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Definitions Flashcards

All definitions

1
Q

Section 494

A

Section 494 of the Criminal Code (CC) provides authorities for arrest without warrant by any person

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2
Q

What is Excited Delirium

A

Excited delirium is a condition that can be caused by drug or alcohol intoxication, psychiatric illness or a combination of both. Symptoms displayed by persons suffering from the condition may include any combination of
 abnormal tolerance to pain
 abnormal tolerance to pepper spray
 acute onset of paranoia
 bizarre or aggressive behaviour
 disorientation
 hallucinations
 impaired thinking
 panic
 shouting
 sudden calm after frenzied activity
 sweating, fever, heat intolerance
 unexpected physical strength
 violence towards others.

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3
Q

gives everyone the fundamental “freedom of conscience and religion

A

Section 2 of Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms

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4
Q

Every person has a right to equal treatment with respect to services, goods and facilities, without discrimination because of race, ancestry, place of origin, colour, ethnic origin, citizenship, creed, sex, sexual orientation, gender identity, gender expression, age, marital status, family status or disability.”

A

Section 1 of the Human Rights Code

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5
Q

Unreasonable Search and Seizure

A

Section 8 of the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms

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6
Q

Cloutier v Langlois SCC 1990

A

The right to search as an incident to a lawful arrest is found in common law, and has been upheld by the Supreme Court, as long as the search is conducted for a valid objective and is not conducted in an abusive fashion

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7
Q

portable, handheld security device capable of detecting metal objects authorized for use by the Service.

A

Handheld Metal Detector

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8
Q

means a document created to record the pertinent details of all Frisk & Strip searches and the authorization of a Body Cavity search. The template allows the Service to electronically capture the data required to properly report on all Frisk & Strip searches of persons (including self–identified transgender/transsexual persons) conducted by members. For prisoners that are booked into a police facility.

A

Booking and Search Template

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9
Q

means a document created to record the pertinent details of all Body Cavity searches. The template allows the Service to electronically capture the data required to properly report on all Body Cavity searches of persons (including self-identified transgender/transsexual persons) conducted by members

A

Body Cavity Search Template

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10
Q

means a document created to record the pertinent details of all Protective and Frisk searches that occur in the field where a person has not been brought into a police facility. The template allows the Service to electronically capture the data required to properly report on all searches of persons (including self–identified transgender/transsexual persons) conducted by members that have occurred in the field where the person was not brought in to a police facility.

A

Search in the Field only Template

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11
Q

the set of socially classified behaviours, attitudes and norms associated with and roles of men, women, trans people, non-binary people and more. Encompasses gender identity, a person’s internal sense of being a man, woman, both or neither.

A

Gender

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12
Q

This is used generally during Investigative Detention and involves a limited search of a person who has been detained by police when there is reasonable belief the person poses a safety risk. The scope of the search is limited to exterior patting of clothing such as pockets, waistband or areas that may reasonably conceal such items as weapons or implements that may be used as weapons, usually with open hands to maximize the ability to detect weapons through clothing. This search may also be described as a “safety search”, as that is the purpose and objective.

A

Protective Search

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13
Q

This is used generally for Search Incident to Arrest and means a more-thorough search that may include emptying and searching pockets as well as removal of clothing, which does not expose a person’s undergarments, or the areas of the body normally covered by undergarments. The removal of clothing such as belts, footwear, socks, shoes, sweaters, extra layers of clothing, or the shirt of a male would all be included in a Frisk search. A Frisk search may be commenced in the field and concluded at the station.

NOTE:
A Frisk search conducted incident to arrest includes the area within the immediate control of the arrested person.
Members shall make every effort to video and audio record all Frisk searches. Members are also required to articulate the justification for the manner and circumstances under which these searches are conducted. For the purposes of this definition, “Pat Down Search” means the same as, “Frisk Search”.

A

Frisk Search

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14
Q

the Supreme Court stated, “In addition to reasonable and probable grounds justifying the arrest, the police must establish reasonable and probable grounds justifying the strip search,” and “the police must establish they have reasonable and probable grounds for concluding that a strip search is necessary in the particular circumstances of the arrest

A

R v. Golden SCC 2001 SCC 83 - that which constitutes a strip search and what types of circumstances may justify one

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15
Q

is an umbrella term referring to people with diverse gender identities and expressions that differ from their assigned sex at birth. It includes but is not limited to people who identify as transgender, trans woman (someone assigned male at birth who knows themself to be a woman), trans man (someone assigned female at birth who knows themself to be a man), non-binary, gender non-conforming, gender variant or gender queer. Some people may consider two-spirit to be a trans identity. Trans persons may or may not make a social transition, have surgery, use prosthetic devices or take prescription medications (such as hormone therapies), to affirm their gender identity. They may or may not have identity documents that reflect their lived identity.

A

Trans

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16
Q

All important Case Law

A

Cloutier v. Langlois (Supreme Court of Canada) (1990)

  • R. v. Flintoff (Ontario Court of Appeal) (1998)
  • R. v. Coulter (Ontario Court of Justice) (2000)
  • R. v. Golden (Supreme Court of Canada) (2001)
  • R. v. Clarke, Heroux and Pilipa (Ontario Superior Court of Justice) (2003)
  • R. v. Mann (Supreme Court of Canada) (2004)
  • R. v. McGuffie (Ontario Court of Appeal) (2016)
  • R. v. MacPherson (Ontario Native Council on Justice) (2018)
  • R. v. Tonkin (Ontario Superior Court of Justice) (2020)
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17
Q

As a Search Incident to Arrest what can police search for

A

MIEW
- Means of escape
- Injury
- Evidence
- Weapons

  • weapons
  • anything that could cause injury (including drugs and alcohol)
  • anything that could assist in a person’s escape
  • evidence
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18
Q

What is the Case Law where

  • the potential that the person will come into contact with other detainees, creating an opportunity for the person to hand off contraband, weapons, etc…to another prisoner
A

R .v COULTER Ontario Court of Justice 2000

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19
Q

When can Strip searches in the field be conducted

A

Searches in the field will only be justified where there is a demonstrated necessity and urgency to search for weapons or objects that could be used to threaten the safety of the accused, the arresting officers or other individuals.

