Practice Test

Question 1

What is the definition of a Resource Team?
(Formerly known as a Strike Team)

A. Officers assigned to these teams can perform officer- or citizen-down rescue techniques per MACTAC protocols (may consider Tactical Emergency Casualty Care if/when appropriate)

B. Compliant with the National Incident Management System (NIMS), a resource team is composed of four to five officers brought together as a tactical response team. The team is given a call sign based on a mission objective.

C. This team aims to isolate, contain, or neutralize the threat and create a warm zone.

D. A pre-designated patrol squad at each area command that can respond to a major violent incident. These squads are pre-identified and scheduled 24 hours per day, seven days per week.

Answer 1

B. Compliant with the National Incident Management System (NIMS), a resource team is composed of four to five officers brought together as a tactical response team. The team is given a call sign based on a mission objective.

Question 2

What is the definition of a Transition Area?

A. An Area designated as a delineation between the clean (unaffected) and dirty (affected) areas of an event. This area should have officers present to sweep everyone for weapons. The injured will be swept and moved to the formal triage, treatment and transport area(s), while uninjured/witness will be swept and moved to a refuge area.

B. An area where law enforcement has passed through and swept for immediate hostile threats and where a threat is not expected but cannot be ruled out completely.

C. A geographic area with a known threat. Only law enforcement or armed personnel attempted to isolate, contain, or neutralize hostile threat(s) are allowed in this area.

D. Any area with dedicated law enforcement protecting a defined geographic area(s) that has been cleared and secured. To establish a cold zone, arriving officers and personnel clear and secure all perimeters. The command post, triage, treatment and transport area(s) and staging area are examples of areas inside of the cold zone.

Answer 2

A. An Area designated as a delineation between the clean (unaffected) and dirty (affected) areas of an event. This area should have officers present to sweep everyone for weapons. The injured will be swept and moved to the formal triage, treatment and transport area(s), while uninjured/witness will be swept and moved to a refuge area.

Question 3

What is the definition of a hot zone?

A. Any area with dedicated law enforcement protecting a defined geographic area(s) that has been cleared and secured. To establish a cold zone, arriving officers and personnel clear and secure all perimeters. The command post, triage, treatment and transport area(s) and staging area are examples of areas inside of the cold zone.

B. An area where law enforcement has passed through and swept for immediate hostile threats and where a threat is not expected but cannot be ruled out completely.

C. A geographic area with a known threat. Only law enforcement or armed personnel attempted to isolate, contain, or neutralize hostile threat(s) are allowed in this area.

D. An Area designated as a delineation between the clean (unaffected) and dirty (affected) areas of an event. This area should have officers present to sweep everyone for weapons. The injured will be swept and moved to the formal triage, treatment and transport area(s), while uninjured/witness will be swept and moved to a refuge area.

Answer 3

C. A geographic area with a known threat. Only law enforcement or armed personnel attempted to isolate, contain, or neutralize hostile threat(s) are allowed in this area.

Question 4

What are the key differences between MACTAC Activation and STAR Protocol?

A. STAR de- escalation protocol requires immediate response regardless of single officer tactics. MACTAC requires a slow and methodical response.

B. STAR de-escalation protocol emphasizes slowed momentum to gather resources. MACTAC highlights the need for immediate intervention.

C. STAR de-escalation protocol highlights the needs for immediate intervention versus MACTAC emphasizes slowed momentum to gather resources.

D. Leroy Jenkins both.

Answer 4

B. STAR de-escalation protocol emphasizes slowed momentum to gather resources. MACTAC highlights the need for immediate intervention.

Question 5

Life safety is the absolute priority of MACTAC?

A. True

B. False

Answer 5

A. True

It is a policy of this department to provide a standardized, regional response to an active assailant, hostage siege, and/or terrorist attack in LVMPD jurisdiction, that prioritizes life safety.

Question 6

What is the definition of Unity of Command?

A. Unity of Command deals with the fact that all individuals have multiple designated supervisors they report to.

B. Unity of Command deals with the fact that all individuals have the most senior officer they report to.

C. Unity of Command deals with the fact that all individuals have a single designated supervisor they report to.

D. Unity of Command deals with the fact that some individuals have no designated supervisor they report to.

Answer 6

C. Unity of Command deals with the fact that all individuals have a single designated supervisor they report to.

Question 7

When referring to the ICS Supervisory Position Titles who is the Incident commanders support position?

