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Midterm Test Flashcards

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1
Q

According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT should be able to:

A. insert a peripheral IV line and infuse fluids.
B. administer epinephrine via the subcutaneous route.
C. assist a patient with certain prescribed medications.
D. interpret a basic (ECG) rhythm and treat accordingly.

A

C. assist a patient with certain prescribed medications.

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2
Q

An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to:

A. continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful.
B. ignore the patient’s feelings and focus on his or her medical complaint.
C. reassure the patient that everything will be all right, even if it will not be.
D. demand that the patient remain quiet and cooperative during transport.

A

A. continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful.

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3
Q

An EMS provider who has extensive training in various aspects of advanced life support (ALS) is called a(n):

A. advanced EMT (AEMT).
B. paramedic.
C. EMT.
D. EMR.

A

B. paramedic.

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4
Q

Cardiac monitoring, pharmacologic interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the:

A. paramedic.
B. AEMT.
C. EMR.
D. EMT.

A

A. paramedic.

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5
Q

Continuing education in EMS serves to:

A. confirm research and statistical findings in prehospital care.
B. enforce mandatory attendance at agency-specific training.
C. maintain, update, and expand the EMT’s knowledge and skills.
D. provide an ongoing review and audit of the EMS system.

A

C. maintain, update, and expand the EMT’s knowledge and skills.

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6
Q

EMS as we know it today had its origins in 1966 with the publication of:

A. The Emergency Medical Services Act.
B. The Department of Transportation’s White Paper: Death and Dying.
C. Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society.
D. Emergency Care and Transportation of the Sick and Injured.

A

C. Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society.

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7
Q

If a defibrillator manufacturer claims that its device terminates ventricular fibrillation on the first shock 95% of the time, you should:

A. avoid purchasing the device because this claim is unrealistic.
B. purchase the device based solely on the manufacturer’s claim.
C. recognize that this does not mean the device will save more lives.
D. determine which device the American Heart Association recommends.

A

C. recognize that this does not mean the device will save more lives.

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8
Q

Obtaining continuing medical education is the responsibility of the:

A. EMS training officer.
B. individual EMT.
C. EMS medical director.
D. State Bureau of EMS.

A

B. individual EMT.

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9
Q

The continuous quality improvement (CQI) process is designed to:

A. administer punitive actions to EMTs who do not follow local protocols.
B. ensure that all EMTs maintain licensure through the state EMS office.
C. identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed.
D. focus specifically on the quality of emergency care provided to the patient.

A

C. identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed.

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10
Q

The determination that prompt surgical care in the hospital is more important than performing time-consuming procedures in the field on a major trauma patient is based mostly on:

A. EMS research.
B. local protocols.
C. regional trauma guidelines.
D. the lead EMT’s decision.

A

A. EMS research.

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11
Q

The EMT certification exam is designed to:

A. provide EMTs with the best possible wage once certification is achieved.
B. ensure that EMTs are competent and have the same level of knowledge and skills.
C. rank EMTs based on performance on the certification exam.
D. identify those EMTs who are prepared for advanced levels of training.

A

B. ensure that EMTs are competent and have the same level of knowledge and skills.

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12
Q

The standards for prehospital emergency care and the individuals who provide it are typically regulated by the:

A. American Heart Association.
B. state office of EMS.
C. regional trauma center.
D. National Registry of EMTs.

A

B. state office of EMS.

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13
Q

Which of the following criteria is required to become licensed and employed as an EMT?

A. Demonstration of the ability to lift and carry at least 200 pounds
B. Proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases
C. Successful completion of a recognized bystander CPR course
D. A minimum of 60 college credit hours that focus on health care

A

B. Proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases

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14
Q

Which of the following descriptions most accurately portrays emergency medical services (EMS)?

A. A team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured
B. A team of advanced life support (ALS) providers who provide definitive emergency care in the prehospital setting
C. A system composed exclusively of emergency medical responders (EMRs) and emergency medical technicians (EMTs) who are responsible for providing care to sick and injured patients
D. A team of paramedics and emergency physicians who are responsible for providing emergency care to critically injured patients

A

A. A team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured

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15
Q

Which of the following errors is an example of a knowledge-based failure?

A. An EMT administers the wrong drug to a patient because she did not know the pertinent information about the drug.
B. An EMT gives the correct drug to a patient, although his protocols clearly state that he is not authorized to do so.
C. Due to improperly applied cervical collar, a patient’s spinal injury is aggravated and he is permanently disabled.
D. A patient is given nitroglycerin by an EMT who did not obtain proper authorization from medical control first.

A

A. An EMT administers the wrong drug to a patient because she did not know the pertinent information about the drug.

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16
Q

Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy?