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20
Q

Can Strip searched be video taped?

A

NO!!!

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21
Q

When handling ________
members shall be cognizant of human rights and unless circumstances make it impractical to do so, comply with the process below

A

items of religious significance

having regard for the:

 immediate risk of injury
 immediate risk of escape
 immediate risk of destruction of evidence
 safety of the member
 safety of the person
 safety of the public.

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22
Q

Accused young person (under _____ years of age) can be lodged in a divisional cell only:

A

under the age of 18

 to prevent injury or to protect others from aggressive behaviour and

 when there is no adult present in the cells, OR

 when there is an adult present in the cells and there is adequate space to isolate the young person from the adult.

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23
Q

In order to maximize safety of persons in custody and Service members assigned to their care what should be removed from prisoners

A
  • valuable property
     evidence
     implements of escape
     offensive weapons as defined in the Criminal Code
     items which could be used as a ligature including belts, ties, and shoelaces
     items which could be used to cause damage to property including matches, lighters, combs, keys and other sharp objects
     prescription and over the counter medications
     tobacco products
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24
Q

Duty to Accommodate persons with disabilities comes from
hint: 2 areas

A

Ontario Human Rights Code OHRC

and the Accessibility for Ontarians with Disabilities Act AODA

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25
Q

means a video surveillance system installed in the sally–port, booking hall and other areas of a police facility that is designed to record the booking and release of all prisoners as they enter and leave a police facility.

A

Booking Hall System (BHS)

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26
Q

means a police officer, court officer or custodial officer designated by the officer in charge as the person responsible for the care and handling of persons detained in custody

A

Booking Officer

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27
Q

means cells used during those hours in which the courts are sitting for

a) being held for a court appearance;
b) awaiting transportation to a detention facility;
c) ordered into custody by the court.

A

Court Cells

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28
Q

for the purposes persons in custody means any member designated as an audio/video operator with an understanding of how to operate the equipment.

A

Designated Operator

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29
Q

means any central lock–up and/or booking hall

A

Detention Facility

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30
Q

means cells that may be used for short term detention of a person in custody when:

 being processed, or waiting to be processed, or to ensure the safety of the person and/or members;

 awaiting transportation to a central lock–up;

 being held for return by an outside agency

A

Divisional Cells

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31
Q

means an assigned division used to detain a person in custody:

 when the person is held for a Show Cause hearing, or Judicial Interim Release where the bail court is closed

 when outside of admitting hours stipulated in Procedure 03–03
28

 in any other circumstances where detention is authorized and necessary.

A

Lock Up

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32
Q

for the purposes of prisoner transportation, care and control, includes a police officer, court officer and custodial officer.

A

Member - Prisoner Care and Control

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33
Q

means divisional cells, central lock–ups and court cells used for the secure detention of persons in custody. An interview room is not a police cell.

A

Police Cells

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34
Q

for the purposes of prisoner transportation, includes _____ and __________vehicle owned or operated by the Service, that has the capacity to transport a driver and ____ or more passengers.

A

Two or more

Marked and Unmarked

Police Vehicle - Prisoner transportation

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35
Q

means money, jewellery and other items that may make a prisoner the target of theft or robbery.

A

Valuable Property

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36
Q

Members should be aware that certain restraint positions (i.e. ______________) might compromise _______and ________functions increasing the risk of death. Unless circumstances make it impossible, persons should be restrained in a _________position while being closely watched. Use of the sitting position permits easier breathing and cardiac function, while affording good positional control over the individual

A

Stomach down

Heart and Lung

sitting position

Positional Asphyxia

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37
Q

is a condition that can be caused by drug or alcohol intoxication, ________ illness or a combination of both. Symptoms displayed by individuals suffering from this condition may include any combination of
 abnormal tolerance to pain
 abnormal tolerance to pepper spray
 unexpected physical strength
 violence towards others
 shouting
 sweating, fever, heat intolerance
 sudden calm after frenzied activity
 bizarre or aggressive behaviour
 impaired thinking
 disorientation
 acute onset of paranoia
 hallucinations
 panic

A

Excited Delirium

  • can be caused by drug or alcohol intoxication, psychiatric illness
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38
Q

is characterized by _______and ________ symptoms that can occur after a person discontinues consuming high doses of alcohol. Symptoms of AWS may appear within ______ to _______ hours after a person’s last consumption of alcohol.

AWS more commonly affects those with a history of alcoholism and/or those who have experienced problems with alcohol withdrawal in the past.

Symptoms can depend upon the _______ of alcohol consumed, ________ of consumption, and the ________ of consumption prior to discontinuance.

Determining a “________” as to a person’s last consumption of alcohol is important in assessing the onset of AWS.

A

Alcohol Withdrawal Syndrome

physical and mental

within 6 to 12 hours

amount, frequency, duration

time-stamp

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39
Q

tremors (trembling or quivering)
 anxiety
 sleep disturbance (insomnia)
 sweating (diaphoresis)
 over responsive reflexes (hyperreflexia)
 nausea/vomiting

A

Mild Symptoms

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40
Q

Mild symptoms can occur within _________hours after discontinuance and should subside within ___________ hours

A

24 hours

48 hours

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41
Q

Moderate Symptoms
 intensified Mild Symptoms
 rapid breathing (tachypnea)
 racing heart rate (tachycardia)
 agitation

A

Moderate Symptoms

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42
Q

Severely intensified Mild and/or Moderate Symptoms
 hallucinations
 seizures
 disorientation
 abnormally high fever (hyperthermia)

A

Severe Symptoms

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43
Q

Severe symptoms can occur within _________ hours after discontinuance and/or after a decrease in consumption of alcohol and can cause a person’s condition to deteriorate to a very serious condition known as ____________

A

48 hours after discontinuance

delirium tremens

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44
Q

__________may present between ________ to _________ hours after a person’s last consumption of alcohol

A

Seizures

12 to 60 hours

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45
Q

What form is the Return to Search Warrant Provincial

A

TPS 130

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46
Q

Reportee is situated in the City of Toronto

Missing person is a resident of the City of Toronto

Initial report who?