A. Assistant
B. Manager
C. Deputy
D. Director

Answer 7

C. Deputy

Question 8

General Staff is the organization level for having functional responsibility for primary segments of incident management, what are its components?

A. Operations, Pre-planning, Equipment, Finance budgeting

B. Operations, Planning, Logistics, Finance/Administration

C. Situation, Mission, Execution, Admin and logistics

D. Command and control, execution, Operations, administration

Answer 8

B. Operations, Planning, Logistics, Finance/Administration

Question 9

Provide complete briefings that include clearly stated objectives and the following elements:

A. Task- What has to get done
Objective- Why isn’t it done
Solution- How does it look

B. Corrective action
Debriefing
Post-incident critique

C. Task- What is to be done
Purpose- Why it is to be done
End State- How is should look when done

Answer 9

C. Task- What is to be done
Purpose- Why it is to be done
End State- How is should look when done

Question 10

Span of control refers to the number of individuals or resources that one supervisor can manage effectively during an incident. Span of control is how many officers to 1 supervisor? PER ICS

A. 5
B. 7
C. 8
D. 10

Answer 10

A. 5

Per department policy Span of control states “Normally, no more than 12 members should be under the immediate control of an individual supervisor, unless variables of time, distance and function dictate otherwise.

Question 11

When responding to bomb threats the Field supervisor will do the following actions;

A. Contact the ARMOR supervisor through the officers line to brief of situation.

B. Respond to and assume command of the scene. The field supervisor or senior officer in charge will remain at the scene to brief the ARMOR supervisor or all relevant matters. Establish Incident Command system (ICS) in accordance with LVMPD and complete and ICS-AAR as required.

C. Contact the ARMOR supervisor through Communications supervisor.

D. A and C are correct

E. B and C are correct

Answer 11

E. B and C are correct

Question 12

When at the scene of a bomb threat the field supervisor will assign an additional cadet to the primary location to assist in fundamentals scribe and communications.

A. True
B. False

Answer 12

B. False

Field supervisor will assign an additional officer to the primary location to assist with communications.

Question 13

What are the names of the two established command post at the scene of a bomb threat?

A. Foward Operating Post, Transitional Operations Center

B. Incident Command Center, Temporary Operations Center

C. Tactical Operations Center, Field Command Post

D. Command outpost, operating post

Answer 13

C. Tactical Operations Center, Field Command Post

Question 14

What can explosive detection dogs be used for?
A. Bomb Threats
B. Located or suspected explosive devices
C. Detonated explosive device
D. Dignity protection sweeps
E. All of the above

Answer 14

E. All of the above

Question 15

What best describes conducting 25-100 foot searches?

A. Conduct a visual search of 25 feet around their initial arrival location. After the initial 25 foot search, a 100 foot search should be conducted; if a new location is established, for a command post, the 25 and 100 foot searches will conducted again.

B. These searches should be conducted from a high-to-low in a 180 degree manner around the safe area.

C. Establish a cordon and mark unknown device with orange chem lights.

D. Utilize an EDD to conduct the 25-100 foot grid searches.

Answer 15

A. Conduct a visual search of 25 feet around their initial arrival location. After the initial 25 foot search, a 100 foot search should be conducted; if a new location is established, for a command post, the 25 and 100 foot searches will conducted again.

Question 16

When requesting ARMOR, advise a responsible person from the establishment of the potential for an explosion and initiate an evacuation of the premise. On a high rise building at least how many floors near the device should be evacuated?

A. If less then 10 floors the entire building
B. Every floor above the device
C. Every floor below the device
D. Have residents shelter in place
E. 2 floors below and 2 floors above device

Answer 16

E. 2 floors below and 2 floors above device

Question 17

What are some of the responsibilities of the ARMOR section supervisor?

A. Assess the situation, device, its potential and possible time limitations.
B. Coordinate with Counter Terrorism section (CTS) to assist with investigative responsibilities.
C. Provide information to the watch desk for coordination with CTS if terrorism nexus determined. To include all notifications to other sections and agencies required.
D. None of the above
E. Only A, B, and C

Answer 17

E. Only A, B, and C

Question 18

In reference to a STAR De-Escalation protocol how many officers will be dispatched at minimum?

A. 2 officers and a supervisor
B. 1 officer a cadet and Supervisor
C. 3 officers
D. 3 officers and a supervisor

Answer 18

D. 3 officers and a supervisor

Question 19

What is the criteria for a STAR De-escalation?

