hour workday.

A

business hours

63
Q

A Pareto chart is displayed as a histogram, illustrating

A

the most serious causes of an error

64
Q

a scatter diagram is used to determine the

A

correlation between two variables.

65
Q

________ are used to visually demonstrate how a business process, other systems, and people, all interact.

A

context diagrams

context diagrams can include a business process as one of its components, but they can’t give you an inside look at how the process flows.

66
Q

Flowcharts can be used for

A

process improvement as well as identifying where quality defects can occur or where to incorporate quality checks.

67
Q

adding a functionality that was not included in the initial website design requirements is considered

A

scope creep

Scope creep is not always caused by the client, it can also originate from the team itself, similarly to this case, where a task beyond what is required is added because the developer believes it would bring value.

68
Q

As a research story, a _____ represents a time-boxed effort that is dedicated to learning, architecture & design, prototypes, etc. to better understand critical technical or functional details and thus make accurate estimations.

A

spike

69
Q

_____ is a technique for enhancing product quality.

A

Refactoring

70
Q

_______ is used to determine which actions bring more value to customers.

A

A value stream

71
Q

It’s the responsibility of the product owner to

A

lead backlog refinement meetings. During one or more mid-sprint sessions, the product owner should collaborate with the team in order to prepare the user stories for the upcoming sprints

72
Q

The PERT estimation formula is:

A

(Optimistic + Pessimistic + (4 × Most likely)) ÷ 6.

73
Q

Theory Z

A

focuses on increasing employee loyalty to the organization by emphasizing their well-being both at work and outside of work. Opting for this motivational theory often leads to high employee satisfaction and morale, resulting in increased productivity

74
Q

Theory X

A

implies that employees are generally incompetent, have limited ambitions, avoid any kind of responsibility, and dislike work. Hence, authoritarian managers motivate their employees either by rewarding or punishing them.

75
Q

Theory Y

A

managers have a positive, optimistic view of their employees, considering them creative and committed to the organization’s objectives and vision

76
Q

Expectancy theory

A

Expectancy theory implies that employees’ performance depends on their expectations that a definite outcome will follow their performance. This outcome will be a reward for their accomplishments, thus they remain productive as long as the rewards meet their expectations.

77
Q

the cross-functional team’s estimation

A

should be the one considered.

the scrum master (aka team lead or project manager) should not estimate user stories.

78
Q

Technical debt (aka design debt or code debt)

A

implies the cost of rework incurred as a result of choosing a quick solution over a more time-consuming solution that would, however, ensure better quality.

79
Q

______ is the difference between the earned value (EV), i.e., the budgeted cost of work performed, and actual costs (AC). CV = EV – AC. If the variance is negative, the project is over budget and if the variance is positive, it is under budget.

A

The cost variance is the difference between the earned value (EV), i.e., the budgeted cost of work performed, and actual costs (AC). CV = EV – AC. If the variance is negative, the project is over budget and if the variance is positive, it is under budget.

80
Q

_________ is a checklist of all the criteria that must be met before a user story can be considered ready for the team to include in the sprint and start working on it

A

The Definition of Ready (DoR) is a checklist of all the criteria that must be met before a user story can be considered ready for the team to include in the sprint and start working on it

81
Q

_______ describe the product requirements, e.g., website menus, functionalities, services, etc.

A

Functional requirements

82
Q

______ is when a product serves its purpose as it is usable in its current state.

A

Fit for Use

83
Q

During the ________ process, deliverables are compared against the acceptance criteria and requirements in order to formally sign off the completed deliverables.

A

“Validate scope”

One of the outputs of the “Validate Scope” process is the accepted deliverables that were formally signed off and approved by the authorized stakeholder.

84
Q

________ should be carried out before the “Validate scope” process. “Validate Scope” consists in formalizing the approval and acceptance of the completed project deliverables.

A

“Control quality” and “Control scope”

85
Q

Companies that go for a _________ office design (refers to private spaces such as separate offices or cubicles and refers to common work areas) allow their agile team members to temporarily work in quiet separate areas if they are unable to concentrate in the common open area. However, once they have finished the work at hand, they should return to the common team space

A

Caves and Common

86
Q

____________ are collaboration techniques used by the Agile team

A

Pairing, swarming and mobbing

87
Q

_______ has the authority to cancel an ongoing sprint for any reason they think is valid. There is no sense to continue working on something that is not needed anymore.

A

The product owner

88
Q

Lean advocates making decisions

A

as late as possible.

89
Q

Individual and team assessment tools include

A

attitudinal surveys, specific assessments, structured interviews, ability tests, and focus groups.

90
Q

________is the identifier of the WBS components.

A

Code of accounts is the identifier of the WBS components. Control accounts, planning packages, and work packages are components of the WBS rather than identifiers. Control accounts present the highest level of the WBS, while work packages are the lowest level.

91
Q

______ is how long it takes for the team to complete a task. It’s measured from the time they start working on the task. Lead time, on the other hand, starts from the moment the task is added to the board

A

The cycle time

92
Q

Earned Value (EV) refers to

A

the value of completed work, based on the approved budget assigned to that work.

93
Q

Cost Variance (CV) is the

A

amount of budget deficit or surplus at a given point in time, expressed as the difference between the earned value and the Actual Cost (AC).

94
Q

Schedule Variance (SV) is a

A

measure of schedule performance expressed as the difference between the earned value and the Planned Value (PV).

95
Q

Cost forecasts are developed in the _____.

A

Control Cost process.

96
Q

The decision to close a project is taken during the _______.

A

Controlling process

97
Q

______ risks are those which are caused by the treatment or response to the risk

A

Secondary risks

98
Q

_______ risk is the risk that remains even after you have treated or responded to the risk.

A

Residual Risk

99
Q

Predefined budget allocation is an example of

A

Project constraints

100
Q

Negative SV indicates

A

Being behind schedule

101
Q

Process analysis identifies ______

A

opportunities for process improvements, examines problems, constraints, and non-value added that occur during a process.

102
Q

____ technique enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for further brainstorming or prioritization.

A

The nominal group technique

PMP Certificate '23 (8 decks)

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