A

Missing Person A

Initial report: Division Reportee Resides

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47
Q

Reportee is situated outside the City of Toronto

 Missing person is not a resident of the City of Toronto

 Area the person is missing from is unknown

Initial Report who?

A

Missing Person E

TPOC to determine who does initial report

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48
Q

Reportee is situated in the City of Toronto

 Missing person is not a resident of the City of Toronto

 Area the person is missing from is known

A

Missing Person B

Initial Report: division where reportee resides

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49
Q

Reportee is situated outside the City of Toronto
 Missing person is a resident of the City of Toronto

A

Missing Person D

Initial Report: Division where missing person resides

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50
Q

 Reportee is situated outside the City of Toronto
 Missing person is not a resident of the City of Toronto
 Area the person is missing from is known

A

Missing Person E

Initial Report: Division area where missing person is known to be

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51
Q

 Reportee is situated in the City of Toronto
 Missing person is not a resident of the City of Toronto
 Area the person is missing from is unknown

A

Missing Person C

Initial Report: Division where reportee is situated

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52
Q

What TPS Form number is Missing Person Search Assignment Form

A

TPS 230

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53
Q

What TPS Form is the Search Assignment Log form

A

TPS 231

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54
Q

What TPS form is the Search Urgency Chart

A

TPS 260

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55
Q

What TPS Form is the Missing Person Questionnaire

A

TPS 261

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56
Q

This is the form that the Supervisor fills for Missing persons

A

TPS 260A - Missing person risk assessment form now done in Versadex

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57
Q

means a portable storage box containing the necessary items essential to the supervisory officer at the scene of a Level 2 or Level 3 search. These items shall be determined by Procedure 04–05 and established practice, and should be located where it is easily accessible by the Officer in Charge

A

Divisional Storage Box

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58
Q

means the level of search implemented when a person is reported missing and there are no extenuating circumstances. At this level, there are minimal concerns regarding the issue of foul play or the infirmity or limitations of the missing person.

A

Level 1 Missing Person Search

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59
Q

means the level of search when a missing person is:
 under _______years and judged likely to be _________of caring for themselves;
 _________challenged;
 over sixty five (65) years of age or _______, or;
 there is evidence of ________.

A

Level 2 missing persons search

16 years of age

incapable

mentally challenged

over 65 years or infirm

foul play

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60
Q

means the investigator responsible for the effective governance and management of every threshold major case investigation and possesses the knowledge, skills, and abilities to perform the functions of Major Case Management. The Major Case Manager shall have successfully completed the Ontario Major Case Management Course or equivalent as defined by the Ontario Police College, and; shall have the resources to manage investigations through the minister–approved software, currently known as PowerCase. For the purposes of a homicide investigation, the Major Case Manager shall be an investigator from Detective Operations - Homicide.

A

Major Case manager

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61
Q

For the purposes of a sexual assault investigation, the Major Case Manager shall be an investigator from Detective Operations – Sex Crimes. For the purposes of a Human Trafficking investigation, the Major Case Manager shall be an investigator from Detective Operations - Sex Crimes-Human Trafficking Enforcement Team. For the purposes of a kidnapping investigation, the Major Case Manager shall be an investigator from Detective Operations - Organized Crime Enforcement

A
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62
Q

means a person where both the following circumstances exist with respect to the person:
 The persons whereabouts are unknown and,
- the person has not been in contact with people who would likely be in contact with the person, or
- it is reasonable in the circumstances to fear for the person’s safety because of the circumstances surrounding the person’s absence or because of any other prescribed considerations.

A

Missing Person

  • A member of a police force is unable to locate the person after making reasonable efforts to do so.

AND

-person’s whereabouts are unknown

  • not been in contact with people who would likely be in contact
  • it is reasonable in the circumstances to fear for the person’s safety.

-

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63
Q

means a web page located on the Service Internet site used to publish information and pictures regarding missing persons investigations that have proceeded to a Level 3 search

A

Missing Persons Search Page

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64
Q

means the national centre created and maintained by the Royal Canadian Mounted Police (RCMP) to compile data on missing persons and unidentified remains

A

NCMPUR

nation centre for missing persons and unidentified remains

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65
Q

means the team from Emergency Management & Public Order (EM&PO), supported by the requesting division, responsible for co–ordinating a Level 3 search for a missing

A

Search Management Team

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66
Q

means the national registry created and maintained by the________ to compile data on _________and _________children. The Toronto Police Service supports the registry and encourages officers to forward pertinent information to the RCMP to assist in matters of both parental and non–parental abduction.

A

National Missing Persons Operations

RCMP

Missing, Abducted

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67
Q

means the police officer in charge of ______ .

A

Search Manager

EMPO and Public Order Search Management Team

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68
Q

means a section of the Service as designated by the ______, such as a field headquarter, division, bureau or squad.

A

Unit

board

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69
Q

means the member of the Service, designated by the Chief of Police, who assesses procedural compliance of Regulated Interaction Reports, once they have been approved or restricted by a Supervisory Officer. The Controller – Regulated Interaction Reports is also responsible for:
 fulfilling the role of subject matter resource for Supervisory Officers;
 preparing a report to the Unit Commander of the Toronto Police College every three (3) months that outlines the results of all reviews undertaken specific to Regulated Interaction Reports; and
 monitoring and reporting on any changes or amendments to legislation or Service Governance which may be relevant to training specific to Regulated Interactions.

A

Controller - Regulated Interactions

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70
Q

means all Person Investigated Card (Form 172), Field Information Report (Form 208), Community Inquiry Report (Form 306), and Community Safety Note (Street Check) records submitted into the Service’s records management systems prior to January 1, 2017, and may include any such submitted record whether or not it would have been categorized as a Regulated Interaction Report had it been submitted on or after January 1, 2017

A

Historical Contact Data

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71
Q

means any information that, alone or in combination with other information, can be used to identify an individual. It may include information about an individual’s race, age, sex, sexual orientation, gender identity, marital or family status, economic circumstances, and education, medical, psychiatric, psychological, criminal or employment history

A

Identifying Information

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72
Q

What is a Regulated Interaction?