A. There is credible information the subject is armed with a firearm or other dangerous weapon (simulated or unseen) and is using it in a manner that can cause fear or intimidation. Subject is acting in a frightening manner with the weapon. This will not include open-carry subjects or pocketknives, when carrying the weapon(s) is the sole justification for the call.

B. There is credible information the subject is armed with a firearm or other dangerous weapon (not simulated or unseen) and is using it in a manner that can cause death or serious bodily injury. Subject is acting in a threatening manner with the weapon. This will not include open-carry subjects or pocketknives, when carrying the weapon(s) is the sole justification for the call.

C. There is credible information the subject is armed with a pillow or other dangerous weapon (not simulated or unseen) and is using it in a manner that can cause fear or intimidation. Subject is acting in a frightening manner with the weapon. This will not include open-carry subjects or flesh lights, when carrying the weapon(s) is the sole justification for the call.

Answer 19

B. There is credible information the subject is armed with a firearm or other dangerous weapon (not simulated or unseen) and is using it in a manner that can cause death or serious bodily injury. Subject is acting in a threatening manner with the weapon. This will not include open-carry subjects or pocketknives, when carrying the weapon(s) is the sole justification for the call.

Question 20

A supervisor will maintain a STAR De-escalation Protocol unless when?

A. Person Reporting calls back and says security handled the situation.

B. Unless the first -arriving cadet confirmed that the suspect has a weapon in his hands.

C. Unless the first arriving unit confirmed the incident no longer meets the criteria of a STAR De-escalation protocol.

D. All of the above

Answer 20

C. Unless the first arriving unit confirmed the incident no longer meets the criteria of a STAR De-escalation protocol response.

Question 21

The standard tool used for command, control, response coordination and overall management of complex incidents, planned events or emergencies. This system permits a clear point of command and can be expanded or contracted with ease is the definition of Incident Command System (ICS)?

A. True
B. False

Answer 21

A. True

Question 22

Regardless of size or type of incident, the top 3 priorities for establishing incident objectives are?

A. Scene preservation, Rendering life safety measures, Property preservation

B. Scene stabilization, Life safety, Property collection

C. Life safety, Incident stabilization, Property Preservation

D. None of the above

Answer 22

C. Life safety, Incident stabilization, Property Preservation

Question 23

In establishing command a sergeant will determine if command needs to be transferred from the officer in the position of IC to the Sergeant. This will be based on what contributing factors of the incident.

A. Size
B. Type
C. Complexity of the incident
D. All of the above

Answer 23

D. All of the above

Question 24

A subject who is believed to have been involved in a criminal act or is a significant threat to themselves or others; refuses to submit to arrest and may be armed; is in a position of advantage, affording cover and concealment; or is contained in an open area, and the presence or approach of police officers could precipitate an adverse reaction by the subject is the definition of what?

A. Suicidal subject/ incident
B. Domestic disturbance
C. STAR De-escalation protocol
D. Barricaded subject/ incident

Answer 24

D. Barricaded subject/ incident

Question 25

What are the elements of a barricaded subject?

A. A subject who is believed to have been involved in a criminal act or is a significant threat to themselves or others.

B. Refuses to submit to arrest and may be armed

C. Is in a position of advantage, affording cover and concealment;

D. Or is contained in an open area, and the presence or approach of police officers could precipitate an adverse reaction by the subject

E. All of the above

Answer 25

E. All of the above

Question 26

When responding to a barricade a patrol supervisor will?

1. Upon arrival, assess the situation and take command by prioritizing and communicating objectives.
2. Reinforce the inner perimeter and establish a secondary perimeter based on the nature of the
   incident.
3. Direct units to stop any inbound foot or vehicle traffic.
4. Assign officers as an immediate-action team (designating roles such as verbal communication, low lethality options, hands on, etc.) to control the subject should they exit the structure.
5. Gather intelligence, make a determination for the need of SWAT and negotiators to respond, and make the requests via Communications (when possible, the patrol supervisor should also
   communicate telephonically with the SWAT tactical commander).
6. Evacuate or shelter-in-place bystanders and injured persons from the vicinity around the suspect’s
   location.
7. Designate an officer with strong verbal skills to make contact with the subject to determine the subject’s intent. If contact is made with the subject, ensure officers remain in a tactically sound
   position, using effective cover and concealment. Efforts should be made to persuade the suspect
   to voluntarily surrender.
8. Request a dedicated radio channel with a dispatcher, if required.
9. Communicate with and direct subsequent arriving supervisors to perform other tasks that require handling.

a. Any subsequent arriving supervisor will assess and determine where they are needed and
establish communication with the first arriving supervisor to provide support. All supervisors on-scene have a responsibility in the command and control process.

