Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ACVIM Generals Revision MS > Respiratory: Clinical > Flashcards

Respiratory: Clinical Flashcards

1
Q

What is a normal inspiration:expiration ratio?

A

1:1 to 1:2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How does opening the mouth help distinguish between respiratory noises?

A

Opening the mouth should make a nasopharyngeal sound disappear whereas it will make no difference to things lower down for example laryngeal stridor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Under what conditions do stridor and starter worsen?

A

Stridor: often with exercise
Stertor: often with rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Volumes of saline to be used for a BAL

A

1-2ml/kg in large dogs

2-4ml/kg in small dogs and cats.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What molecular structures are lost in the tracheal rings that cause tracheal collapse?

A

GAGs e.g. chondroitin sulfate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What should be performed prior to stunting a tracheal collapse?

A

Bronchoscopy as if bronchomalacia is present, prognosis with a stent may be worse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Surgical management options for tracheal collapse

  • Options
  • Complications
  • Prognosis
A 
Options:
- Intra-throacic = intraluminal stents
- Cervical = extraluminal tracheal rings
Complications:
 - Rings: laryngeal paralysis, tracheal necrosis, 
 - Stents: bacterial tracheitis, stent fracture/migration, stent collapse/deformation, tracheal perforation during placement, and development of obstructive granulation tissue. 
Prognosis:
 - Can be very good
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Parasites that can form tracheal granulomas

A

Oslerus osleri
Fileroides osleri
Ceteribri larvae (cats)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Definition of bronchiectasis

A

Dilation and destruction of bronchial wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Definition of bronchomalacia

A

airway collapse during expiration and coughing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Breeds predisposed to eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy

A

Huskies and malamutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Breed that has a known genetic component to PCD

A

Old English sheepdog

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Kartagener’s syndrome

A

Syndrome associated with PCD

  • Bronchiectasis
  • Left to right transposition of viscera (situs inverts)
  • Chronic rhino sinusitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What diagnostic test is needed to demonstrated PCD?

A

EM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Outline the likely A-a gradients in the following scenarios:

  • Hypoventillation:
  • V/Q mismatch:
  • Right to left shunt:
  • Diffusion impairment:
A
  • Hypoventillation: normal AA gradient
  • V/Q mismatch: increased AA gradient that responds to O2 therapy
  • Right to left shunt: normal AA gradients that does not respond to O2 therapy
  • Diffusion impairment: can lead to increased AA gradient and will respond to O2 supplementation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a normal Pa02?

A

80-105mmHg

17
Q

Paragnimus kellicotti

  • What is it
  • Intermediate host
  • Life cycle
  • Lesions
  • Diagnosis
  • Treatment
A
  • Trematode of the lung
  • Crayfish
  • Migrates through diaphragm and adult goes into sub pleural space
  • Bullae and cysts
  • ova in lavage fluid or sedimentation techniques
  • Fenbendazole or praziquantel
18
Q

Filaroides

  • What is it
  • Intermediate host/transmission
  • Life cycle
  • Lesions
  • Diagnosis
  • Treatment
A
  • Pulmonary nematode
  • Direct faecal-oral transmission
  • Alveolar space and terminal bronchioles
  • Bronchointerstitial or alveolar pattern
  • lavage, faecal flotation
  • fenbendazole, ivermectin
19
Q

Aulurostrongylus

  • What is it
  • Intermediate host
  • Life cycle
  • Lesions
  • Diagnosis
  • Treatment
A
  • Feline pulmonary nematode
  • Mollusc
  • Mature live in bronchioles
  • Bronchial pattern?
  • airway lavage, sedimentation
  • fenbendazole, ivermectin, selamectin
20
Q

Crenosoma vulpis

  • What is it
  • Intermediate host
  • Life cycle
  • Lesions
  • Diagnosis
  • Treatment
A
  • Pulmonary nematode
  • Mollusc
  • Adult in airways
  • Bronchointerstitial?
  • Lavage, sedimentation or flotation
  • Fenbendazole, ivermectin, milbemycin
21
Q

Oslerus osleri

  • What is it
  • Intermediate host
  • Life cycle
  • Lesions
  • Diagnosis
  • Treatment
A
  • Pulmonary nematode
  • Direct oral-faecal
  • Granulomas in distal trachea and proximal bronchi
  • flotation or bronchocopic visualisation of lesions
22
Q

Eucoleus aerophilus (Capillaria aerophilia)

  • What is it
  • Intermediate host
  • Life cycle
  • Lesions
  • Diagnosis
  • Treatment
A
  • Pulmonary nematode
  • None, direct LC
  • Tracheal and bronchial mucosal eosinophilic pneumonia
  • Flotation > semintation
  • fenbendazole, ivermectin
23
Q

Troglostrongylus

A
  • Feline pulmonary nematode
24
Q

What types of bacteria generally result in bacterial pneumonia?

A

Enteric bacteria

25
Q

What is the ISCAID recommended treatment duration for bacterial lower respiratory tract infection?

A

1 week beyond resolution of clinical signs.

26
Q

Treatments to consider in pneumonia patients that are not responding well to antibiotics and oxygen therapy?

A

Bronchodilators

Mucolytics (e.g. NAC)

27
Q

Safety pin shaped bipolar gram negative rod

A

Yersinia pestis

28
Q

Which bacteria causes a necrotising haemorrhage pneumonia?

A

Streptococcus equi zooepidemicus

29
Q

Why can giving albumin therapy be detrimental to patients suffering pulmonary oedema?

A

Protein may leak into the alveolus if the alveolar wall is damaged which would worsen pulmonary oedema.

30
Q

Diagnostic cut off for pulmonary hypertension

  • PA Systolic pressure
  • PA diastolic pressure
  • Tricuspid regurgitant jet
A
  • > 25-30mmHg
  • > 19mmHg
  • > 46mmHg (or velocity >3.4m/s)
31
Q

What are the pathophysiologic factors (3) that can cause pulmonary vascular remodelling and therefore pulmonary hypertension?

A

Increased pulmonary blood flow
Increased pulmonary vascular resistance
Increased pulmonary vascular pressure

32
Q

What are the mechanisms by which nasopharyngeal stenosis can occur in cats?

A

Congenital - similar to human choanal atresia (rare)
Acquired - secondary to inflammatory disorders

33
Q

How is nasopharyngeal stenosis treated?

A

If the membrane is small then surgical removal via incision of the soft palate may be best, if changes are extensive then balloon dilation or expandable metallic stents can be considered

34
Q

Why is the total protein of chylous effusions potentially higher than would be expected?

A

Lipids will falsely increase the TP measurement if measured with a refractometer

35
Q

What are the main Ddx for chylothorax in a cat?

A

The primary differential diagnosis to consider for chylothorax in the cat is con- gestive heart failure secondary to hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Additionally, cranial mediastinal neoplasia (e.g., thymoma, lymphoma, or thyroid tumor), pericardial effu- sion, diaphragmatic herniations, or heartworm disease can cause increased venous hydrostatic pressure and subsequent chylous effusion. Chylothorax in the cat has also been reported to occur secondary to thoracic trauma and intrathoracic surgery or can be idiopathic

ACVIM Generals Revision MS (32 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions