Things To Remember Flashcards

1
Q

There are 2 definitions for Unsubstantiated. 1 refers to unsubstantiated in external oiprd complaints.
The other definition refers to internal civilian complaints

A

The main difference is point #3 where in oiprd is specifies where a police officer involved cannot be established

For civilian disciplinary procedure it says in point #3 where the identity of the Member cannot be established

Don’t forget this!!

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2
Q

When is unit commander of labour relations notified?

A

When a police officer is suspended from duty and has another job they have to report additional monetary benefits to labour relations.

And

When it comes to the civilian discipline process unit commanders shall consult with labour relations regarding discipline standards

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3
Q

When is the unit commander payroll and benefits administration notified?

A

In relation to unsatisfactory work performance where unit commanders forward revised draft job descriptions for final review assessment and approval

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4
Q

There are 2 definitions of Member what are they?

A

Member in relation to Standards of Conduct includes police, civilian, auxiliary members

Member in relation to Service Procedures does not include auxiliary

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5
Q

True or False

O/reg 926/90 made under the PSA states that an officer needs to complete once per year training on use of force

A

False. It has to be done once ever 12 months not once per year

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6
Q

There is a difference alternatives to pursuit and methods of terminating a pursuit. Don’t confuse them

A
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7
Q

There are 2 definitions that have vulnerable

One is vulnerable person that is part of the mcit procedure

The other is vulnerable adult which is part of the elder abuse procedure

A
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8
Q

True or false
Mcit may act as a first or co-responder in certain circumstances including a person that is armed or may be armed with a weapon

A

Depends…. If it’s is violent the threat assessment would make it unsafe for the nurse and then shall direct the nurse to not actively engage in the incident

Reason: threat assessment conducted would show that the person in crisis if found to pose a threat to the attending mcit nurse

Also: page 164 re read it

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9
Q

True or false

Mcit can be used for clinical assessments where criminal charged will be laid

A

False: see page 165 old packaged

They can be used for a barrricaded person where it is known to be caused by MES crisis in order to assess the person. (Page 164)

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10
Q

In relation to service vehicle collisions procedure What defines circumstances where collisions are reportable and when provincial forms are to be submitted?

A) criminal code
B) highway traffic act
C) service governance
D) police services act

A

B) highway traffic act

See page 166 of old package

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11
Q

The service vehicle procedure is done and created in accordance with

A) oreg 3/99 adequacy and effectiveness of police services made under police services act, service governance, hta

A
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12
Q

True or false

Non reportable collisions under the hta criteria require an ereport and a srld401

A

False
Only ereport is required no srld401 is required

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13
Q

True or false
What is the reporting structure for service vehicle collisions?

Hint: There are 2

A

All service vehicle collisions including collisions resulting from intentional contact shall be recorded on the srld401 completed with diagram and synopsis

page 167 old package

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14
Q

The service has a duty to sent all srld401 documents to the MTO within l:

A) 6 days
B) 5 days
C) 1 weeks
D) 10 days

A

D) 10 days

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15
Q

The original svcr service vehicle collision report is sent to which department?

A

Tsv unit commander - svc review

Page 169 original package

Remember tsv does all traffic related administrative investigations

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16
Q

The original svcr service vehicle collision report is sent to which department?

A

Tsv unit commander - svc review

Page 169 original package

Remember tsv is part of the service vehicle collision reduction committee

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17
Q

Service vehicle reduction program means a program managed by which unit?

A

Professional standards Support

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18
Q

The service vehicle collision reduction committee consists of ?

A

Professional standards support
Tsv
Tpc

With the mandate to monitor tps collisions for trends, problem identification, quality assurance, training issues and report findings to chief

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19
Q

In a child abuse investigation who contacts oce gng if firearms are a factor?

A) supervisor
B) designated child abuse investigator/primary investigator
C) police officer
D) office in charge of

A

Answer: b) designated child abuse investigator

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20
Q

When an arrest occurres from a joint child abuse investigation you shall provide the cas counterpart with a scanned copy of the undertaking the only exception for doing this is what?

A

When the accused is a young person

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21
Q

Section 136(1)(2) of the cyfsa act is what?

