Uworld10 Flashcards

1
Q

Function of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

A

rate limiting enzyme in the pentose phosphate pathway, the major source of cellular NADPH

This molecule is necessary for reducing glutathione (protects RBCs from oxidative damage) and for the biosynthesis of cholesterol, fatty acids, and steriods.

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2
Q

What is reaction formation?

A

defense mechanism that involves replacing unacceptable feelings and impulses with their extreme opposites

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3
Q

In patients with cystic fibrosis, pathogenic bacteria colonize the respiratory tract early in the disease course. The leading pathogen in adults is?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa, which forms a thick biofilm to prevent its full elimination from the body.

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4
Q

Disrupted development of the first and second pharyngeal arches results in?

A

hypoplasia of the arches’ musculoskeletal derivatives, including the mandible, maxilla, zygomatic bones, and ossicles.

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5
Q

Patients taking daily maintenance nitrates need to have a nitrate free period every day to avoid?

A

tolerance to the drug

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6
Q

What is myasthenia gravis characterized by?

A

autoantibodies against postsynaptic nicotinic acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction, which result in receptor degradation.

Patients have extraocular, bulbar, and facial weakness that worsens with activity.

In severe cases, the respiratory muscles may be affected, leading to hypoventilation and respiratory failure.

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7
Q

MOA of enoxaparin

A

Low molecular weight heparin that functions like heparin in that it binds and activates antithrombin III.

Activated ATIII binds to factor Xa and stops factor Xa from converting prothrombin to thrombin. Due to its fewer numbers of molecules, LMWH acts primarily on factor Xa, not thrombin.

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8
Q

What is schizophreniform disorder?

A

Psychotic symptoms (delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech and behavior, negative symptoms) lasting >1 month and <6 months

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9
Q

Where is the amino acid binding site on tRNA?

A

The 3’CCA tail of tRNA.

Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase is the enzyme responsible for “loading” the appropriate amino acid to the 3’ terminal hydroxyl group of the CCA tail

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10
Q

How does thiazide diuretics cause hypercalcemia?

A

Thiazide diuretics cause hypercalcemia by increasing the distal tubular reabsorption of Ca2+

The increased circulating calcium levels result in suppression of parathyroid hormone, which distinguishes this effect from hyperparathyroidism

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11
Q

Primary hyperaldosteronism results in?

A

hypertension and hypokalemia, which can cause muscle cramps, muscle weakness, and paresthesia

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12
Q

Graft versus host disease pathogenesis

A

graft versus host disease can occur following transplantation of organs rich in lymphocytes (eg liver)

T lymphocytes found in the donor organ become sensitized against the MHC antigens of the recipient and subsequently attack the host’s tissues.

skin, liver, and GI tract are most commonly affected

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13
Q

How does viridans streptococci cause subacute bacterial endocarditis

A

viridans strep produce dextrans that aid them in colonizing host surfaces, such as dental enamel and heart valves.

These organisms cause subacute bacterial endocarditis, classically in pts with preexisting cardiac valvular defects after dental work

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14
Q

in response to chronic hypoxemia (eg advanced chronic obstructive pulmonary disease), specialized peritubular fibroblasts in the renal cortex release?

A

erythropoietin: stimulates RBC production (ie, secondary polycythemia) by the bone marrow, improving the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood

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15
Q

Many pts with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy have exercise intolerance due to?

A

left ventricular outflow tract obstruction.

This outflow obstruction is worsened by decreased LV blood volume.

Beta blockers decrease heart rate and LV contractility to increase LV blood volume, reduce LV outflow tract obstruction, and improve symptoms

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16
Q

What is concentric hypertrophy

A

uniform thickening of the ventricular wall and narrowing of the ventricular cavity due to increased afterload (eg, chronic hypertension, aortic stenosis)

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17
Q

What is eccentric hypertrophy

A

reduced ventricular wall thickness with an associated increase in chamber size due to volume overload

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18
Q

The murmur of valvular aortic stenosis sounds like?