A. Protecting a patient’s spine from further injury after a fall from a significant height
B. The construction of a guardrail on a dangerous curve following a fatal motor vehicle crash
C. Teaching a group of new parents how to perform one- and two-rescuer infant CPR
D. Community awareness programs that emphasize the dangers of drinking and driving

A

D. Community awareness programs that emphasize the dangers of drinking and driving

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17
Q

Which of the following scenarios involves the administration of ALS?

A. A 64-year-old patient who is given aspirin for suspected cardiac chest pain
B. A 53-year-old patient who is assisted with his prescribed nitroglycerin
C. A 17-year-old patient who is receiving humidified supplemental oxygen
D. A 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a supraglottic device

A

D. A 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a supraglottic device

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18
Q

Which of the following skills or interventions is included at every level of prehospital emergency training?

A. Intranasal medication administration
B. Automated external defibrillation
C. Oral glucose for hypoglycemia
D. Use of a manually triggered ventilator

A

B. Automated external defibrillation

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19
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the NREMT is correct?

A. The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing.
B. The NREMT regulates EMS training standards.
C. The NREMT is a governmental agency that certifies EMTs.
D. The NREMT is the exclusive certifying body for EMTs.

A

A. The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing.

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20
Q

Which type of medical direction do standing orders and protocols describe?

A. Direct
B. Online
C. Off-line
D. Radio

A

C. Off-line

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21
Q

A critical incident stress debriefing should be conducted no longer than ________ hours following the incident.

A. six
B. 24
C. 72
D. 12

A

C. 72

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22
Q

A positive TB skin test indicates that:

A. you have never been exposed to TB.
B. you have been exposed to TB.
C. The TB disease is currently dormant but might later become active.
D. you are actively infected with TB.

A

B. you have been exposed to TB.

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23
Q

Characteristics of eustress following dispatch to a high-speed motor vehicle collision may include:

A. the inability to remain focused, because the task at hand is demanding.
B. long-term feelings of being overwhelmed by the nature of the call.
C. short-term feelings of energy due to the high physical demands of the job.
D. increased self-image from performing well under a challenging situation.

A

D. increased self-image from performing well under a challenging situation.

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24
Q

General adaptation syndrome is characterized by which of the following phases?

A. Immediate reaction, psychological exhaustion, and recovery
B. Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery
C. Reaction and resistance, euphoria, and physical exhaustion
D. Delayed reaction, alarm response, and physical recovery

A

B. Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery

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25
Q

Hazards that are associated with a structural fire include all of the following, except:

A. high ambient temperatures.
B. carbon dioxide deficiency.
C. smoke and toxic gases.
D. risk of building collapse.

A

B. carbon dioxide deficiency.

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26
Q

Prescription glasses do not provide adequate eye protection because they:

A. have large, rounded lenses.
B. offer little or no side protection.
C. are not secured with a strap.
D. do not have shatterproof lenses.

A

B. offer little or no side protection.

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27
Q

Quid pro quo, a type of sexual harassment, occurs when the harasser:

A. makes rude remarks about a person’s body parts.
B. requests sexual favors in exchange for something else.
C. touches another person without his or her consent.
D. stares at certain parts of another person’s anatomy.

A

B. requests sexual favors in exchange for something else.

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28
Q

The capacity of an individual to cope with and recover from stress is called:

A. eustress.
B. resilience.
C. wellness.
D. reactions.

A

B. resilience.

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29
Q

The most effective way to preserve your own body heat when functioning in cold, wet weather is to:

A. avoid outer clothing with zippers.
B. wear a heavy, thick jacket or coat.
C. wear at least three layers of clothing.
D. wear socks made of heavy-duty cotton.

A

C. wear at least three layers of clothing.

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30
Q

The most important consideration at the scene of a hazardous materials incident is:

A. identifying the hazardous material.
B. ensuring your personal safety.
C. calling the hazardous materials team.
D. evacuating the bystanders.

A

B. ensuring your personal safety.

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31
Q

The most serious consequence of drug or alcohol abuse among EMS personnel is:

A. low morale and frequently missed shifts.
B. substandard and inappropriate patient care.
C. punitive action and the loss of a job.
D. tension among coworkers and supervisors.

A

B. substandard and inappropriate patient care.

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32
Q

The simplest, yet most effective method of preventing the spread of an infectious disease is to:

A. ensure that your immunizations are up-to-date.
B. undergo annual testing for tuberculosis and hepatitis.
C. undergo an annual physical examination.
D. wash your hands in between patient contacts.

A

D. wash your hands in between patient contacts.

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33
Q

The spread of HIV and hepatitis in the healthcare setting can usually be traced to:

A. careless handling of sharps.
B. noncompliance with standard precautions.
C. lack of proper immunizations.
D. excessive blood splashing or splattering.