10. Designate an officer to record names and addresses of persons and residences evacuated.

A. All of the above
B. None of the above

Answer 26

A. All of the above

Question 27

When responding to a barricaded subject who will make the determination for the need of SWAT?

A. Crisis Negotiators

B. Senior Officer on scene

C. Patrol Supervisor

D. Incident Commander

Answer 27

C. Patrol Supervisor

Question 28

Who will retain command of the incident command post during hostage plan?

A. SWAT
B. Patrol Supervisor
C. Watch Commander
D. CNT

Answer 28

B. Patrol Supervisor

Question 29

The patrol supervisor will also retain command of the incident command post and what other responsibilities?

A. TOC, Staging Area, PPA
B. Staging Area, Immediate action team, ICP
C. Staging Area, secondary perimeter and other police operations
D. None of the above

Answer 29

C. Staging Area, secondary perimeter and other police operations

Question 30

Who will notify the SWAT Tactical commander and other agencies, as applicable when a confirmed hostage incident and advise the field supervisor when the notifications have been made?

A. Watch Commander
B. Captain
C. Lieutenant
D. Communications

Answer 30

D. Communications

Question 31

As the patrol supervisor after arriving on a hostage rescue incident and after assessing the situation and taking command by prioritizing and communicating objectives what is the secondary thing you will do?

A. Make dynamic entry based on exigent circumstances.
B. Begin negotiating with the suspect.
C. Evacuate or shelter in place bystanders and injured persons from the vicinity around the suspects location.
D. Reinforce the inner perimeter and establish a secondary perimeter based on the nature of the incident.

Answer 31

D. Reinforce the inner perimeter and establish a secondary perimeter based on the nature of the incident.

Question 32

Projectile weapons may be used against persons who are holding a firearm if it can be utilized to de-escalate and intervene with a potential deadly force situation; however what conditions must be met?

A. A minimum of two officers are on the way, and primary officer is acting as lethal coverage. Officers have considered the use of available cover and concealment

B. A minimum of two officers are present, one officer acting as lethal coverage. Officers have considered the use of available cover and concealment.

C. A minimum of 3 officers and a supervisor are present with one acting as lethal coverage. Officers have considered contingency plans.

D. A minimum of 4 officers are present with 2 acting as lethal coverage. Officer have considered using cover versus concealment.

Answer 32

B. A minimum of two officers are present, one officer acting as lethal coverage. Officers have considered the use of available cover and concealment.

Question 33

A blue team is required when using intermediate force against a dog via baton strike?

A. True
B. False

Answer 33

B. False

Question 34

While in intermediate force utilizing a low lethal shotgun what is the distance you may use?

A. 7 yards or greater
B. 5 Yards or greater
C. 10 Yards or greater
D. 7 Yards or less

Answer 34

A. 7 yards or greater

Question 35

While in intermediate force utilizing a 40mm specialty impact weapon what is the distance you may use?

A. 7 yards or greater
B. 5 Yards or greater
C. 10 Yards or greater
D. 7 Yards or less

Answer 35

B. 5 Yards or greater

Question 36

In a protest or demonstration situation, OC spray may only be utilized when authorized by an ______________ in response to an __________ threat of harm.

A. Watch Commander, immediate
B. Patrol supervisor, imminent
C. Captain, Exigent
D. Incident Commander, Imminent

Answer 36

D. Incident Commander, Imminent

Question 37

A civilian employee who also uses force (empty hand tactics, OC spray, or firearm is required to complete a use of force report.

A. True
B. False

Answer 37

A. True

Question 38

What are the 3 levels of control per Use of Force?

A. Low Level, Mid level, Deadly threat
B. Minimal Risk Level, Obstructive, Deadly Force
C. Low Level, intermediate level, Deadly Force
D. Compliant, Obstructive, Assaultive, Life threatening

Answer 38

C. Low Level, intermediate level, Deadly Force

Question 39

Spark Display, Touch Stun and Probe mode require a blue team?

A. True
B. False

Answer 39

A. True

Question 40

BLUE team and photographs are required for any reportable force, visible signs of injury/ complaint of injury?