A

ejection or midsystolic murmur of crescendo-decrescendo with maximum intensity over the right second interspace and radiation to neck and carotid arteries

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19
Q

What is the most common cause of aortic stenosis in elderly patients (>70 yo)

A

degenerative calcification of the aortic valve leaflets

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20
Q

What is the relation of GFR and creatinine?

A

When the GFR is normal, relatively large decreases in GFR result in only small increases in serum creatinine.

When the GFR is significantly decreased, small decrements in GFR produce relatively large changes in serum creatinine.

rule: every time GFR halves, serum creatinine doubles

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21
Q

Injury to axillary nerve most commonly occurs?

A

in the setting of shoulder trauma (eg, anterior shoulder dislocation, surgical neck of the humerus fracture)

It presents with sensory loss over the lateral shoulder and weakness on shoulder abduction (due to denervation of deltoid)

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22
Q

What is the most common cause of acute bacterial prostatitis and other UTIs?

A

e. coli because of adhesins on its fimbriae that promote adherence to urothelial or mucosal cells

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23
Q

What is acute bacterial prostatitis usually caused by?

A

reflux of urine and organisms from the bladder and urethra.

The risk is greater in patients with anatomic abnormalitites (eg, strictures) or bladder catheterization.

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24
Q

What is disseminated intravascular coagulation?

A

Widespread activation of the coagulation cascade, leading to excessive thrombin production and formation of micro thrombi.

Subsequent conversion of plasminogen to plasmin results in increased fibrinolyis to clear the thrombi.

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25
Q

What are the labs for DIC?

A

Labs will show a consumption of clotting factors (prolonged PT/PTT) and platelets (thrombocytopenia) and signs of excessive fibrinolysis (elevated D-dimer)

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26
Q

Ethylene glycol and methanol are toxic alcohols that cause?

A

anion gap metabolic acidosis and elevated osmolar gap.

Toxicity occurs after metabolization by alcohol dehydrogenase; fomepizole is a competitive inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase and is used for the treatment of acute poisoning.

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27
Q

Adhesion of cells to the extracellular matrix involves integrin-mediated binding to?

A

fibronectin, collagen, and laminin.

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28
Q

What is diabetic ketoacidosis?

A

Polydipsia, polyuria, and a fruity odor to the breath or urine.

Associated with elevated anion gap metabolic acidosis that is usually with compensatory resp alkalosis. = yields a low pH, low serum bicarbonate, and low PaCO2

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29
Q

How is a Zenker diverticulum caused?

A

Diminished relaxation of cricopharyngeal muscles during swallowing results in increased intraluminal pressure in the oropharynx. This may cause the mucosa to herniate through a zone of muscle weakness in the posterior hypopharynx, forming a Zenker (false) diverticulum, which presents in elderly with oropharyngeal dysphagia, halitosis, regurgitation, and recurrent aspiration

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30
Q

What is the risk factors for atrial fibrillation?

A

Age, independent of comorbidities, is one of the strongest risk factors for atrial fibrillation as age related change to the atrial myocardium is one of the primary contributors to atrial remodeling.

Left atrial dilation is the other primary contributor to atrial remodeling; therefore comorbidities that cause left atrial dilation (HTN, heart failure, mitral valve disease) are also associated with atrial fibrillation.

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31
Q

How does human herpesvirus 6 infection (roseola) present?

A

fever for 3-5 days followed by a trunal rash. It is also the most common cause of febrile seizures.

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32
Q

Proto-oncogenes stimulate cell proliferation, and their over expression leads to increased cellular proliferation and neoplastic growth. List an example

A

KRAS is a proto oncogene often activated in tumor cells

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33
Q

Anti-oncogenes are tumor suppressors as they inhibit cellular proliferation. Loss of function mutation leads to tumor development. Name some examples

A

APC, BRCA1, TP53, RB

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34
Q

Isosorbide dinitrate has a low bioavailability due to?

A

extensive first pass hepatic metabolism prior to release in the systemic circulation.

Sublingual nitroglycerin is absorbed directly from oral mucosa into the venous circulation and has a higher bioavailibilty

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35
Q

What are symptoms of tricyclic antidepressant overdose?

A

seizures, anticholinergic toxicity, hypotension, and cardiac toxicity (QRS widening, ventricular arrhythmias)

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36
Q

What helps you find the appedix?

A

The teniae coli are 3 separate smooth muscle ribbons that travel longitudinally on the outside of the colon and converge at the root of the vermiform appedix.

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37
Q

How does crohn disease present?

A

prolonges diarrhea and abdominal pain. Low grade fever, fatigue, malabsorption, and weight loss are also common.

Transmural inflammation of the bowel wall may result in the formation of fistulas, abscesses, and fibrotic strictures

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38
Q

Gastric acid is neutralized by?

A

By bicarbonate from the submucosal (Brunner) glands of the duodenum and from pancreatic duct secretions.

Chronic overproduction of gastric acid can lead to hyperplasia of the submucosal glands

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39
Q

What are markers of osteoblast activity?

A

Bone-specific alkaline phosphatase levels correlate with osteoblast activity.

Other markers: N-terminal propeptide of type 1 procollagen, which is released during post-translation cleavage of type 1 procollagen.

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40
Q

Where does the anterior pituitary forms from?

A

surface ectoderm

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41
Q

What is a pituitary adenoma

A

a benign tumor arising from the anterior pituitary and the most common cause of sellar masses (headache, bitemporal hemianopia, hypogonadism) in adults

42
Q

Alpha thalassemia minor results from?

A

exactly 2 alpha globin gene deletions and is characterized by mild microcytic anemia.

two people with different alpha thalassemia minor genotypes, one in cis (aa/–) and the other in trans (a-/a-), have a 0% probability of their offspring having alpha thalassemia minor

43
Q

The reduced cardiac output in heart failure triggers compensatory activation of?

A

the sympathetic nervous system and renin-angiotensin-aldosterone pathway, resulting in vasoconstriction (increased afterload), fluid retention (increased preload) and deleterious cardiac remodeling.

These mechanisms perpetuate a downward spiral of cardiac deterioration, leading to symptomatic decompensated heart failure.

44
Q

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency causes?

A

hemolytic anemia and jaundice secondary to increased oxidative stress due to the lack of NADPH.

Gluthathione reductase deficiency has a similar clinical consequence as its absence results in an inability to utilize NADPH to reduce glutathione

45
Q

What meds are most effective for motion sickness prevention?

A

antimuscarinic (anticholinergics): scopolamine

antihistamines with antimuscarinic action: diphenhydramine, meclizine

46
Q

Where is glucose reabsorbed?

A

glucose is reabsorbed from the proximal tubule by sodium-glucose cotransporter-2 (SGLT-2). Normally, nearly all filtered glucose is reabsorbed.

47
Q

How does SGLT-2 inhibitors (canaglifozin) work in the proximal tubule?

A

SGLT-2 inibitors lower the threshold at which filtered glucose can be fully reabsorbed; this increases urinary glucose losses and lowers blood glucose levels

48
Q

What is at risk for injury during procedures near the right atrium?

A

Right phrenic nerve courses along the pericardium overlying the right side of the heart and is at risk for injury during procedures in or near the RA (eg, radiofrequency ablation)

Right phrenic nerve injury is typically recognized by elevation of the right hemidiaphragm.

49
Q

Hyponatremia following cerebral injury (eg, subarachnoid hemorrhage) is most commonly due to?

A

Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion.

Injury to the hypothalamus leads to increased secretion of antidiuretic hormone, which in turn leads to water retention, low serum osmolality, and increased urinary sodium excretion.

50
Q

What is an S4?

A

low frequency, extra heart sound that occurs at the end of diastole (just before S1)

It is caused by blood striking a stiff ventricular wall during atrial contraction.

Normal in elderly (>70yo) but pathologic ventricular wall stiffening in younger patients (most commonly die to concentric left ventricular hypertrophy in response to chronic hypertension)

51
Q

What is the first step (and rate limiting) step in conversion of acyclovir to its active triphosphate form?

A

monophosphorylation of acyclovir by a viral thymidine kinase

52
Q

Abusive head traume is caused by?

A

vigorous shaking of an infant and results in subdural hemorrhage (due to shearing of bridging cortical veins) and retinal hemorrhages (sheared retinal vessels)

53
Q

What is seen 1-3 days after an MI?

A

neutrophils infiltrate the border zone of the injured tissues (where myocytes are relatively normal) in response to proinflammatory cytokines (IL-6 and 8), eventually migrating to the central portion of the infarct

54
Q

What are the spore forming bacterias

A

bacillus and clostridium

55
Q

What muscle passes through the greater sciatic foramen?

A

The piriformis muscle arises from the sacrum, passes through the greater sciatic foramen, and inserts on the greater trochanter.

it acts to externally rotate the thigh when extended and abduct the thigh when flexed.

Piriformis injury or hypertrophy can compress the sciatic nerve (which runs inferiorly to the piriformis), causing sciatica like symptoms (ie, piriformis syndrome)

56
Q

What is a partial mole?

A

will have a triploid karotype (69, XXX or XXY) and contain fetal tissue with some edematous villi with focal trophoblatic proliferation, and normal appearing villi.

Patients present with vaginal bleeding, and prior miscarriage is a risk factor.

57
Q

What is serum sickness?

A

an immune complex-mediated type III HSR that occurs 1-2 weeks after exposure to nonhuman protein in antitoxins (antivenom), monoclonal antibodies (rituximab) or vaccines (rabies antigens)

Deposition of immune complexes in tissue leads to complement activation and subsequent self limited fever, arthralgia, and urticarial rash

58
Q

Plaque stability depends on?

A

The likelihood of plaque rupture is related to plaque stability rather than plaque size or the degree of luminal narrowing.

Plaque stability largely depends on the mechanical strength of the fibrous cap.

Inflammatory macrophages in the intima may reduce plaque stability by secreting metalloproteinases, which degrade extracellular matrix proteins (eg collagen)

59
Q

Influenza epidemics and pandemics are typically caused by?

A

reassortment of the RNA segments coding for hemagglutin or neuraminidase proteins (major antigenic shifts)

This process can occur between human and animal strains of influenza A virus in avian or swine hosts.

60
Q

Hemorrhaic cystitits during therapy with cyclophosphamid or ifosfamide is caused by? Can be prevented by?

A

Caused by the urinary excretion of the toxic metabolite acrolein.

Can be prevented by aggressive hydration, bladder irrigation, and mesna: a sulfhydroyl compound that binds acrolein in the urine

61
Q

What arises from 3rd pharyngeal pouch?

A

thymus and inferior parathyroid glands

62
Q

Myasthenia gravis is associated with abnormalities of the?

A

thymus (thymoma, thymic hyperplasia)

63
Q

Unbalanced Robertsonian translocations account for a minority of Down syndrome cases. Karotyping will show?

A

46 chromosomes with a translocation between 2 acrocentric nonhomologous chromosomes (46, XX, t(14;21)

64
Q

Traumatic injury to the eye, a site that displays immune privilege, can lead to?

A

the release of previously sequestered antigens that T cells recognize as foreign. This can lead to sight-threatening inflammation in both the injured and uninjured eye.

65
Q

What meds can trigger gout?

A

Gout occurs in the setting of hyperuricemia and causes an inflammatory arthritis characterized by negative birefringent, needle shaped crystals visible on joint fluid microscopy.

Most diuretics (eg, hydrochlorothiazide, furosemide) can cause hyperuricemia and trigger gout flares by causing relative volume depletion, which decreases the fractional excretion of uric acid.

66
Q

What is a common adverse effect of rifamycins (rifampin)?

A

harmless red-orange discolorations of body fluids.

67
Q

MOA of rifamycins (rifampin)

A

block the action of the bacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase, thereby inhibiting bacterial transcription; resistance is acquired by mutations that modify the enzyme’s structure.

68
Q

Findings and causes of femoral neuropathy

A

findings: quadriceps weakness, decreased patellar reflex, and sensory loss over the anterior thigh and medial lower leg.

