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patient care final exam > Final Exam Review > Flashcards

Final Exam Review Flashcards

1
Q

A health maintenance organization (HMO) provides:

Healthcare on a fee-for-service basis.
Complete and comprehensive health care for the cost of a fee called copay.
Free choice of physician and hospital.
Reduced rates for care by specialists.

A

Complete and comprehensive health care for the cost of a fee called copay.

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2
Q

A charge of battery may result if the patient is:

Verbally threatened
Physically touched
Allowed to fall
Restrained without orders

A

Physically touched

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3
Q

The organization that establishes minimum standards for certification in various imaging specialties and radiation therapy, conducts qualifying examinations and certifies those who pass is called

ASRT
ACR
ARRT
AMA

A

ARRT

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4
Q

Which of the following would not be a malpractice prevention?

Confinement
Compliance
Confidentiality
Communication

A

Confinement

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5
Q

Arm and leg restraints applied without either the patient’s permission or a physician’s order could result in charges of:

Battery
Slander
Invasion of privacy
False imprisonment
Negligence

A

False imprisonment

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6
Q

To measure therapeutic radiation doses, as well as specific tissue doses received in diagnostic applications, this SI unit for dose measurement is used.

radiation equivalent in man (rem)
radiation absorbed dose (rad)
gray (Gy)
sievert (Sv)

A

gray (Gy)

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7
Q

Mandatory, specific, and enforceable standards of minimally acceptable professional conduct for all registered technologists are called:

The Laws of Practice
The Rules of Ethics
The Code of Ethics
The Hippocratic Oath

A

The Rules of Ethics

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8
Q

A health maintenance organization (HMO) provides:

Healthcare on a fee-for-service basis
Preventative healthcare and other needed health services
Free choice of physician and hospital
Reduced rates for care by specialists

A

Preventative healthcare and other needed health services

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9
Q

Which ASRT Code of Ethics principle requires radiographers to put aside all personal prejudice and emotional bias when rendering professional services?

5th principle
9th principle
3rd principle
2nd principle

A

3rd principle

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10
Q

Which ASRT Code of Ethics principle addresses the issue of professional responsibility?

5th principle
9th principle
7th principle
3rd principle

A

5th principle

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11
Q

Which ASRT Code of Ethics principle requires radiographers to protect themselves and all patients and staff from exposure to unnecessary radiation?

7th principle
5th principle
1st principle
4th principle

A

7th principle

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12
Q

Which ASRT Code of Ethics principle relates to confidentiality in a health care setting?

9th principle
7th principle
5th principle
3rd principle

A

9th principle

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12
Q

Reducing the probability of infectious organisms being transmitted to a susceptible individual is called:

sepsis
medical asepsis
surgical asespsis
sterilization

A

medical asepsis

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13
Q

Sterilization is essential to

surgical asepsis
isolation
medical asepsis
PPE

A

surgical asepsis

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14
Q

Treatment used to make an item germ-free is called

sterilization
disinfection
asepsis
microbial dilution

A

sterilization

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15
Q

Precautions for Patients With Hip Replacements surgery via the anterior approach include:

  1. Avoid internal or external rotation
  2. Avoid hyperextension
  3. Must not flex hip beyond 90 degrees
A

1 and 2

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16
Q

Which of the following are NOT microorganisms?

Bacteria
Viruses
Protozoa
Fomites

A

Fomites

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17
Q

A patient placed under airborne precautions requires a bedside chest radiograph. The technologist must follow standard precautions and must don:

A surgical mask
A particulate respirator
A gown and gloves
A gown, gloves, and surgical mask

A

A particulate respirator

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18
Q

In your textbook, the normal adult values for BUN and Creatinine are identified as:

7-18 mg/dL BUN; 0.6-1.3 mg/dL Creatinine
6-10 mg/dL BUN; 0.2-1.3 mg/dL Creatinine
7-18 mg/dL BUN; 05.-1.2 mg/dL Creatinine

A

7-18 mg/dL BUN; 0.6-1.3 mg/dL Creatinine

18
Q

The four levels of consciousness (LOC’s) are described as:

  1. Alert and conscious
  2. Drowsy but responsive
  3. Drowsy but unresponsive
  4. Unconscious but reactive to painful stimuli
  5. Comatose
  6. Unconscious and non-reactive to painful stimuli
A

1, 2, 4, and 5

19
Q

The T wave of the cardiac cycle represents:

Ventricular depolarization
Ventricular recovery (repolarization)
Ventricular contraction
None of the above

A

Ventricular recovery (repolarization)

20
Q

When patients who suffer from a chronic lung disease, such as emphysema, experience respiratory distress, they should receive:

No Oxygen
A low flow rate of oxygen (2 L/min or less)
Oxygen at the rate of 3 to 5 L/min
CPR

A

A low flow rate of oxygen (2 L/min or less)