A

means an attempt by a police officer to collect identifying information by asking an individual, in a face-to-face encounter, to identify himself or herself or to provide information for the purpose of identifying the individual, and includes such an attempt whether or not identifying information is collected,
i. only if that attempt is done for the purpose of,
- inquiring into offences that have been or might be committed; and/or
- inquiring into suspicious activities to detect offences; and/or
- gathering information for intelligence purposes;

But Does not include
ii. an attempted collection made by a police officer for the purpose of investigating an offence the officer reasonably suspects has been or will be committed;
iii. and does not include an attempt by a police officer to collect identifying information from an individual if,
- the individual is legally required to provide the information to a police officer;
- the individual is under arrest or is being detained;
- the police officer is engaged in a covert operation;
- the police officer is executing a warrant, acting pursuant to a court order or performing related duties; or
- the individual from whom the police officer attempts to collect information is employed in the administration of justice or is carrying out duties or providing services that are otherwise relevant to the carrying out of the police officer’s duties.

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73
Q

means the _______________ record of a Regulated Interaction submitted into the Service’s record management system, __________or not __________information was collected during the Regulated Interaction

A

Regulated Interaction Report

electronic

whether or not identifying information

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74
Q

is a classification which applies to Historical Contact Data and may apply to Regulated Interaction Reports for which the Service has instituted constraints that prevent access to the record unless:
 approved by the Chief of Police, or designate; and
 access is needed:
- for the purpose of an ongoing police investigation;
- in connection with legal proceedings or anticipated legal proceedings;
- for the purpose of dealing with a complaint under Part V of the PSA or for the purpose of an investigation or inquiry under clause 25 (1)(a) of the PSA;
82
- in order to prepare the annual report described in subsection 14 (1) or the report required under section 15 of O. Reg. 58/16;
- for the purpose of complying with a legal requirement; or
- for the purpose of evaluating a police officer’s performance

A

Restricted

75
Q

means the death of a person at _______ during an _______/_______ and before the person’s _________or _____to another agency’s custody

A

Death in Custody

any time

arrest/detention

release or transfer

76
Q

What is the SIU mandate?

means that the SIU DIRECTOR may cause an investigation to be conducted into any incident in which any of the following occurs, if the incident may have resulted from the CRIMINAL conduct of a Service official:

A

DSDS

Death of a person
Serious injury of a person
Discharge of a firearm at a person (regardless of causing injury or death, and including less lethal weapons); and/or
Sexual assault

77
Q

The SIU Director may cause an investigation to be conducted under what circumstances?

A
  • official was on duty
  • official was off duty but
    a) engaged in the investigation, pursuit, detention or arrest of a person or otherwise exercised the powers of a police officer, special constable, peace officer or other prescribed person, as the case may be, whether or not the official INTENDED to exercise such powers or identified themselves as a person who may exercise such powers

b) the incident involved EQUIPMENT OR PROPERTY issued to the official in relation to their duties.

78
Q

includes the Chief of Police, Command Officers, Staff Superintendents and Directors, and any other member as determined by the Chief of Police.

A

Senior Management Team(SMT)

79
Q

means ________or __________action targeting a specific area or problem, that is ________________by an officer, __________previous direction from a supervisor. The area of the self–initiated patrol may be based on trends derived through crime analysis.

A

Self - Initiated Patrol

patrol or enforcement

undertaken

without

crime analysis

80
Q

a) preserving the peace
b) preventing crimes and other offences and providing assistance and encouragement to other persons in their prevention
c) assisting victims of crime
d) apprehending criminals and other offenders and others who may lawfully be taken into custody
e) laying charges and participating in prosecutions
f) executing warrants that are to be executed by police officers and performing related duties
g) performing lawful duties that the chief of police assigns
h) enforcing municipal by–laws

A

Section 42(1) Police Services Act

a) Preserving the peace
b) Preventing crimes
c) assisting victims of crime
d) apprehending criminals
e) laying charges
f) executing warrants
g) performing lawful duties of the Chief
h) municipal bylaws

P
P
A
A
L
L
M

81
Q

means a person who acts on behalf of the police and under their _________, which may result in them becoming a material and ___________witness. The identity of the agent is subject to __________.

A

Agent

direction

compellable

disclosure

82
Q

means a person who is registered with Intelligence Services – Covert Operations – Source Management (CO–SMS) and voluntarily provides information of some usefulness or interest to the Toronto Police Service with respect to the prevention and detection of crimes, with the explicit or implicit expectation of confidentiality. This person would generally not become a witness or require protection as a result of their involvement or the information they have provided.

A

Confidential Source

83
Q

True or False

A confidential source is NOT an asset of the Toronto Police Service and IS the exclusive asset of the officer who signs up the source.

A

FALSE

A confidential source is an asset of the Toronto Police Service and is not the exclusive asset of any one police officer.

84
Q

a source under the age of 18 (young person), or
 a source whose information could be considered:
 multi–jurisdictional;
 may affect national security;
 involves organized crime;
 is beyond the resources or the source–handling abilities of the officers involved;
 at the discretion of the Controller.

A

Confidential Source - Level 2

85
Q

means the _____________ who ensures the effective control, accountability and evaluation of the source, continually assessing the risks and managing all information provided by the source.

The Controller – Source is responsible for the Source Management Program of the Toronto Police Service.

A

Controller - Source Management - Intelligence Service

Detective Sergeant – Intelligence Services – Covert Operations

86
Q

means a document provided to the crown attorney by Intelligence Services – Covert Operations – Source Management (CO–SMS) on behalf of a source seeking ___________for that source’s assistance to the police.

All crown letters issued on behalf of a source shall only be provided by the ____________ - Intelligence Services

A

Crown Letter - Source

consideration

87
Q

means a ___________ who has received information from a source and who has been so designated by the __________or ___________. A handler, on behalf of the Toronto Police Service, is responsible for the:

 ___________of a source

 ____________of any contact

 _____________and _____________ of information received from the source

A

Handler

police officer

Controller or Designate

Development

Integrity

Acquisition and dissemination of information

Acronym DIA

88
Q

How many types/levels of Handlers are there?

A

2 types and levels

Level 1 Handler

Level 2 Handler

Handler – Level 1 means any police officer from the Toronto Police Service who can handle level 1 sources only.

Handler – Level 2 means any police officer from the Toronto Police Service who has been accredited and designated by the Controller or designate.