Causes: compression from an abscess or hematoma (eg retroperitoneal hematoma in an anticoagulated patient), trauma, or injury during surgery or childbirth

69
Q

Medicare covers who?

A

people over 65 with work history and younger people with disabilities

70
Q

Isolated systolic hypertension commonly seen in elderly results from?

A

age-related stiffening (ie, replacement of elastin with collagen) and reduced compliance of the aorta and other large arteries.

71
Q

What changes does pregnancy cause to the heart?

A

assocaited with increase in blood volume and cardiac output that frequency causes a pulmonic flow murmur and S3

72
Q

Many drugs are dosed based on total body weight to improve safety and efficacy. In obese individuals, how does dosing differ?

A

In obese people, use of lean body weight or an adjusted body weight may be necessary when dosing hydrophilic drugs (eg, aminoglycosides) that do not distribute into adipose tissue

73
Q

What happens to the GFR and filtration fraction during acute ureteral constriction or obstruction?

A

Decreases both.

74
Q

Achondroplasia inheritance pattern?

A

Autosomal dominant disorder that results in a gain of function mutation in the FGFR3 gene.

Most affected are heterozygous and have a 50% chance transmitting to offspring.

75
Q

MOA of abatacept

A

Abatcept, a disease modifying antirheumatic drug, is a fusion of CTLA4 with the Fc portion of IgG.

CTLA4 binds to CD80/86 on antigen-presenting cells, which prevents CD80/86 from binding to CD28 on T cells. This reduces T cell costimulation and leads to anergy, which reduces inflammation.

76
Q

Hartnup disease is caused by?

A

impaired transport of neutral amino acids in the small intestine and proximal tubule of the kidney

Symptoms: pellagra-like skin eruptions and cerebellar ataxia, which occur as a result of niacin def.

Dx can be confirmed through detection of excessive amounts of neutral amino acids in the urine.

77
Q

MOA of topical prostaglandins (eg, latanoprost)

A

increase outflow of aqueous via the uveoscleral pathway and are the preferred txt for open angle glaucoma

78
Q

What is glaucoma

A

a form of optic neuropathy characterized by increased intraocular pressure associated with increased production or decreased outflow of aqueous humor

79
Q

what is gallstone ileus?

A

a mechanical bowel obstruction caused when a large gallstone erodes into the intestinal lumen.

Pneumobilia (air in the biliary tract) is a common finding.

80
Q

What is conversion disorfer

A

Characterized by neurologic symptoms and exam findings that are incompatible with a known neurological disease.

Patients do not consciously produce symptoms like in factitious disorder or malingering, and the condition may cause significant distress/impairment.

81
Q

Listeria is a relatively common foodborne illness associated with outbreaks after?

A

the consumption of contaminated food, like processed meats and dairy.

Healthy pts may develop gastroenteritis; patients with impaired cell mediated immunity are at risk for invasive infection (sepsis, meningoencephalitis); and listeriosis in pregnancy is a/w adverse fetal outcomes (eg, fetal death, premature birth)

82
Q

What is erythema multiforme?

A

a cell mediated inflammatory disorder of the skin characterized by erythematous papules that evolve into target lesions.

It is most commonly a/w herpes simplex virus

83
Q

cytomegalovirus is typically a/w?

A

subclinical infection in the immunocompetent, with the occasional individual developing a mononucleosis-like syndrome that is heterophile antibody (monospot) negative.

In the immuncompromised, primary or reactivated CMV infection can result in severe retinitis, pneumonia, esophagitis, colitis, or hepatitis.

84
Q

Steroid abuse can lead to?

A

erythrocytosis (increased hematocrit), testicular atrophy, acne, and virilization in women (clitoromegaly, hirsutism)

85
Q

Invasive breast carcinoma typically presents?

A

irregularly shaped, adherent breast mass, most commonly in the upper outer quadrant.

malignant infiltration of suspensory ligaments of the breast can cause skin retractions

86
Q

Maple syrup urine disease presents how?

A

first few days of life with irritability, dystonia, poor feeding, and sweet smelling urine.