A

A. careless handling of sharps.

Sharps include needles, syringes, and lancets

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34
Q

Vaccination against the hepatitis A virus is unnecessary if you:

A. have been infected with hepatitis A in the past.
B. are older than 35 years of age.
C. received a hepatitis B vaccination.
D. have a weak immune system.

A

A. have been infected with hepatitis A in the past.

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35
Q

Vectorborne transmission of an infectious organism occurs via:

A. inanimate objects.
B. smoke or dust.
C. animals or insects.
D. direct contact.

A

C. animals or insects.

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36
Q

What should you do before attempting to access a patient trapped in a vehicle?

A. Check for other patients.
B. Request another ambulance.
C. Contact medical control.
D. Ensure the vehicle is stable.

A

D. Ensure the vehicle is stable.

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37
Q

When decontaminating the back of your ambulance after a call, you should:

A. spray the contaminated areas and then immediately wipe them dry with a towel.
B. allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions.
C. use a bleach and water solution at a 1:2 dilution ratio to thoroughly wipe all surfaces.
D. clean all surfaces and patient contact areas with a mixture of alcohol and water.

A

B. allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions.

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38
Q

Which of the following infectious diseases confers no protection from reinfection after exposure?

A. Mumps
B. Chickenpox
C. Syphilis
D. Rubella

A

C. Syphilis

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39
Q

Which of the following is the most significant factor in determining whether a person will become ill from certain germs?

A. Age
B. Race
C. Immunity
D. Gender

A

C. Immunity

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39
Q

You have been working at the scene of a major building collapse for eight hours. Many injured people are still being removed, and everyone is becoming frustrated and losing focus. This situation is most effectively managed by:

A. providing large amounts of caffeine to the rescue workers.
B. conducting a critical incident stress debriefing the next day.
C. requesting a CISM team to provide on-scene peer support.
D. allowing each worker to sleep in 15 to 30-minute increments.

A

C. requesting a CISM team to provide on-scene peer support.

A Critical Incident Stress Management (CISM) team is made up of volunteer peer support and licensed mental health professionals. They are trained to help responders deal with normal reactions to abnormal events.

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40
Q

Which aspect of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) most affects EMS personnel?

A. Preventing insurance fraud
B. Controlling insurance costs
C. Protecting patient privacy
D. Ensuring access to insurance

A

C. Protecting patient privacy

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41
Q

Which of the following general statements regarding consent is correct?

A. A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse treatment.
B. Expressed consent is valid only if given in writing by a family member.
C. All patients older than 18 years can legally refuse treatment or transport.
D. Patients who are intoxicated are generally allowed to refuse treatment.

A

A. A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse treatment.

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42
Q

Which of the following most accurately defines negligence?

A. Deviation from the standard of care that might result in further injury
B. Transferring patient care to a provider with a lower level of training *
C. Transport of a mentally incompetent patient against his or her will
D. Providing care that is consistent with care provided by other EMTs

A

A. Deviation from the standard of care that might result in further injury

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43
Q

Which of the following patients has decision-making capacity and can legally refuse emergency medical treatment?

A. A conscious and alert woman with severe abdominal pain
B. A man who is staggering and states that he had three beers
C. A diabetic woman who has slurred speech and is not aware of the date
D. A confused young man who says he is the president

A

A. A conscious and alert woman with severe abdominal pain

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44
Q

Which of the following scenarios most accurately depicts abandonment?

A. An EMT gives a verbal report to an emergency room nurse.
B. An EMT transfers patient care to a paramedic.
C. A physician assumes patient care from an EMT.
D. A paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT.

A

D. A paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT.

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45
Q

Which of the following situations requires you to notify the appropriate authorities?

A. Drug overdose
B. Attempted suicide
C. Accidental knife wound
D. Cardiac arrest

A

B. Attempted suicide

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46
Q

Which of the following statements regarding Good Samaritan laws is correct?

A. Such laws will not protect the EMT in cases of gross negligence.
B. Such laws do not protect EMTs who are off duty.
C. Such laws guarantee that the EMT will not be held liable if he or she is sued.
D. Such laws provide the EMT with absolute immunity from a lawsuit.

A

A. Such laws will not protect the EMT in cases of gross negligence.

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47
Q

Which of the following types of consent allows treatment of a patient who is unconscious or mentally incapacitated?

A. Informed
B. Implied
C. Actual
D. Expressed

A

B. Implied

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48
Q

The manner in which the EMT must act or behave when caring for a patient is called the:

A. standard of care.
B. scope of practice.
C. code of ethics.
D. EMT oath.

A

A. standard of care.

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48
Q

You arrive at the scene of an apparent death. When evaluating the patient, which of the following is a definitive sign of death?