A. True
B. False

Answer 40

A. True

Question 41

Handcuffs will not be used for verbally uncooperative person?

A. True
B. False

Answer 41

A. True

Verbally uncooperative is not an approved use for handcuffs.
Articulable facts that the subject is physically uncooperative

Question 42

When responding to a security officer where a subject has been placed in handcuffs prior to the officer’s arrival, the officer will not place LVMPD handcuffs on the subject until the officer has developed __________ or _________ based on their independent investigation.

A. Articulable fact or Reasonable suspicion
B. Facts or circumstances
C. Reasonable suspicion or Probable Cause
D. None of the above

Answer 42

C. Reasonable Suspicion or Probable Cause

Question 43

Is blocking a reportable use of force tactic?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer 43

B. No

Per use of force policy

Blocking is the positioning of a police vehicle in the path of an occupied subject vehicle where contact between the vehicles is anticipated to be minimal, and the potential for injuries is low. The intent of blocking is to prevent an avenue of escape by the safe placement of a police vehicle. Block is not a use of force.

Question 44

As a supervisor you’re responding to a volatile situation in reference to a suicidal subject where your immediate action team is set up on a suspect holding a knife. The suspect is currently standing in the driveway and has no access to a vehicle nor access to go inside of the home. Your low lethal officer is in possession of 40mm low lethality impact weapon and fires a total of 4 rounds towards the suspect. The suspect ultimately drops the knife and is taken into custody.

While conducting a post use of force investigation you determined that the distance of the 40mm was approximately 7 yards away.

What level of force was your low lethal officer in? What level of resistance was the suspect in?

A. Low Level/ Compliant
B. Intermediate Level/ Life Threatening
C. Deadly Force/ Assaultive
D. Intermediate Level/ Assaultive

Answer 44

D. Intermediate Level/ Assaultive

Regardless of the number of times fired, Supervisor on scene will determine level of force based on distance of end of barrel to location of suspect.

Question 45

When should officers report to a supervisor upon observing another officer use force that is clearly beyond what is justified or objectively reasonable?

A. At the end of shift
B. After the call
C. Immediately
D. Promptly
E. None of the above

Answer 45

D. Promptly

Question 46

What are the 3 important elements to a code 3 response that ensures officers are maximizing safety while minimizing risks?

A. Initiative, Sound Decisions, Overwhelming action
B. Communication, Coordination, Good judgement
C. Decisiveness, Integrity, Courage
D. Good Judgement, Communication over cellular device, Coordination

Answer 46

B. Communication, Coordination, Good judgement

Question 47

When can LVMPD unit engage in a vehicle pursuit with an inner jurisdiction such as NLVPD or HPD?

A. A field supervisor will not approve unless assistance is requested by the initiating agency, and they provide sufficient information. Such as crime the suspects are believed to be in. So that LVMPD field supervisor can determine if the pursuit is in compliance with the provision of LVMPD vehicle pursuit policy.

B. If inter-jurisdictional units request assistance from LVMPD due to not enough manpower. On a suspect wanted for jay walking.

C. A senior officer will not approve unless assistance is requested by the initiating agency, and they provide sufficient information. Such as crime the suspects are believed to be in. So that LVMPD field supervisor can determine if the pursuit is in compliance with the provision of LVMPD vehicle pursuit policy.

D. None of the above.

Answer 47

A. A field supervisor will not approve unless assistance is requested by the initiating agency, and they provide sufficient information. Such as crime the suspects are believed to be in. So that LVMPD field supervisor can determine if the pursuit is in compliance with the provision of LVMPD vehicle pursuit policy.

Question 48

An officer involved in a motor vehicle collision during an emergency response, or a pursuit will immediately discontinue involvement and take proper action as required by NRS 484E and department directives unless.

A. No unit is available to assume the pursuit or respond to the unit involved.
B. Damage to the unit is minor, and it can still be operated without danger.
C. There are no apparent injuries as a result of the collision.
D. All of the above
E. Only B & C are correct

Answer 48

D. All of the above

Question 49

In reference to a foot pursuit, when should a supervisor respond?

A. Injury to an officer, citizen, or suspect. Any entry into a residence or similar structure, regardless if its occupied or not. Any reportable force, or Any other unusual occurrence that warrants supervisory oversight.

B. Injury to only an officer. Any entry into a home, structure, tent regardless if its occupied or not. Any reportable use of force and or any other unusual occurrence that warrants supervisory oversight.