Dietary restriction of branched-chained amino acids (leucine, isoleucine, valine) is the mainstay of treatment.

87
Q

Anatomy of the left ventricle

A

left ventricle forms the apex of the heart and can reach as far as the 5th intercostal space at the left midclavicular line.

all other chambers of the heart lie medial to the left MCL. The lungs overlap much of the anterior surface of the heart

88
Q

Asplenic patients are prone to infection caused by ?

A

encapsulated organisms such as strep pneumo, haemophilus influenzae, and neisseria meningitdis.

The spleed acts as both as a blood filter capable of removing circulating pathogens and as a mjaor site of opsonizing antibody synthesis.

89
Q

a wave on a jugular venous pulsation waveform is generated by?

A

atrial contraction at the end of right ventricular diastole just before tricuspid valve closure

90
Q

What is seen on CT for constrictive pericarditis?

A

the symptomatic presentation of constrictive pericarditis mimics that of right sided heart failure, with patients experiencing slowly progressive dyspnea, lower extremity edema, ascited, and weight gain.

Calcification and thickening of the pericardium are typical features of constrictive pericarditis on CT.

91
Q

The initial phase in Paget disease of bone is characterized by?

A

increase osteoclastic activity.

bone pain and elevated alkaline phosphatase level in an elderly patient can occur with osteoblast metastases and Paget disease of bone.

Biopsy showing a mosaic pattern of lamellar bone is diagnostic for PDB.

92
Q

Hyperthyroidism can cause what to bone?

A

Hyperthyroidism causes increased bone turnover with net bone loss, potentially leading to osteoporosis.

The bone loss is driven by triiodothyronine, which stimulates osteoclast differentiation, increased bone resorption, and release of calcium.

93
Q

What vessels supply the small and large intestines?

A

the superior mesenteric artery and inferior mesenteric artery are the 2 main vessels supplying the small and large intestines.

They are connected by a pair of anastomoses; the marginal artery of Drummond, which is the principal anastomosis, and the inconsistently present arc of Riolan (mesenteric meandering artery)

94
Q

What are langerhan cells?

A

dendritic cells found in the skin that act as professional antigen presenting cells. These cells are derived from the myeloid cell line and they possess characteristic racquet shaped intracytoplasmic granules known as Birbeck granules.

95
Q

Histo and immunohistochemical stains for small cell lung cancer

A

small cell lung cancer is strongly a/w smoking and is usually centrally located.

Histo: small round/oval cells with scant cytoplasm, hyperchromatic (blue) nuclei, and granular chromatin; abundant mitoses are also seen.

Immunohisto: positive fo neuroendocrine markers (chromogranin, synaptophysin, neural cell adhesion molecule (CD56)

96
Q

Transcatheter aortic valve implantation (TAVI) allows for minimally invasive management of severe aortic stenosis in elderly patients who are unable to tolerate open surgical valve replacement. What is a common complication of TAVI?

A

Paravalvular aortic regurgitaiton; resulting from improper sealing of the prosthetic valve to the native aortic valve annulus.

97
Q

What is first order kinetics

A

a constant fraction (or proportion) of drug is metabolized per unit of time, so the amount metabolized changes based on the serum concentration

98
Q

what is zero order kinetics

A

a constant amount of drug is metabolized per unit of time, independent of serum levels.

99
Q

Aplastic anemia is a form of bone marrow failure a/w?

A

pancytopenia and bone marrow aplasia/hypoplasia.

Although erythropoietin levels are high, reticulocytes remain low because the production of new erythrocytes is impaired by a paucity of bone marrow stem cells.

However, the blood cells produced by the remaining stem cells are normal in morphology and red cell indexes (eg mean corpuscular volume) are usually normal.

100
Q

In cystic fibrosis, impairment of the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) protein leads to?

A

reduces chloride secretion and increases sodium absorption by the respiratory epithelia, resulting in dehydrated mucus.

When saline is applied to the nasal mucosa, the increased sodium absorption in patients with CF causes a more negative nasal transepithelial potential difference, which can be used to diagnose cystic fibrosis.