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Free120 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the MOA of the aminoglycoside gentamicin?

A

binds 30S ribosomal protein

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2
Q

Adminstration of Rh0(D) immune globin prevents?

A

formation of antibodies to RhD

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3
Q

serum sickness is what type of HSR?

A

type III- immune complex deposition in tissues

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4
Q

what is serum sickness symptoms?

A

type III HSR, 1-3 weeks after receiving meds containing proteins derived from animals.

-fever, lymphadenopathy, arthralgias, erythema on hands/feet

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5
Q

contact dermatitis pathogenesis

A

CD28 on T lymphocytes react with CD80 on epidermal langerhan cells

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6
Q

malonyl-coA directly inhibits what?

A

fatty acid oxidation

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7
Q

what happens to the endothelial junctions in edema?

A

endothelial junctions will separate in response to injury/inflammation, allowing migration of WBCs to site of injury

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8
Q

Pineal tumors can cause which impaired oculomotor function?

A

upward gaze

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9
Q

unable to dorsiflex, which nerve is injured

A

common fibular (peroneal)

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10
Q

fluid from an ectopic rupture will go where?

A

pouch of douglas

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11
Q

what can be used for ankylosing spondylitis if NSAIDS and sulfasalazine is ineffective?

A

a drug that inhibits tumor necrosis factor-alpha

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12
Q

jaundice caused by acetaminophen is due to?

A

decreased bilirubin conjugation

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13
Q

what is seen in aspiration pneumonia?

A

elderly people, dullness in RLL field, arterial hypoxemia and decreased PCO2

fever, SOB, difficulty swallowing, chest pain, and cough

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14
Q

what is a third degree AV block?

A

no relation between atrium (p) waves and QRS.

cannon a waves seen

fainting and fatigue and bradycardia

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15
Q

southern blots can indicate which process?

A

gene rearrangment

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16
Q

formula for absolute risk reduction

A

c/c+d - a/a+b

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17
Q

in chronic HTN, what happens to the baroreceptor output?

A

it will decrease

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18
Q

what is the virulence factor for clostridium perfingens (G+ rod)

A

alpha-toxin

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19
Q

function of infraspinatus and teres minor

A

external rotation

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20
Q

what is the omental bursa (lesser sac)?

A

space behind the stomach but in front of the retroperitoneal structures

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21
Q

what is seen in myeloperoxidase def?

A

increase risk for Candida

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22
Q

traits of herpes virus

A

enveloped dsDNA linear

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23
Q

how is ascariasis transmitted?

A

ingestion of soil

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24
Q

X linked diseases carrier depends on?

A

random X inactivation

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25
Q

carbamazepine will effect which pharmacokinetic process?

A

metabolism; it is a CYP450 inducer

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26
Q

below dentate line lymph node

A

superficial inguinal

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27
Q

above dentate line lymph node

A

internal iliac

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28
Q

infraorbital nerve function

A

sensation over the upper lip

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29
Q

post exertional syncope can lead to

A

orthostatic hypotension

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30
Q

ACE inhibitors can cause damage to what in fetuses?

A

renal damage

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31
Q

aspirin induced asthma is due to the accumulation of

A

leukotrienes

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32
Q

6-24 hours post meal is dominated by?

A

glycogenolysis in the liver

33
Q

s. pyogenese (group A strep) relationshop with bacitracin

A

killed by bacitracin

GBS is resistant to bacitracin

34
Q

MOA of bisphosphates

A

decreased osteoclast activity

35
Q

95% confidence interval does not include 1 means

A

statistically significant overall increase in risk

36
Q

desmopressin activates what?

A

adenylyl cyclase

37
Q

RSV bronchiolitis enters the cell via

A

mediation of cell entry via a fusion protein

38
Q

albuterol MOA

A

beta-2 agonist, helps against wheezing

39
Q

lack of mediastinal shift means?

A

not under tension

40
Q

what is subacute combined degernation

A

progressive peripheral sensory and motor loss; late sign of B12 def

41
Q

galactosemia has increased levels of

A

galactose 1-phosphate

42
Q

treatment of yersenia pestis bubonic plague

A

aminoglycoside - binds to 30S ribosomal subunit

43
Q

what is seen in Cushing’s syndrome

A

hypertension and muscle weakness

44
Q

what is the formula for 95% CI?

A

x +/- (1.96 x SE)

x= mean
SE= standard error

45
Q

type 2 diabetes will increase the risk for what vaginal infection?

