Volume 2 Flashcards
Put-Call Parity ?
typiquement on ignore pv(X)
Put-Call-Forward Parity ?
typiquement on ignore pv(X)
Synthetic Long ?
Long Call, short Put.
Same X strike, same expiration date.
= hedge an existing short position or to arbitrage mispricing.
such a strategy would be implemented by an investor who has a bullish view of the market and an expectation that implied volatility will remain unchanged.
Synthetic Short ?
Long put, short call.
Same X strike, same expiration date.
= hedge an existing short position or to arbitrage mispricing.
Covered Call ?
Long underlying Stock, short Call.
a covered call, is appropriate if the expectation is that volatility of the underlying will be lower than the implied volatility of the call option.
What do we use a covered call for ?
1) yield enhancement:
receive premiums when limited upside in uderlying is expected.
If called away, results in a tax event.
2) Position reduction:
sell ITM calls (caution for tax mismatches)
3) Position exit @ target price = SELL CALLS @ target price.
Protective Put (max g&l, value @ expir, profit @ expir) ?
Breakeven price = S0 + p0
If Δ of our position > 0, when do we benefit ?
Else, if Δ < 0 ?
If Δ>0 = benefit from price increase of S0.
If Δ<0 = benefit from price decrease of S0.
What asset is positive delta ? Negative delta ? neutral delta ?
+Call: Δ>0
+ Put: Δ<0
+S0: Δ=1.
S0 movements impact on the delta of a covered call position ?
Covered call = long S0 (Δ=1); short C0 (Δ<0).
Donc as S0↑, short call Δ –> -1; covered call pos Δ –> 0.
As S0↓, short call Δ –> 0; covered call pos Δ –> 1.
S0 movements impact on the delta of a protective put position ?
Protective Put = long S0 (Δ=1); long S0 (Δ<0).
Donc as S0↑, long put Δ –> 0; protective put pos Δ –> 1.
As S0↓, long put Δ –> -1; protective put pos Δ –> 0.
What if we get a forward instead of an option to replicate a protective put or a covered call ?
Alors on remplace notre position sur S0 par F0. And the Forward will have a delta equal to the stock position.
!!!NOTABLE DIFFERENCE WITH OPTIONS!!! :
The delta of a forward position doesn’t change, unlike the one an option position (covered call/protective put).
Compare the effect of buying a call with the effect of selling a put; on a short underlying S0 position.
Bull Spread ?
Maximum profit per share of bull call spread = (XH – XL) – (cL – cH).
Bear Spread ?
Breakeven share price is calculated as XH – (pH – pL) = €31.00 – (€3.00 – €0.50) = €28.50.
long Straddle ?
long
short straddle ?
Strategy 7: Writing both the April €75.00 strike call option and the April €75.00 strike put option on XDF
The maximum gain is €5.76 per share, which represents the sum of the two option premiums, or c0 + p0 = €2.54 + €3.22 = €5.76. The maximum gain per share is realized if both options expire worthless, which would happen if the share price of XDF at expiration is €75.00.
Short straddle use case ?
the outlook is for the market to trade in a narrow range and an increase in implied volatility is expected.
Collars ?
protective put + sell a call = p0 - c0
You buy P0 with the money you get from selling C0 usually (= zero-cost collar).
Objective = limit downside loss of S0 with the long put, by cutting potential gains with the short call.
What’s a calendar spread ?
Buy and Sell the same type of option, but with different expiration dates.
Can be done with calls and puts.
Long Calendar spread ? Short calendar spread ?
1) Long Calendar Spread:
Sell near-term option, Buy long-dated Option.
2) Short Calendar Spread:
Buy near-term option, Sell long-dated Option.
When is gamma the largest ?
The largest gamma occurs when options are trading at the money or near expiration, when the deltas of such options move quickly toward 1.0 or 0.0. Under these conditions, the gammas tend to be largest and delta hedges are hardest to maintain.
Volatility skew&smile ?
y axis = implied volatility
x axis = strikes X of calls and puts @ different prices.
Increased implied volatility of options ET more OTM calls bought = DRAWS A VOLATILITY SMILE @ t+1 = BULLISH.
Historical volatility ?
Increase in Skew & Implied Volatility ?
If you have no increase in OTM calls buying AND increase in implied volatility = INCREASE IN SKEW = BEARISH.
What is a long Risk-reversal strategy ?
If we believe implied volatility of OTM PUTS is overpriced VS Implied vol of OTM CALLS.
To delta hedge the option position, we can sell the underlying asset S0.
Short risk reversal use case ?
This strategy would be implemented to benefit from an implied volatility skew.
Term structure of volatility ?
ATTENTION!!!!!
A LT sur la courbe bleue, ca peut repiquer vers le haut, parce que le futur peut être volatile même si le ST est volatile aussi (et on a donc un smile ou le mid-term est le moins volatile).
Options strategies matched with investment objectives and expected estimates of markets (implied vol, underlying S0) ?
Demonstrate how interest rate swaps can be used to modify a portfolio’s risk and return.
A pay-fixed, receive-floating swap has a negative (positive) duration from the perspective of a fixed-rate payer (receiver), because the duration of a fixed-rate bond is positive and larger than the duration of a floating-rate bond, which is near zero.
Moreover, the negative duration of this position to the fixed-rate payer/floating-rate receiver makes sense in that the position would be expected to benefit from rising interest rates.
Adjusting a Portfolio Duration (int swap) ?
Demonstrate how forwards can be used to modify a portfolio’s risk and return.
FRAs can be customized (OTC) and have counterparty risk.
Demonstrate how futures can be used to modify a portfolio’s risk and return.
Same as FRAs, but futures are exchange-traded and cash settled.
Eg. Eurodollar Futures –> Underlying = ref. rate on $1M (quoted on index basis: 100 - ref rate).
Fixed income futures –> Underlying is a generic GOV Bond.
Adjusting PF duration (Futures) ?
CTD = cheapest to deliver
BPV Target ?
BPV de n’importe quoi ?
Adjusting PF duration COMPLETE HEDGING (Futures) ?
B is correct. The basis point value of Portfolio A (BPVP) is $130,342.94, and the basis point value of the cheapest-to-deliver bond (BPVCTD) is $127.05 with a conversion factor of 0.72382. The basis point value hedge ratio (BPVHR), in the special case of complete hedging, provides the number of futures contracts needed, calculated as follows:
BPVhr= (−BPVpf / BPVctd) × CF
= (-$130,342.94 / $127.05) × 0.72382 = −742.58
Demonstrate how currency swaps, forwards and futures, can be used to modify a portfolio risk and return.
To manage a currency exposure:
Currency swap = notional exchanged at beg. and end of period; @ a fixed rate (no currency risk). Periodic interest pmts are exchanged (currency risk).
EG: A CANADIAN company enters a currency swap with an US.
1) @Inception = CANADIAN pays the notional principal of CAD and will receive an amount of USD according to the USD/CAD exchange rate
2) @each swap payment date = CANADIAN will receive interest in CAD and will pay interest in USD. Both payments are based on floating reference rates for their respective currencies. The CAD rate will also include a basis rate that is quoted separately.
In other words, on each settlement date, CANADIAN will receive an amount of CAD based on the CAD floating rate minus the basis rate applied to the swap notional value, and it will pay an amount of USD based on the USD floating rate and the USD/CAD exchange rate that was set at inception.
3) @maturity = The cash flows at maturity are the inverses of the cash flows at inception
Cross-currency swap (basis) ?
Demonstrate how currency forwards and futures, can be used to modify a portfolio risk and return.
Down the rate = divide.
Up the rate = multiply.
Demonstrate how equity swaps, forwards and futures, can be used to modify a PF risk and return.
Equity swap types ? Total Return swap ? what is the underlying ?
pay equity, receive floating/fixed/equity.
- Total Return swap = includes dividends.
- Underlying can be a single stock, a basket of stocks, or a stock index.
How to reduce stock market exposure ?
equity swap: rec fixed/floating; pay equity.
How to diversify a concentrated equity position ?
Equity swap: receive equity INDEX return;
pay single stock equity return.
Equity futures & forwards: what if the underlying is an equity index ? What if the underlying is a single equity stock ?
Index = Then the futures/fwd is cash settled
Single stock = then cash or physical settlement.
If the swap is physically settled, on the termination date, the equity swap receiver will receive the quantity of the single stock specified in the contract and pay the notional amount. Because Tryon wants to keep the shares (and not sell them to provide the notional amount), a cash-settled total return payer swap is an appropriate strategy that hedges the equity position in Inwood.
N° of equity futures contract / Currency futures so that we can hedge ourselves ?
How to change the β of a PF (avec des futures) ?
N° of equity futures contract we need to achieve the desired β.
Cash Equitization ?
βcash = 0.
demonstrate the use of volatility derivatives and variance swaps.
Being Long Volatility can be a hedge against a Long Equity PF (because when markets drop, volatility tends to increase).
Volatility futures & options ?
Term structure of volatility ?
Variance Swap ?
Settlement amount of a Variance Swap @ T ?
Variance strike price is the implied volatility of a put such that (put strike/index strike) = 90%
Settlement amount of a Variance Swap @ t ?
pvf is present because the settlement amount needs to do be discounted from time T to t.
Exemple de variance swap stlmt amount @ t ?
inferring MKT expectations ?
Typical end-of-month (EOM) activity by large financial and banking institutions often induces “dips” in the effective federal funds (FFE) rate that create bias issues when using the rate as the basis for probability calculations of potential Federal Open Market Committee rate moves. If EOM activity increases the price for the relevant fed funds contract, the FFE rate would decline. A decline in the FFE rate would decrease the probability of a change in the fed funds rate. To overcome this EOM bias, data providers have implemented various methods of “smoothing” EOM dips.
Proba of change in Fed funds rate ?
a = 1.5%
b = target rate.
(B = bank rate = upper; O = overnight rate = lower).
c = 2.875% if previous range was 2.5% - 2.75% and 25bps increase proba test (with new range, midpoint = (3% + 2.75%) / 2)
to derive probabilities of Fed interest rate actions, market participants look at the pricing of fed funds futures, which are tied to the FFE rate—that is, the rate that depository institutions actually use for lending to each other, not the Fed’s target federal funds rate. The underlying assumption is that the implied futures market rates are predicting the value of the monthly average FFE rate.
What is the “basis risk” ? How to arbitrage bond futures using the basis risk ?
If the basis is positive, a trader would make a profit by “selling the basis”—that is, selling the bond and buying the futures. In contrast, when the basis is negative, the trader would make a profit by “buying the basis,” in which the trader would purchase the bond and short the futures.
basis risk or spread risk—the difference between the market performance of the asset and the derivative instrument used to hedge it. When using an interest rate swap to hedge, it is possible that the changes in the underlying rate of the derivative contract, and thus in the value of the swap, do not perfectly mirror changes in the value of the bond portfolio = imperfect substitutes
Effective interest rate of a loan ?
= Rate - Hedge gain.
Hedge gain = contract sold - contract unwinded