A handler – level 2 can manage agents, and level 1 and level 2 sources.

For the purposes of agents, a handler – level 2 is also responsible for:

 the management of agents on behalf of the Service
 considering the primary concerns

 the acquisition and dissemination of information from that agent.

89
Q

means a person who has been restricted by Intelligence Services – Covert Operations – Source Management (CO–SMS). Such a person shall not be used as such by any officer unless designated by the ____________who is _______________ - Intelligence Services - Cover Operations.

A

Restricted Source

Controller

Detective Sergeant - Intelligence Services - Covert Operations

90
Q

means a person younger than ________ years of age.
[Source: Child, Youth and Family Services Act, ss. 2(1)].

A

Child

Eighteen (18)

91
Q

means an investigation led by Detective Operations - Homicide and Missing Persons Unit into the circumstances surrounding a sudden death where there is
 obvious or suspected f_____ p_____
 the cause of death cannot be __________
 found ________ r_______
 any other ___________circumstance.

A

Homicide Investigation

Sudden Death

Foul play

explained

human remains

suspicious

92
Q

means a child less than _______ years of age.

A

Infant

93
Q

means a partner from a current or f______ intimate relationship.

A

Intimate Partner

former

94
Q

includes current or former relationships between opposite sex and same sex partners and include persons who:

 are legally married to one another;
 were previously married to one another;
 are not married, but are currently in a family–type relationship;
 are not married, but were formerly in a family–type relationship;
 have a child in common regardless of whether such persons have been married or lived together at one time, or;
 are (or have ever been) involved in a dating relationship.

A

Intimate Relationship

  • current or former relationships between opposite or same sex partners who:

-are or were legally married

-not married but in or were a family type relationship

-child in common

-Dating

95
Q

means the sudden death of an infant under ________ year of age, which remains unexplained after a thorough investigation which must include a complete _______, examination of the ________, a ____________investigation and a review of the child’s _______history.

A

SIDS

under 1 years of age

autopsy

death scene

police investigation

clinical history

Sudden Infant Death Syndrome

96
Q

Means the death investigation of a ________

  • SID
    -accidental injury
    -non–accidental injury due to neglect or abuse,
    -a previously undiagnosed disease

And may include

-negative autopsy but evidence of an old healed fracture which has not been adequately explained by the investigation

-negative autopsy but a previous history of child abuse

-negative autopsy but some positive toxicology, which although not considered to be a cause of death cannot be explained (e.g. blood alcohol of 30mg in a five month old child)

A

(SUD)Sudden Unexpected Death

child

  • which includes SAND

-Sudden infant death,
-Accidental injury
-Non accident injury such as abuse or neglect,
-Disease

And may include negative autopsy with previous history child abuse, positive toxicology, old fracture

97
Q

Acronym: FARM CH

A

HUS will take charge and attend all:

6 in total

Acronym: FARM CH

Armored Cars
Financial institutions
Home invasions with firearms or armed weapons
Retail businesses,
Car Jackings with firearms or armed weapons
Money deposits

98
Q

in reference to hold–ups, means a tracking device used primarily by the __________ and __________ industries to assist with the apprehension of suspects and recovery of stolen property when a hold–up has occurred.

A

Global Positioning Device GPS

pharmaceutical, financial

99
Q

means any b____, t______ and l_____ company, or c______.

A

Financial institutions

bank
trust
loan company
credit union

100
Q

means a child that can be __________as being in need of _________as defined in s.125 (1) of the Child, Youth and Family Services Act.

A

Child in Need of Protection

apprehended

protection

101
Q

What is the meaning of Dominant Aggressor?

-

A

means person principal abuser not the one that initiated the violence that resulted in police attendance

102
Q

means a reason

 a victim or witness who may possibly require or may seek admission into the Provincial Witness Protection Program;

 a Crown Attorney is requesting information for disclosure purposes;

 the information is necessary to prove essential elements of an offence, or;

 investigations where the circumstances make it clear that it is essential to public or officer safety and security to ascertain the immigration status of a victim or witness.

A

Bona fide reason in relation to Intimate Partner Violence

103
Q

What are the criteria of major cases within Ontario Major Case Management Manual?

A

8 in total

Having Happy Spouse Should Make Nice Christmas Arrangements

Homicides

Suspected homicide -human remains

Sexual Assaults an attempts

Human Trafficking and attempts

Crim Harassment where offender not known to victim

Non - Parental Abductions and attempts

Missing persons as designated by OMCMM

Any other type as designated by the OMCMM

104
Q

means a database within the Canadian Police Information Centre (CPIC) system that contains information from local police agencies, which could affect an individual’s eligibility to be issued or to continue to hold a firearms licence. Section 5 of the Firearms Act indicates the types of offences/incidents which justify a FIP.

A

Firearms Interest Police FIP

105
Q

means any incident between persons involved in an intimate relationship where, although no criminal offence has occurred, police have been called to the scene.

A

Intimate Partner Incident
IPI

106
Q

means any physical, sexual or psychological harm caused, or attempted, between persons involved in an intimate relationship including:
 assault;
 murder;
 sexual assault;
 threatening;
 harassment;
 intimidation;
 unlawful interference with personal liberty;
 any other criminal offence;
 offences under other statutes, such as the Family Law Act, Children’s Law Reform Act, etc.;
but does not include child abuse investigations.

A

IPI = intimate partner violence

physical, sexual, psychological or attempts
between persons involved in an intimate relationship
includes:

assault
murder
sex assault
threat
harassment
intimidation
unlawful interference with personal liberty
any other criminal offence
offences under other statutues

Does not include CHILD ABUSE

107
Q

means an investigator qualified in the __________of intimate partner violence as prescribed in Police Services Act, O.Reg. 3/99, Adequacy & Effectiveness of Police Services and the Policing Standards Manual.

A

IPVI = Intimate Partner Violence Investigator

investigations

108
Q

means an occurrence report created to detail _________behaviour and/or a __________of any statute related to an intimate partner violence situation and includes an arrest report. (excludes _________ Report)

A

IPVO = intimate partner violence occurrence

criminal

breach

excludes Intimate Partner Incident Report

109
Q

means
marriage,
domestic partnership, engagement,
casual or serious romantic involvement, and dating,

whether in a _________or ________ relationship. Intimate Partner Violence can occur between persons of any sex, sexual orientation, gender, gender identity, or gender expression, and it can occur in any type of intimate relationship including monogamous, non- committed, and relationships involving more than two partners.