A

candida: white discharge and pseudohyphae

46
Q

why is there an increase risk for bilirubin gallstones in sickle cell?

A

due to overload of unconjugated bilirubin

47
Q

what is seen in hypercholesterolemia?

A

accelerrated atherosclerosis (MIs before 20), tendinous xanthomas, thickened Achilles tendons.

defective LDL receptors or apoB100

48
Q

if power increases, what happens to type II error?

A

type II error decreases

49
Q

the decrease in cardiac output in a MI will lead to?

A

increase in LVEDV

50
Q

what is used for adjunct therapy for a parkinson patient with freezing, clumsy gait and rigidity of his upper extremities?

A

monoamine oxidase B inhibitors

51
Q

high dose epinephrine effects

A

alpha 1: increase systolic blood pressure and increase peripheral resistance and smooth muscle contraction via Gq, leading to increase phospholipase C, IP3, DAG, protein kinase C

beta 2: Gs, increase cAMP, inhibits contraction and decrease peripheral resistance

alpha 1 > beta 2

52
Q

most common cause of viral meningitis

A

enterovirus

53
Q

high grade stenosis of the proximal right renal artery is pathnogonomic for

A

atherosclerotic renal artery stenosis

54
Q

GERD is due to?

A

excessive transient lower esophageal relaxations

55
Q

what is the site where the ureter enters the bladder?

A

uretopelvic junction

56
Q

what can cause virilzation with hypospaidas in a female fetus

A

maternal adrogen exposure

57
Q

osteoarthritis can lead to?

A

degenerative changes of the cartilage

58
Q

Reactivation of varicella-zoster virus is thought to contribute to the
development of shingles in immunocompromised individuals secondary to deficiencies in?

A

cellular immunity.

Cellular immunity is essential in the identification and destruction of
intracellular pathogens, such as viruses, through the use of MHC class I proteins on host tissue/

59
Q

accessory spleen originate from?

A

at the origin of the celiac vessels

60
Q

patients with cystic fibrosis is unable to secrete which substance?

A

bicarbonate

61
Q

what is glanzmann thrombasthenia

A

aggregation disorder due to defect in glycoprotein IIb-IIIa

62
Q

what happens to the right heart in pulmonary hypertension>

A

the right ventricle will hypertrophy and then right ventricular diastolic compliance will decrease

63
Q

MOA of rifampin

A

Rifampin inhibits bacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase,
preventing transcription and mRNA synthesis. This leads to impaired bacterial protein synthesis and cell death.

64
Q

traits of staph epidermidis

A

coagulase negative, catalase+, gram+ cocci in clusters

65
Q

The most likely areas of the kidney to be affected by ischemia?

A

he proximal convoluted tubular and the thick ascending limb due to greater levels of metabolic activity and oxygen consumption.

66
Q

what is keratosis pilaris?

A

red bumps, not itchy or painful

67
Q

what happens to the blood in obstructive sleep apnea?

A

increased hemoglobin concentration

68
Q

ADH will activate what?

A

urea reabsorption in the medullary collecting ducts

69
Q

cystic artery is a branch off of

A

right hepatic

70
Q

what is goodpasture syndrome

A

a cause of nephritic syndrome and proliferative glomerulonephritis due
to the formation of anti-base membrane antibodies directed at type IV collagen in the renal and pulmonary capillary basement membranes.

71
Q

what is central DI

A

central diabetes insipidus due to
impaired ADH secretion by the supraoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus.

72
Q

effects of ACEi

A

decrease GFR
decrease filtration
increase renal blood flow

73
Q

MOA of acyclovir

A

inhibit viral DNA polymerase and subsequent DNA replication via chain termination

74
Q

which cell is responsible for PNS myelination

A

schwann cells

75
Q

scant pubic hair and breast bud is which tanner stage

A

2

76
Q

The process of leukocyte margination and rolling requires the expression of various molecules, including?

A

The process of leukocyte margination and rolling requires the expression of various molecules, including P-selectin, E-selectin, GlyCAM-1, and CD34 on endothelial cells as well as Sialyl-Lewisx, and L-selectin on leukocytes.

77
Q

what is TIPS procedure

A

During this procedure, a needle
catheter is inserted into the internal jugular vein and passed to the hepatic vein. Once inside, the needle is used to pierce through the liver parenchyma, creating a new shunt between the portal
vein and the inferior vena cava (via the hepatic vein).

78
Q

what is postpartum thyroiditis due to?

A

lymphocytic infiltration of the thyroid

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