A. Absence of a pulse
B. Dependent lividity
C. Absent breath sounds
D. Profound cyanosis

A

B. Dependent lividity

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49
Q

Two EMTs witnessed a call in which a coworker gave adequate medical care but ignored the patient’s emotional needs. The coworker was deliberately rude solely because the patient was thought to be infected with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The EMTs ignored the coworker’s treatment of this patient and took no steps to prevent this behavior from happening again. This lack of action on the part of the two EMTs is considered:

A. illegal but ethical.
B. legal but unethical.
C. illegal and unethical.
D. legal and ethical.

A

B. legal but unethical.

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50
Q

Acting in such a way as to make another person fear immediate bodily harm is called:

A. battery.
B. negligence.
C. assault.
D. libel.

A

C. assault.

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51
Q

An EMT would most likely be held liable for abandonment if he or she:

A. terminated care of a competent adult patient at his or her request.
B. refused to care for a violent patient who is armed with a knife.
C. remained at the hospital for 30 minutes to give a patient report.
D. did not make provisions for continued care of an injured patient.

A

D. did not make provisions for continued care of an injured patient.

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52
Q

As an EMT, the performance of your duties will be compared to that of:

A. the medical director.
B. another EMT.
C. a paramedic supervisor.
D. the general public.

A

B. another EMT.

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53
Q

For a do not resuscitate (DNR) order to be valid, it must:

A. clearly state the patient’s medical problem.
B. be updated a minimum of every 6 months.
C. be dated within the previous 24 months.
D. be signed by the local justice of the peace.

A

A. clearly state the patient’s medical problem.

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54
Q

In many states, a minor may be treated as an adult for the purpose of consenting to or refusing medical treatment if the minor:

A. is mentally competent and able to refuse.
B. is self-supporting and lives by him- or herself.
C. possesses a valid driver’s license.
D. has a poor relationship with his or her parents.

A

B. is self-supporting and lives by him- or herself.

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55
Q

In the eyes of the courts, an incomplete or untidy patient care form indicates:

A. inadequate patient care was administered.
B. potential falsification of the patient care form.
C. the EMT was too busy providing patient care to fill out the form.
D. thorough documentation was not required.

A

A. inadequate patient care was administered.

56
Q

Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include:

A. not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons.
B. making brief notes at the scene and then completing them later.
C. placing the patient in a private area until the police arrive.
D. quickly moving any weapons out of the patient’s sight.

A

A. not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons.

57
Q

Putrefaction is defined as:

A. profound cyanosis to the trunk and face.
B. decomposition of the body’s tissues.
C. separation of the torso from the rest of the body.
D. blood settling to the lowest point of the body.

A

A. profound cyanosis to the trunk and face.
B. decomposition of the body’s tissues.

58
Q

The EMT’s scope of practice within his or her local response area is defined by the:

A. EMS supervisor.
B. state EMS office.
C. local health district.
D. medical director.

A

D. medical director.

59
Q

After applying medical restraints to a combative patient, you should:

A. position the patient prone in order to further prevent injury to yourself.
B. remove them only after hospital personnel have requested you to do so.
C. remove them only if the patient verbally commits to calming down.
D. inform the patient that the restraints are punishment for their behavior.

A

B. remove them only after hospital personnel have requested you to do so.

60
Q

In contrast to typical wheeled ambulance stretchers, features of a bariatric stretcher include:

A. two safety rails on both sides of the stretcher.
B. weight capacity of up to 650 pounds.
C. a collapsible undercarriage.
D. increased stability from a wider wheelbase.

A

D. increased stability from a wider wheelbase.

61
Q

It is essential that you ______ your equipment to prevent the spread of disease.

A. throw out
B. properly store
C. incinerate
D. decontaminate

A

D. decontaminate

62
Q

The ______ is both the mechanical weight-bearing base of the spinal column and the fused central posterior section of the pelvic girdle.

A. thorax
B. coccyx
C. ischium
D. sacrum

A

D. sacrum

63
Q

The direct carry is used to transfer a patient:

A. with multiple long bone injuries.
B. who cannot be placed on a backboard.
C. from a bed to the ambulance stretcher.
D. with a possible cervical spine injury.

A

C. from a bed to the ambulance stretcher.

64
Q

The extremity lift would not be appropriate to use on a patient:

A. with forearm lacerations.
B. with a deformed humerus.
C. who complains of nausea.
D. without a spinal injury.

A

B. with a deformed humerus.

65
Q

The first rule of safe lifting is to:

A. always lift with your palms facing down.
B. keep your back in a straight, vertical position.
C. keep your back in a slightly curved position.
D. spread your legs approximately 20” apart.