A

Intimate Relationship - Dating

current or former

110
Q

means the program operated by the ___________. Services are provided on a priority basis to the most vulnerable victims and witnesses of violent crime; such as intimate partner violence, child abuse, sexual assault, homicide and hate crime.

Families of traffic fatality victims are also eligible. Services begin once police have laid charges and continue until the court case is concluded.

A

VWAP

Victim Witness Assistance Program

Ontario Ministry of the Attorney General

111
Q

means a program administered by Victim Services Toronto that provides quick _________assistance to victims of homicide, attempted murder, serious physical assault, intimate partner violence, sexual assault and hate crime in the _________aftermath of a crime.

A

VQRP
- Victim Quick Response Program

financial assistance

immediate

112
Q

(a) a person to whom harm was done or who suffered physical or emotional loss as a result of the commission of the offence; AND

(b) where the person described in paragraph (a) is dead, ill or otherwise incapable of making a statement referred to in subsection (1), includes the ________or __________ partner or any __________ of that person,

anyone who has in law or fact the _______of that person or is responsible for the care or support of that person or any __________of that person.
[Source: Criminal Code, 722(4)]

A

Victim

spouse
common law partner
relative

custody

also includes any dependant

113
Q

What is the Definition of CYAC and what is their Mandate?

A

Child and Youth Advocacy Centre

physical, emotional, neglect of a child under 16
where person of trust or authority, parent, or caregiver is suspect

physical of a child under 16 where known adult

sexual assault of person under 18 where suspect known and doesn’t hit mandate of Sex Crimes

any child in need of protection or child unattended

114
Q

What are the Sexual Assault and Domestic Violence Care Centre Locations? What are each of their mandates

A

Scarborough Hospital Grace (birchmount) - 3030 Birchmount Ave - Over 12 years

Sick Kids - 555 University - Under 18 years

Women’s College** - 76 Grenville - Over 14 years

Trillium - Hwy 10/Queensway - ANY age

Womens college has a switchboard number 416-343-6400

115
Q

What are the Mobile emergency units affiliated with Womens College?

A

7 of them in Total

Toronto General
Toronto Western
Sunnybrook
Mount Sinai
Michael Garron
St Michaels
St Josephs

116
Q

means an ________ assigned to a divisional detective office. In reference to sexual assault investigations means an officer assigned to a divisional investigative unit who is _______ accredited to investigate complaints of sexual assault.

A

Divisional Investigator

officer

not accredited

117
Q

means the offence as defined by the Criminal Code.

A

Sexual Assault

118
Q

means an accredited sexual assault investigator assigned to Detective Operations – Sex Crimes (Sex Crimes).

A

Sex Crimes Investigator

119
Q

means the investigator assigned by the Major Case Manager in every threshold major case investigation to perform the functions and responsibilities of the primary investigation function.

The __________ Investigator shall have the knowledge, skills, and abilities to perform the function; shall have successfully completed the ________________ or equivalent, as defined by the Ontario Police College.
(Source: Ontario Major Case Management Manual)

A

Primary Investigator

Primary

Ontario Major Case Management Course

120
Q

means a medical care centre designated for the treatment and examination of victims of sexual assault.

A

SA/DVCC

121
Q

means a police officer assigned to oversee other members, either temporarily or permanently

A

Supervisory Officer

122
Q

means the offence committed by a person who r_____, t______, t______, r_______, h______, c______ or h_________ a person, or e______, d______ or influence over the movements of a person, for the purpose of exploiting them or facilitating their exploitation.

A

Trafficking in Persons

recruits, transfers, transports, receives, holds, conceals or harbors, or exercises control, direction or influence

123
Q

means the national database operated by the Royal Canadian Mounted Police (RCMP) for the purpose of linking occurrences of designated offences across Canada.

A

Violent Crime Linkage Analysis System
ViCLAS

124
Q

When was the year that Child in Need of Protection Age changed in Ontario?

A

January 1, 2018 and now includes all persons under the age of 18 who are believed to be a Child in Need of Protection

125
Q

What is the CFS guidelines for SAEK kit submission?

A

Prepubertal (under 12)
-within 72 hours for dna evidence
-after 72 hours contact SCAN for overall medical attention

NOTE: if Prepubertal then also consider up to 12 days of incident if penile penetration of vagina!!!! IMPORTANT

Pubertal (12-18)
- within 12 days for DNA evidence
- After 12 days contact SCAN for overall medial attention

126
Q

What are the Interview Centres for Child abuse?

A

CYAC - 245 eglinton avenue - 416-808-2922

SCAN - 555 University - 416-813-7500

The Gatehouse - 3101 Lakeshore Boulevard

127
Q

means a designated Child Abuse Investigator and a Children’s Aid Society specialist, who shall conduct interviews together and communicate at every stage of the investigation.

A

Team - Child Abuse Investigation

128
Q

means a trained ________________specialist who is responsible for the child ________investigation and the protection of the child.

A

Designated Childrens Aid Society Worker

CAS specialist

protection

129
Q

means a specially trained __________ who is responsible for the criminal __________of child ________ and ______abuse cases.

A

Designated Child Abuse Investigator

Police officer

investigation

Sexual

Physical

130
Q

no person having charge of a child shall

  • inflict ______ (physical, sexual or sexual exploitation) on the child; or

-by _________to _______and provide for or supervise and protect the child adequately,

  • permit the child to suffer __________or
  • permit the child to suffer from a m_______, e______ or d____________ condition that, if not remedied, could seriously impair the child’s development. [Source: Child, Youth and Family Services Act ss.136 (1)(2)]
A

Child Abuse

abuse

failing to care
- abuse
- permit the child to suffer abuse
- permit the child to suffer from mental, emotional, development condition

131
Q

These are examples of what?

incest;
 acts of exposure;
 sexual touching;
 sexual intercourse;
 sexual molestation;
 inappropriate sexual language;
 sexual harassment;
 exhibitionism;
 exploitation of child for pornography or prostitution

A

Child Sexual abuse which includes inappropriate Sexual Language

means the use of a child by an adult for sexual purposes, whether or not consent is alleged to have been given

132
Q

where the circumstances could be a violation of the Criminal Code and/or render the child in need of protection under the ______, _______, and _______ Act, and where the alleged abuser (whether adult or child) has _____________for the care of the child victim.

Child Physical Abuse refers to an offence where a child is victimized by an abuser and includes all of the following:

 physical assaults, emotional abuse, or neglect occurrences when the victim is under eighteen (18) years of age and the suspect is a caregiver, parent or a person in a position of trust or authority;

 physical offences when the victim is under the age of eighteen (18) years and there are clear developmental differences between the victim and the suspect.

 abductions when the victim is under the age of sixteen (16) years of age;

 occurrences entitled Child in Need of Protection or Child Left Unattended

 homicides when the victim is under the age of eighteen (18) years and the suspect is a caregiver, parent, or person in a position of trust or authority

A

Child Physical Abuse

Child, youth, and Family services Act

responsibility for the care

133
Q

What is section 525(6) of the criminal code of Canada

Where a person has committed a __________ offence while on release for a criminal offence

A

Indicable

134
Q

What is section 31(1) of the criminal code

A

When a person is found committing or is believed on reasonable grounds is about to commit a breach of the peace

135
Q

Fundamental freedom of conscience and religion is what section of the charter of rights and freedoms?

A

Section 2

136
Q

Unreasonable search and seizure is what section of the charter of rights and freedoms

A

Section 8

137
Q

means a criminal offence committed against a p______ or p________ that is motivated by h______, b______, or p________ based on the victim’s race, national or ethnic origin, language, colour, religion, sex, age, mental or physical disability, sexual orientation, or gender identity or expression, or on any other similar factor.

This is found in s. 7_____(a)(i) of the Criminal Code, which contains increased sentencing provisions for the aggravating circumstances.

A

Hate Crime

person or property

hate, bias, prejudice

s. 718.2

138
Q

is a non-criminal action or behaviour that is motivated by hate against an identifiable group. Examples of hate incidents include using racial slurs, or insulting a person because of their ethnic or religious dress or how they identify. (For example, a neighbour dispute or a dispute in a parking lot, which escalates to verbal abuse, derogatory or racial slurs.)

A

Hate Incident

139
Q

means any ____________that advocates or promotes genocide against any identifiable group or makes statements that are likely to promote hate against any identifiable group because of colour, race, religion, national or ethnic origin, age, sex, sexual orientation, gender identity or expression, or mental or physical disability.

A

Hate Propaganda

communication

140
Q

Section 318 and 319 of the Criminal Code is what?

A

Advocate Genocide and Wilful Promotion of Hatred

  • require the permission of the Attorney General to proceed
141
Q

__________ does not require the consent of the Attorney General (for hate crime offence)

A

Public incitement of Hatred

142
Q

What is important about 2018 August 07?

A

Provincial Firearm Bail program was created

143
Q

means any firearm that has been used or suspected to have been used in a criminal offence; any firearm that is obtained, possessed, or intended to be used to facilitate criminal activity; any firearm that has had a serial number removed, altered or obliterated; any weapon that has been adapted for use as a firearm

A

Crime Gun

144
Q

means the part of the Organized Crime Enforcement – Integrated Gun & Gang Task Force – Firearms Enforcement Unit, responsible for the v________, t_______ and t_______ of all seized firearms and related components including crime scene evidence.

FIAU consists of firearm experts who testify in all levels of court, as required.

The unit can also assist with expert opinion with respect to video/image analysis and coded language investigations.

A

Firearm Investigations and Analysis Unit (FIAU)

Verification, Testing, Tracing

145
Q

means a section of Organized Crime Enforcement – Integrated Gun & Gang Task Force, responsible for investigations into incidents of firearms trafficking and smuggling

A

FEU - Organizes Crimes Enforcement IGGTF

146
Q

Illegally Possessed Firearm

A

means any firearm that

 is not legally registered in Canada, or

 has been reported stolen, or

 is being unlawfully possessed, or

 is used or suspected to have been used in a crime,

147
Q

As it relates to Child ______

Section 280
Section 281
Section 282
Section 283

A

Child Abductions

Section 281 - Non parental Under 16
Section 281 - non parental under 14
Section 282 - Parental Abduction Contravention Custody Order
Section 283 - Parental Abduction

148
Q

every one commits an aggravated assault who w______, m_______, d_______ or e________ the life of the complainant. [Source: Criminal Code S.268(1)]

A

Aggravated Assault

Wounds, Maims, Disfigures, endangers

149
Q

What is Section 17 of the MHA

A

Where a police officer has RPG to believe that a person has acted in a disorderly manner and as RC to believe that:

a) the person has threatened or threatening to cause bodily harm to himself
b) behaved or behaving violently to another person or has caused or is causing another person to fear bodily harm from him; or
c) lack of competence to take care of himself

AND

the officer is of the opinion that the person apparently suffering from a mental disorder of nature or quality that is likely to:

a) result in serious bodily harm to himself, another person, or cause serious physical impairment to the person

the police officer may take the person in custody to an appropriate place for examination by a physician..

150
Q

What is Section 33 of the MHA

A

A police officer or other person who takes a person in custody to a psychiatric facility shall remain at the facility and retain custody of the person until the facility takes custody of him or her in the prescribed manner. DUTY TO STAY

151
Q

In Regards to MHA section what is a TPS 710 form

A

Person in Crisis form when arriving at the psychiatric facility

152
Q

What case law talks about the definition of Disorderly (hint: MHA section)?

means behaviour that appears to the police to be “to some extent irrational although not unruly”.

A

R v. O’Brien (1983),

153
Q

means an Order for Return of an elopee issued by a psychiatric facility which authorizes a police officer to return the person without their consent to the psychiatric facility. A From _____ is valid for a period of one _______ after the person is absent without leave.

A

Form 9

valid 1 month

154
Q

means a __________ for E__________ directing police officers to take the person in custody to an appropriate psychiatric facility where a physician may order the person detained for examination. A _______ valid for _________ days from and including the day it was signed.