A

Permit the child to suffer from mental, emotional or a developmental condition if not remedied could seriously impair the child’s development

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22
Q

What are the 4 components of child physical abuse?

A

Physical assaults emotional abuse or neglect where victim is under 18 and suspect is caregiver parent or person in position of trust or authority

Homicide under 18 and same as above

Abduction under 16

Physical where victim under 18 and clear developmental difference between victim and suspect

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23
Q

Who completes the Hate/crime Details page?

A

Intelligence - hate crime

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24
Q

Police officer who complete a hate crime type occurrence provides the eReport number (for arrest and occurrence) to whom?

A
  • hate crime unit
  • divisional detective sergeant

See page 134 of old package

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25
Q

According to the Hate/bias crime procedure, in cases involving seriously bodily harm or major property damage the ______ and _______ are notified by the _______

A

Unit commander

Intelligence - hate crime

Officer in Charge

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26
Q

According to the hate/bias crime procedure When an arrest has been made in a hate/bias crime case involving stalking, harassing or threatening behaviour and where there is an identifiable target and serious potential for violence the ___________ contacts the ___________ for advice, referral or an assessment of risk

A

Detective Sergeant

Detective Operations - sex crimes behavioural assessment section

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27
Q

Section 318 and 319 of the criminal code of Canada

A

Refer to hate propaganda offences

Advocate genocide and wilful promotion of hatred require the attorney general permission

* public incitement of hatred does not require consent of the attorney general ***

28
Q

What are the 5 components of intelligence led policing according to the crime and disorder management procedure?

A

Crime management
Disorder resolution
Problem oriented policing
Targeted policing
Directed patrol

29
Q

According to the crime and disorder management procedure what is an operational philosophy that requires local police and community partnerships

A

Community policing

30
Q

What contains guidelines to assist police services boards chiefs of police and municipalities with the implementation of oreg 3/99

A

The policing standards manual and adoption is at the discretion of the chief of police

31
Q

What are the 4 guidelines for divisional crime management

Hint appendix A of the procedure page 86 of old package

A

Long term strategic planning and evaluation

Short term daily tactical evaluation

Integrated role for divisional cplc’s

Targeted debriefing of all prisoners

32
Q

True or false

A police seal or other similar device may be applied to a videotape, dvd/cd or associated storage case

A

False

See page 17 old procedure book

33
Q

When arrived at a police station what are the duties of a police officer who has arrested and brought a person into custody

A

Page 19 old package

Hint: 9 things

34
Q

What are Booking officer duties as it pertains to prisoner safety

A

A) physically attend the cells to check the conditions every 30 minutes

B) awaken intoxicated persons a minimum of every 4 hours

C) for drug 3 hours checks

D) when being relieved physically attend and conduct cell check together with relieving officer

35
Q

What are the 3 purposes of the regulated interactions procedure

A

Inquiring into offences that have been or might be committed

Inquiring into suspicious activities to detect offences

Gathering information for intelligence purposes

36
Q

What are the 6 things that the regulated interactions procedure does not apply to?

A

Investigating an offence the officer reasonably suspects has been or will be committed

The individual is under arrest or has been detained

The individual is legally required to provide the information to police

The police officer is engaged in a covert operation

The police officer is executing a warrant, acting pursuant to a court order or performing related duties

The individual is employed in the administration of justice or is carrying out duties or providing services that are relevant to carrying out the police officers duties

37
Q

Regulated interaction report permission to request restricted regulated interaction reports

Page 79 of old procedure focus on the 14 reasons as to why a police officer can request access

A

See page 79

38
Q

In regards to the regulated interactions procedure 58/16 a regulated interaction is done in an arbitrary way unless the police officer can articulate 3 things

Page 78 of old procedure

A

A) the reason for collecting identifying information is not only that the individual is present in a high crime location

B) the reason does not including EITHER
- that the individual has declined to answer a question from the police that they are not legally required to answer
- the individual has attempted or attempting to discontinue interaction with the police officer where they have the right to

C) the reason is the cause that the police officer reasonably suspects that identifying the individual may contribute to
A) inquiring into offences have have been or might been committed
B) inquiring in suspicious activities
C) gathering information for intelligence purposes

39
Q

According to the etf procedure who is responsible for all aspects of the tactical response?