A

B. keep your back in a straight, vertical position.

66
Q

The most appropriate carrying device to use when moving a patient across rough or uneven terrain is the:

A. basket stretcher.
B. stair chair.
C. scoop stretcher.
D. wheeled stretcher.

A

A. basket stretcher.

67
Q

The most serious consequence of a poorly planned or rushed patient move is:

A. causing patient anxiety or fear.
B. injury to you or your patient.
C. unnecessarily wasting time.
D. confusion among team members.

A

B. injury to you or your patient.

68
Q

To minimize the risk of injuring yourself when lifting or moving a patient, you should:

A. use a direct carry whenever possible.
B. avoid the use of log rolls or body drags.
C. flex at the waist instead of the hips.
D. keep the weight as close to your body as possible.

A

D. keep the weight as close to your body as possible.

69
Q

When a person is standing upright, the weight of anything being lifted and carried in the hands is first reflected onto the:

A. shoulder girdle.
B. thigh muscles.
C. spinal column.
D. pelvic girdle.

A

A. shoulder girdle.

70
Q

When carrying a patient up or down stairs, you should avoid:

A. the use of a long backboard or scoop stretcher.
B. using a wheeled stretcher whenever possible.
C. flexing your body at the knees.
D. the use of more than two EMTs.

A

B. using a wheeled stretcher whenever possible.

71
Q

When the shoulder girdle is aligned over the pelvis during lifting:

A. the hands can be held further apart from the body.
B. the risk of back injuries is significantly increased.
C. the weight is exerted straight down the vertebrae.
D. the muscles of the back experience increased strain.

A

C. the weight is exerted straight down the vertebrae.

72
Q

When using a body drag to pull a patient who is on the ground, you should:

A. extend your elbows as far beyond your anterior torso as possible.
B. avoid situations involving strenuous effort lasting more than five minutes.
C. bend your back laterally to maximize your amount of pulling power.
D. kneel to minimize the distance that you will have to lean over.

A

D. kneel to minimize the distance that you will have to lean over.

73
Q

Which is the most appropriate method to use when moving a patient from his or her bed to a wheeled stretcher?

A. Direct carry
B. Log roll
C. Draw sheet method
D. Extremity carry

A

C. Draw sheet method

74
Q

Which of the following most accurately describes the correct position of the EMTs who are executing the diamond carry technique?

A. Two: at the head, one at the feet, and one on the left side of the patient’s torso
B. One at the head, two at the feet, and a fourth EMT balancing the torso
C. Two at the head, two at the feet, and a fifth EMT balancing the torso
D. One at the head, one at the feet, and one on each side of the patient’s torso

A

D. One at the head, one at the feet, and one on each side of the patient’s torso

75
Q

Which of the following situations would require an urgent patient move?

A. Semiconscious patient with shallow respirations and signs of shock
B. Imminent risk of a fire or explosion in or near the patient’s vehicle
C. Conscious patient with abrasions and a possibly fractured humerus
D. Stable patient who is blocking access to a critically injured patient

A

B. Imminent risk of a fire or explosion in or near the patient’s vehicle

76
Q

Which of the following statements regarding patient weight distribution is correct?

A. A semi-sitting patient’s weight is equally distributed on both ends.
B. Most of the patient’s weight rests on the foot end of the stretcher.
C. The EMT at the patient’s head will bear the least amount of weight.
D. The majority of a horizontal patient’s weight is in the torso.

A

D. The majority of a horizontal patient’s weight is in the torso.

77
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the scoop stretcher is not correct?

A. Both sides of the patient must be accessible for a scoop stretcher to be used.
B. A scoop stretcher will provide adequate immobilization of a patient’s spinal column.
C. You must fully secure the patient to the scoop stretcher before moving him or her.
D. The construction of the scoop stretcher prohibits X-rays while the patient is on it.

A

B. A scoop stretcher will provide adequate immobilization of a patient’s spinal column.

78
Q

You should not attempt to lift a patient who weighs more than 250 pounds with fewer than ______ rescuers, regardless of individual strength.

A. five
B. four
C. three
D. six

A

B. four

79
Q

An effective team leader should:

A. help the team accomplish goals.
B. refrain from any direct patient care.
C. perform all difficult interventions.
D. command his or her team.