21
Q

When positioning a suspected fractured extremity that is not supported by a splint, the radiographer(s):

  1. should maintain gentle traction while moving the extremity
  2. should support the extremity above and below the injury
  3. should place the extremity in a splint before obtaining images
A

1 and 2

22
Q

During the exam, your patient suddenly becomes diaphoretic, short of breath, and pale. They are alert and begin to complain of nausea and state they have some discomfort in their left jaw and left arm. Your patient is most likely suffering from a/an:

  1. myocardial infarction
  2. heart attack
  3. cardiac arrest
  4. stroke
A

1 and 2

23
Q

The general term used to describe a failure of circulation in which blood pressure is inadequate to support the perfusion of oxygen and removal of by-products of metabolism is:

thrombus
shock
respiratory arrest
cardiac arrest

A

shock

24
Q

An example of an antihistamine is __________.

  1. Diphenhydramine
  2. Ace inhibitors
  3. Benadryl
  4. 1 and 3 only
A

1 and 3 only

25
Q

All are examples of nonintravenous parenteral injections except.

A. Intradermal
B. Intraoral
C. Intrathecal
D. Intraarterial

A

Intraoral

25
Q

A drug that prevents an action by another drug is termed a/an:

Antagonist
Agonist
Synergistic
Antidote

A

Antagonist

26
Q

Which needle gauge is typically used for intradermal injections

18 gauge
26 gauge
20 gauge
22 gauge

A

26 gauge

27
Q

Myelogram uses which type of contrast

High osmolar contrast
Non-ionic contrast

A

Non-ionic contrast

28
Q

When scheduling barium studies

Non contrast studies should be scheduled after barium studies
Non contrast studies should be scheduled at the same time
Should be scheduled last in any series of imaging procedures
Should be scheduled a week after non contrast studies

A

Should be scheduled last in any series of imaging procedures

29
Q

Patient preparation for barium studies include:

  1. A clear liquid diet
  2. Cathartics
  3. Taking Benadryl 4 hours before examination
A

1 and 2

Cathartics- laxitives

29
Q

Cleansing enema bags should be placed ____

18” below the level of the table
24” above the level of the table
18” above the level of the table
24” below the level of the table

A

18” above the level of the table

30
Q

Upper GI studies are performed to diagnose

Neoplasm
Gastritis
Hiatal hernia
All of the above

A

All of the above

31
Q

All are a method of barium sulfate administration except:

Oral
NG
Rectal
IV

A

IV

32
Q

What concerns arise when using barium for GI contrast studies?

It can thicken and solidify if not mixed properly
No concerns with using barium
It can cause an allergic reaction
It can help cleanse the bowels

A

It can thicken and solidify if not mixed properly

33
Q

Glucagon may be given to slow peristalsis

True
False

A

True

34
Q

Which studies require the use of barium contrast?

  1. Upper GI
  2. Small Bowel Series
  3. Myelogram
A

1 and 2

35
Q

Iodinated contrast medium may be administered

  1. IV
  2. Oral
  3. Intrathecal
A

1, 2, and 3

36
Q

An example of an isosmolar iodinated contrast media is

Renografin
Hypaque
Visipaque
Cystografin

A

Visipaque

37
Q

What is the preferred contrast media for a myelogram?

Nonionic contrast agent
Ionic contrast agent
Cystografin
High osmolar contrast media

A

Nonionic contrast agent

38
Q

Which characteristic of iodine contrast determines its opacity?

Iodine concentration
Viscosity
Osmolality
Toxicity

A

Iodine concentration

39
Q

A common radiography procedure in the OR is

ERCP
Cholecystectomy
VCUG
Barium enema

A

Cholecystectomy

40
Q

A procedure performed in the OR that uses laser, ultrasound, or some other energy

Lithotripsy
ORIF
Hardware fixation
Open reduction

A

Lithotripsy

41
Q

Contrast media that dissociates in solution is classified as:

None of these
Ionic
Nonionic
Isosmolar

A

Ionic

42
Q

A patient in the NICU requires a chest x-ray. How should the radiographer carry out this exam?

Communicate and work with the NICU staff member to quickly obtain the image while minimizing time without the warmer.

Wipe down the imaging equipment when exiting the NICU.

Place the IR directly under the patient to avoid any artifacts from the patient’s blankets.

Leave the warmer in place. Place the IR in the sliding tray under the open incubator and place the x-ray tube under the incubator in alignment with the IR.

A

Communicate and work with the NICU staff member to quickly obtain the image while minimizing time without the warmer.

43
Q

A T-Tube is primarily used for _____.

Inject contrast to visualize the pelvis of the kidneys

Visualize a fistula in the common bile duct

As a drain for bile until the postsurgical edema in the common bile duct heals

Draining the chest cavity

A

As a drain for bile until the postsurgical edema in the common bile duct heals

patient care final exam (5 decks)

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