A

Superivisory officer - etf unless relieved by unit commander etf

40
Q

The process for complaints is designed to be ______ and _______
without unnecessary delay

The service is committed to ensuring that the complaint process is _________ and __________ transparent bot to members and to the public

A

Through and administered

Accountable and transparent

41
Q

Who is designated as the oiprd liaison officer for tps

A

Inspector - prs complaints administration

42
Q

True or false

Oiprd forms do not need to be signed by the complainant in order to substantiate a complaint

A

False

Oiprd forms must be signed by the complainant as oiprd will not accept anonymous complaints

Page 216 old package

43
Q

A police officer or member of the public can be charged under the psa for harassment coercion or intimidation in relation to an oiprd complaint

True of false

A

True

Page 218 of old package

44
Q

When a member has is receiving a complaint as a place other than a service facility shall?

A

Direct the person to the oiprd facility, website, any service facility

Also contact a supervisor and advise them

45
Q

Generally how many days maximum to resolve a complaint using informal resolution?

A

90 days

46
Q

For both internal and external complaints the notification of the police officer is done on a 649 when what?

A

There is evidence to support the allegation

The evidence if believed would constitute misconduct or substantiate the complaint

A respondent officer has been identified

47
Q

In terms of external complaint the officer is called a respondent

In terms of internal complaint what is the officer called?

A

Subject officer

48
Q

When a complaint has been withdrawn the chief of police may choose to continue the investigation.

If the chief is continuing the investigation the officer must be notified within

A) 1 week
B) 10 days
C) 1 month
D) 30 days

A

D). 30 days

49
Q

What is the oiprd 404-303 form?

A

In terms of external complaints it is the Withdrawal of a complaint prior to a psa hearing form

50
Q

In accordance with the _______ the _______ may suspend a police officer from duty with pay where the police officer is suspected of or charged with an offence under a law of Canada or of a province of territory or suspected of misconduct under the _____

A

Police services act

Chief of police

Police services act

51
Q

While under suspension may engage in secondary activity subject to the provisions of procedure but have to report all monetary benefits to

A) officer in charge
B) unit commander of division
C) unit commander labour relations
D) suspending officer

A

C) unit commander of labour relations

Page 229 of old package under uniform suspension of duty

52
Q

The conduct of civilians members is government by what?

A

Standards of conduct part II

Page 230 of old procedure book

53
Q

The outcomes available in the complaint process for a civilian member are

A

Substantiated

Unsubstantiated

Internal informal resolution

54
Q

Reporting of discreditable conduct falls within section ____ of the ______

A

1.3

Standards of Conduct

Page 231 old package

55
Q

In terms of complaints civilians are considered the subject member whereas police officers are the respondent officer

A
56
Q

True or false

A civilian member can be suspended with pay as part of disciplinary actions available

A

False

The available actions are
-Verbal reprimand
-Written reprimand
-Suspension without pay
-Suspension without pay pending recommendation for termination

57
Q

Who is the new efap provider for the service?

A

Telus health

58
Q

True or false

A soco can attend scene of aggravate assault and attempted homicides?

A

False

A soco shall not be deployed to examine any scene of a aggravated assault and/or attempted homicide without consulting with FIS

Page 158 old package

59
Q

The siu will be permitted, subject to the discretion of the ________ to seize any police _____ _____

A

Chiefs siu on call designated authority

Issued equipment

60
Q

The CEW information can be downloaded or modified and the cartridge and batter can be removed when being seized by siu

A

False

Page 243 old package

61
Q

True or false

Members acting as cirt coordinator or psv and communicate with officers subject or witness have privilege in their conversations

A

False

Memebrs shall be advised that all communication with the involved officers is without privilege

Page 245 old package

62
Q

The services administrative investigation starts the moment the arrivals of a superivisory officer

A

Page 248 old package

63
Q

Alcohol withdrawal symptoms may appear within ____ to ______ hours

A

6 to 12 hours after a persons last consumption of alcohol

64
Q

Symptoms of delirium tremens can occur within _____ to ______ hours after discontinuance of alcohol

A

48 to 72

65
Q

Acronym for excited delirium

A

BAAAD HIP SSSUV

Page 31 of old package