A

A. help the team accomplish goals.

80
Q

EMTs and other health care providers function as a true team when they work:

A. dependently.
B. independently.
C. interdependently.
D. under standing orders.

A

C. interdependently.

81
Q

For patient handoff, it is important for EMTs and hospital staff to use:

A. medico-legal tools.
B. charting tools.
C. common ground.
D. common language.

A

D. common language.

82
Q

Health care providers who infrequently work together can function effectively as a team if they work in an environment that supports and promotes:

A. discipline.
B. drug protocols.
C. competition.
D. collaboration.

A

D. collaboration.

83
Q

If a problem with a team member is not directly or immediately impacting patient care, the team leader should:

A. engage the team member at once.
B. contact the medical director at once.
C. discuss the problem after the call.
D. ignore the problem to avoid conflict.

A

C. discuss the problem after the call.

84
Q

In an independent group, you would have:

A. a common set of tasks.
B. shared transportation.
C. your own work area.
D. parallel work.

A

C. your own work area.

85
Q

In an interdependent group, when one person fails:

A. pay is withheld.
B. that person is fired.
C. management will be changed.
D. everyone fails.

A

D. everyone fails.

86
Q

In contrast to a health care group, a health care team:

A. is not assigned specific roles.
B. does not function under protocols.
C. works interdependently.
D. works independently.

A

C. works interdependently.

87
Q

Premature diagnosis during a call can be due to what error?

A. Overconfidence
B. Anchoring
C. Bias
D. Streamlining

A

B. Anchoring

88
Q

The concept of consistent care across the entire health care team from first patient contact to patient discharge is called:

A. patient care advocacy.
B. the scope of practice.
C. the continuum of care.
D. the standard of care.

A

C. the continuum of care.

89
Q

The effectiveness of pit crew CPR is dependent on:

A. rapidly assessing the patient before assigning roles and responsibilities.
B. protocols that allow the EMT to function without medical control.
C. a team leader who is capable of performing all of the patient care tasks.
D. defining clear roles and responsibilities before the call is received.

A

D. defining clear roles and responsibilities before the call is received.

90
Q

To be a great EMT, strive for:

A. the chance to replace an EMR.
B. retraining.
C. management work.
D. foundational knowledge.

A

D. foundational knowledge.

91
Q

When the EMT assists a paramedic with an advanced intervention, he or she should recall that the focus of the intervention is on:

A. learning to perform the skill.
B. solving a clinical problem.
C. completing the procedure.
D. following local protocol.

A

B. solving a clinical problem.

92
Q

When working as an independent health care group member, the EMT should expect that he or she:

A. will be specifically instructed on how to perform a specific task.
B. will rely on the group leader for making virtually all decisions.
C. does not have to wait for an assignment before performing a task.
D. will receive no support or guidance from an EMS supervisor.

A

C. does not have to wait for an assignment before performing a task.

93
Q

Which comes first in EMS decision making?

A. Data gathering
B. Data interpretation
C. Planning
D. Team communication

A

A. Data gathering

94
Q

Which of the following would MOST likely facilitate an accurate and effective verbal handoff report at the hospital?

A. Clearly identifying your EMS certification level.
B. Providing the handoff report only to a physician.
C. Use of a mutually agreed-upon handoff format.
D. Brief pause in care to provide the verbal report.

A

C. Use of a mutually agreed-upon handoff format.

95
Q

Which of the following would the EMT MOST likely be asked to do when assisting a paramedic with endotracheal intubation?

A. Visualization of the vocal cords
B. Placement of the endotracheal tube
C. Suction under direct laryngoscopy
D. Preoxygenation with a BVM

A

D. Preoxygenation with a BVM

96
Q

Which step in EMS decision making comes after a patient has been transferred?

A. Data gathering
B. Team communication
C. Planning
D. Outcome evaluation

A

D. Outcome evaluation

97
Q

While caring for a patient, the EMT states to her partner, “Why even splint the patient’s leg if they’re only going to remove it in the ED?” This statement indicates that:

A. the patient’s leg does not require splinting.
B. the EMT is being realistic in her thinking.
C. the EMT does not trust the hospital staff.
D. the EMT’s focus is not on the common goal.

A

D. the EMT’s focus is not on the common goal.

97
Q

In the adult, bradycardia is defined as a pulse rate less than ______ beats/min, and tachycardia is defined as a heart rate greater than ______ beats/min.

A. 30, 130
B. 60, 100
C. 40, 120
D. 50, 110

A

B. 60, 100

98
Q

The goal of oxygenation for most patients is an oxygen saturation of:

A. 100%
B. 94% to 99%
C. 90% to 94%
D. 88% to 90%

A

B. 94% to 99%

99
Q

The goal of the systematic head-to-toe exam that is performed during the secondary assessment is to:

A. definitively rule out significant internal injuries.
B. locate injuries not found in the primary assessment.
C. detect and treat all non-life-threatening injuries.
D. assess only the parts of the body that are injured.