A

Form 2

Justice of the Peace order for Examination

Valid for 7 days

155
Q

means the police officer responsible for coordinating all Mental Health Act needs and/or concerns within the division; usually the Community ________ ________ or the F________ ________officer.

A

Divisional Mental Health Liaison Officer

Community Relations or Focus liaison officer

156
Q

means an Application by P______ for P_______ ________ signed by a doctor within _________days of examining the person, giving any person authority to take the person named on the application to a psychiatric facility. A Form _______ is valid for _________ days from and including the day it was signed.

A

Form 1

Application by Physician for Psychiatric Assessment

7 days

7 Days

157
Q

MHA section 1(1)

A

definition of Mental Disorder which means any disease or disability of the mind.

158
Q

MCIT Unity Health - St Josephs hospital has what catchment division areas?

A

11/14/22

159
Q

MCIT Humber River Hospital has what catchment division areas?

A

12/13/23/31

160
Q

When it comes to SVC (service vehicle collisions) who must attend?

A

Supervisor and TSV investigator

Subject the availability the Supervisor MUST be from TSV

161
Q

True or False:

A SLDR401 is required for non-reportable service collisions

A

FALSE

comply with original reporting procedure with the exception that no SRLD401 is required but an eReport IS required

162
Q

True or False:

TPS 559 - Service Vehicle Collision reports are completed by the officer involved in the collision

A

False

Completed by the Supervisor who has to attend all SVC’s.

163
Q

SLDR401 copy of report goes to Unit Commander Fleet

Original SLDR401 goes to Unit Commander TSV - SVC Review

A

Awareness

164
Q

Marked Vehicle (4 steps)

A

Siren forward facing
Decals “police”
360 emergency lights
meets HTA and OReg requirements for general patrol vehicle

165
Q

means every person operating a ________or _________ involved directly or indirectly in a collision that results in personal _______, _______, or property damage exceeding $_______, is required to report and furnish information forthwith to the nearest police officer in accordance with the Highway Traffic Act.

A

Reportable Collision

  • operates a motor vehicle or streetcar
  • results in personal injury, death, or property damage
  • exceeding $2000
166
Q

means a panel consisting of, but not limited to, the

Unit Commander and/or Designate from: 

-Professional Standards Support

-Traffic Services

-Toronto Police College
with the mandate to monitor Toronto Police Service vehicle collisions for trend analysis, problem identification, quality assurance and training issues, and report its findings to the ______

A

SVCRC

Service Vehicle Collision Reduction Committee

Chief of police

167
Q

means a program managed by ____________ which monitors Toronto Police Service vehicle collisions for trend analysis, problem identification, quality assurance and training issues

A

Service Vehicle Collision Reduction Program

Professional Standards Support

168
Q

means any vehicle owned or operated by the Toronto Police Service (Service) without the identifying decals of the Service or emergency lighting system. It includes motor vehicles leased, owned or rented by or loaned to the Service. Most unmarked vehicles are equipped with a hand operated identification lamp bearing the words “POLICE-STOP”

A

Unmarked Vehicle

169
Q

The EFAP Committee is comprised of which groups of people

A

Chief
SOO
TPS
TPC
HR
Psych Services
EFAP provider
Chaplaincy

170
Q

means the member designated by the EFAP Committee to:
 liaise with
 the ______ provider and its CIRT,
 the _______, O______ and/or _____ _______, and the CIRT/Peer Support Volunteers (PSVs), and;
 work with CIRT/PSVs, the EFAP provider, and/or Psychological Services to co–ordinate ________and ________ sessions.

A

EFAP CIRT Coordinator

EFAP

TPOC, OIC/Unit Commander and CIRT

diffusing and debriefing

171
Q

What is the TPS form for Last drink log

A

TPS 300 filled out by booking officer

172
Q

When it comes to medical advisory notes
Unexpected deaths of intoxicated individuals may occur as a result of what condition?

A

Obstructive sleep apnea

173
Q

Alcohol withdrew syndrome can appear within what timeline?
A) 24 to 48 hours
B) 12 to 24 hours
C) 6 to 12 hours

A

C) 6 to 12 hours

174
Q

The number of days allowed for adjourning a bail hearing?

A

3 three days

175
Q

Important: after the Information and warrant have been signed where does the original warrant go? Where does the original information go?

A

Original warrant and reexport to RMS

Original Information and copy of warrant to the appropriate court

176
Q

Entry into a dwelling hours to execute a warrant (5 terms)

A
  • arrest warrant endorsed with authorization 529(1)
  • arrest warrant accompanied with separate entry warrant 529.1
  • RG to suspect that entry for prevention of imminent bodily harm or death
  • RG to believe that evidence relating to indictable offence is present and entry necessary to prevent loss of
  • fresh pursuit
177
Q

Members who can file a 5.2 Report to Justice

A

CASE

Case manager
Affiant
Seizing
Exhibits officer

Wherever possible person who obtained search warrant shall be the same person who signs the 5.2

178
Q

Missing person cases where yet to be determined whether foul play is involved and the individual remains unaccounted for ______ days shall be deemed a ______ pursuant to OMCMM

A

30 days
major case

179
Q

Identifying information alone or in combination used to identify an individual

A

Race
Age
Gender identity
Sex
Sexual orientation
Marital status
Medical
Family status
Education
Employment
Psychiatric
Psychological
Criminal

180
Q

The 4 key steps in the crime management process at the divisional level are?

A

Long term strategic planning and evaluation to set direction

Short term or daily tactical planning and evaluation to adjust and react

Integrated role for divisional cplc

Targeted debriefing of all prisoners

181
Q

What is the definition of Homicide Investigation

A

Means an investigation led by detective operations homicide and missing persons in circumstances surrounding a sudden death where

1) obvious or suspect foul play
2) found human remains
3) the death cause cannot be explained
4) any other suspicious circumstance

182
Q

The 3 components in the definition of External complaints are?

A

1) must be in writing and signed on the oiprd forms
2) must be delivered to any police of oiprd personally mail fax or email
3) must concern the policies or services provided by the Service

183
Q

In relation to internal complaints who forwards the completed file and to where? How many days must the file be completed in?

A

Unit commander to prs complaints administration within 120 days

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