A

B. locate injuries not found in the primary assessment.

100
Q

A. patients with a significant MOI and unresponsive medical patients.
B. stable patients who are able to tell you exactly what happened.
C. responsive medical patients and patients without a significant MOI.
D. all patients with traumatic injuries who will require EMS transport.

A

A. patients with a significant MOI and unresponsive medical patients.

101
Q

Treatment and transport priorities at the scene of a mass-casualty incident should be determined after:

A. a physician arrives at the scene.
B. medical control has been contacted.
C. all the patients have been triaged.
D. area hospitals have been notified.

A

C. all the patients have been triaged.

102
Q

When performing a reassessment of your patient, you should first:

A. confirm medical history findings.
B. reassess your interventions.
C. repeat the primary assessment.
D. obtain updated vital signs.

A

C. repeat the primary assessment.

103
Q

When you use the palpation method to obtain a blood pressure, the measurement you obtain is the:

A. diastolic blood pressure.
B. systolic blood pressure.
C. cardiac output pressure.
D. pulse pressure.

A

B. systolic blood pressure.

104
Q

Which of the following findings indicates that your patient has a patent airway?

A. Ability to speak
B. Inspiratory stridor
C. Audible breathing
D. Unresponsiveness

A

A. Ability to speak

105
Q

Which of the following is an example of a symptom?

A. Hypertension
B. Headache
C. Tachycardia
D. Cyanosis

A

B. Headache

106
Q

Which of the following medical history questions would be of LEAST pertinence in an acute situation?

A. “Are there medications that you cannot take?”
B. “Does the pain stay in your chest?”
C. “Does your mother have diabetes?”
D. “Has this ever happened to you before?”

A

C. “Does your mother have diabetes?”

107
Q

Which of the following would the EMT likely NOT perform on a responsive patient with a headache and no apparent life-threatening conditions?

A. Systematic head-to-toe examination
B. Assessment of oxygen saturation
C. Noninvasive blood pressure monitoring
D. Focused secondary assessment

A

A. Systematic head-to-toe examination

108
Q

A 29-year-old male with a head injury opens his eyes when you speak to him, is confused as to the time and date, and is able to move all of his extremities on command. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is:

A. 14
B. 13
C. 10
D. 12

A

B. 13

109
Q

A blood pressure cuff that is too small for a patient’s arm will give a:

A. falsely low systolic but high diastolic reading.
B. falsely high systolic but low diastolic reading.
C. falsely low systolic and diastolic reading.
D. falsely high systolic and diastolic reading.

A

D. falsely high systolic and diastolic reading.

110
Q

A patient’s short-term memory is MOST likely intact if they correctly answer questions regarding:

A. time and place.
B. event and person.
C. person and place.
D. day and event.

A

D. day and event.

111
Q

A properly sized blood pressure cuff should cover:

A. the entire upper arm between the armpit and the crease at the elbow.
B. one half the length between the armpit and the crease at the elbow.
C. two thirds the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow.
D. one third the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow.

A

C. two thirds the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow.

112
Q

After performing a primary assessment, a rapid exam of the body should be performed to:

A. determine the need for spinal motion restriction precautions.
B. look specifically for signs and symptoms of inadequate perfusion.
C. find and treat injuries or conditions that do not pose a threat to life.
D. identify less-obvious injuries that require immediate treatment.

A

D. identify less-obvious injuries that require immediate treatment.

112
Q

As you assess the head of a patient with a suspected spinal injury, your partner should:

A. maintain stabilization of the head.
B. look in the ears for gross bleeding.
C. assess the rest of the body for bleeding.
D. prepare the immobilization equipment.

A

A. maintain stabilization of the head.

113
Q

Capnography is used to:

A. determine how much carbon dioxide is being exhaled.
B. read a patient’s blood pressure and assess for shock.
C. assess how much oxygen is reaching the body’s tissues.
D. assess how much oxygen is bound to the hemoglobin.

A

A. determine how much carbon dioxide is being exhaled.

114
Q

Cyanosis of the skin is caused by:

A. decreased blood oxygen.
B. venous vasoconstriction.
C. peripheral vasodilation.
D. increased blood oxygen.

A

A. decreased blood oxygen.

115
Q

In responsive patients who are older than 1 year of age, you should palpate the pulse at the ______ artery.

A. carotid
B. radial
C. brachial
D. femoral

A

B. radial

116
Q

Which of the following would the EMT likely NOT perform on a responsive patient with a headache and no apparent life-threatening conditions?

A. Systematic head-to-toe examination
B. Assessment of oxygen saturation
C. Noninvasive blood pressure monitoring
D. Focused secondary assessment

A

A. Systematic head-to-toe examination

117
Q

A patient who is suspected of being hypoxic and is breathing adequately should be given supplemental oxygen with a:

A. nonrebreathing mask.
B. nasal cannula.
C. mouth-to-mask device.
D. bag-mask device.

A

A. nonrebreathing mask.

118
Q

An oxygen cylinder should be taken out of service and refilled when the pressure inside it is less than:

A. 500 psi.
B. 1,000 psi.
C. 1,500 psi.
D. 200 psi.

A

A. 500 psi.

119
Q

At a flow rate of 6 L/min, a nasal cannula can deliver an approximate oxygen concentration of up to:

A. 35%.
B. 24%.
C. 52%.
D. 44%.

A

D. 44%.

120
Q

Gas exchange in the lungs is facilitated by:

A. surfactant-destroying organisms.
B. adequate amounts of surfactant.
C. water or blood within the alveoli.
D. pulmonary capillary constriction.

A

B. adequate amounts of surfactant.

121
Q

High-flow oxygen with a nasal cannula during the preoxygenation phase of endotracheal intubation is called:

A. denitrogenation.
B. active ventilation.
C. apneic oxygenation.
D. passive ventilation.

A

C. apneic oxygenation.

121
Q

Irregular respirations characterized by an increasing rate and depth of breathing followed by periods of apnea are called:

A. ataxic respirations.
B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations.
C. eupneic respirations.
D. agonal respirations.

A

B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

122
Q

Oxygen toxicity is a condition in which:

A. cellular tissue damage occurs from excessive oxygen levels in the blood.
B. excessive blood oxygen levels cause the hypoxic patient to stop breathing.
C. significantly low levels of oxygen in the blood damage the cellular tissue.
D. decreased levels of oxygen in the blood result in free radical production.

A

A. cellular tissue damage occurs from excessive oxygen levels in the blood.

123
Q

Structures of the lower airway include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. the trachea.
B. bronchioles.
C. alveoli.
D. the epiglottis.

A

D. the epiglottis.

124
Q

The hypoxic drive is influenced by:

A. low blood carbon dioxide levels.
B. high blood carbon dioxide levels.
C. high blood oxygen levels.
D. low blood oxygen levels.

A

D. low blood oxygen levels.

124
Q

The diaphragm is innervated by the ________ nerve, which allows it to contract.

A. vagus
B. vestibulocochlear
C. hypoglossal
D. phrenic

A

D. phrenic

125
Q

The hypoxic drive is influenced by:

A. low blood carbon dioxide levels.
B. high blood carbon dioxide levels.
C. high blood oxygen levels.
D. low blood oxygen levels.

A

D. low blood oxygen levels.

126
Q

The presence of elevated carbon dioxide levels in the blood is called:

A. hypercarbia.
B. hypoxia.
C. hypoxemia.
D. acidosis.

A

A. hypercarbia.

127
Q

The pressure of gas in a full cylinder of oxygen is approximately ______ pounds per square inch (psi).

A. 3,000
B. 1,000
C. 2,000
D. 500

A

C. 2,000

128
Q

What is the MOST common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious patient?

A. Blood clots
B. The tongue
C. Aspirated fluid
D. Vomitus

A

B. The tongue

128
Q

Which of the following factors will cause a reduction in minute volume in an adult?

A. Respirations of 20 breaths/min
B. Shallow breathing
C. Slight increase in respiratory rate
D. Increased tidal volume

A

B. Shallow breathing

129
Q

Which of the following is a late sign of hypoxia?

A. Cyanosis
B. Anxiety
C. Restlessness
D. Tachycardia

A

A. Cyanosis

130
Q

Which of the following organs or tissues can survive the longest without oxygen?

A. Kidneys
B. Liver
C. Heart
D. Muscle

A

D. Muscle

131
Q

Which of the following oxygen flowmeters is NOT affected by gravity and can be used in any position when attached to an oxygen cylinder?

A. Vertical-position flowmeter
B. Pressure-compensated flowmeter
C. Ball-and-float flowmeter
D. Bourdon-gauge flowmeter

A

D. Bourdon-gauge flowmeter

132
Q

Which of the following patients is breathing adequately?

A. A conscious male with respirations of 19 breaths/min and pink skin
B. A conscious female with facial cyanosis and rapid, shallow respirations
C. An unconscious 52-year-old female with snoring respirations and cool, pale skin
D. A conscious male with respirations of 18 breaths/min and reduced tidal volume

A

A. A conscious male with respirations of 19 breaths/min and pink skin

133
Q

Which of the following structures is NOT found in the upper airway?

A. Larynx
B. Pharynx
C. Bronchus
D. Oropharynx

A

C. Bronchus

134
Q
A
135
Q
A

emt (9 decks)

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