C. Injury to citizen or suspect, Any entry into a home, structure only if occupied. Any reportable force and or any other unusual occurrence that warrants supervisory oversight.

Answer 49

A. Injury to an officer, citizen, or suspect. Any entry into a residence or similar structure, regardless if its occupied or not. Any reportable force, or Any other unusual occurrence that warrants supervisory oversight.

Question 50

When responding to a foot pursuit a field supervisor will make reasonable efforts to do the following;

A. Ask for updates regarding foot pursuit, Direct responding units to where needed, take control of the pursuit.

B. Request for resources, ascertain information, take command of incident

C. Ascertain information, direct responding resources, take command of the foot pursuit.

C. Ask for information, direct responding units, monitor over radio

Answer 50

C. Ascertain information, direct responding resources, take command of the foot pursuit.

Question 51

On a CNRNE incident you are the first supervisor on scene, you will establish a command post (at a safe distance upwind from the scene). Assign second or third unit arriving at the command post to check the immediate area for possible secondary devices. The officer(s) conducting the check should not touch suspicious objects. The location that have been thoroughly checked should be marked so the explosive detector dogs or bomb squad can eliminate those not marked as threats.

Review established security perimeter and ensure no personnel are deployed in a designated contaminated area without proper protective equipment.

Determine the need for an outer perimeter depending on the circumstances of the incident.

Request communications to make notifications.

What other should a supervisor do?

A. Establish an evacuation team and systematically evacuate homeowners or patrons from businesses with the ARMOR section. In accordance with the table of isolation and evacuation distances found in the handbook. Department members will make every effort to conduct rescues if need be.

B. Coordinate the evacuation of the area upwind of the spillage or suspected spillage, with the ARMOR section or Immediate action team, in accordance with the Table of Isolation and Evacuation Distances found in the ERG. Department members will conduct rescues without utilizing the proper protective equipment and being trained in its use.

C. Coordinate the evacuation of the area downwind of the spillage or suspect spillage, with the ARMOR section or fire department, in accordance with the Table of Isolation and Evacuation Distances found in the ERG. Department members will not conduct rescues without utilizing the proper protective equipment and being trained in its use.

D. None of the above

Answer 51

C. Coordinate the evacuation of the area downwind of the spillage or suspect spillage, with the ARMOR section or fire department, in accordance with the Table of Isolation and Evacuation Distances found in the ERG. Department members will not conduct rescues without utilizing the proper protective equipment and being trained in its use.

Question 52

A safety zone maintained by officers which creates distance and space between opposing groups is the definition of?

A. Crowd management
B. Transition Zone
C. Hot Zone
D. Buffer Zone

Answer 52

D. Buffer Zone

Question 53

During a protest where demonstrators have intentionally utilized a device that physically or mechanically connects a person or animal to a stationary object, officer will initially use de-escalation efforts, such as verbal persuasion warnings, and dispersal orders, as alternatives to extrication or reasonable uses of force. When a subject refuses to release themselves from theses protester devices, each individual protester will be advised they are under arrest and given an __________ to comply before force is used to remove the devices.

A. hour
B. Additional chance
C. ultimatum
D. None of the above

Answer 53

B. Additional chance

Question 54

When confronting a dangerous crowd or a situation where public safety has been compromised, the department will declare it an unlawful assembly and attempt to provide orders to disperse at least how many times?

A. None
B. 1
C. 3
D. 2

Answer 54

C. 3

Question 55

When confronting a dangerous crowd or a situation where public safety has been compromised, the department will declare it an unlawful assembly and attempt to provide orders to disperse at least 3 times. If there is an immediate threat of physical harm or death, how many dispersal orders will be given?

A. None
B. 1
C. 3
D. 2

Answer 55

A. None

Question 56

When confronting a dangerous crowd or a situation where public safety has been compromised, the department will declare it an unlawful assembly and attempt to provide orders to disperse at least 3 times. If there is an immediate threat of harm to property, how many orders to disperse must be provided?

A. None
B. 1
C. 3
D. 2

Answer 56

B. 1

Question 57

Deployment of aerosol irritants will only be used at the direction of the _______ and only after clear warning has been given and when avenues of egress are available to the crowd.

A. Field supervisor
B. SWAT Commander
C. Deputy Chief
D. Incident Commander

Answer 57

D. Incident Commander

Question 58

When contacted by an arresting officer regarding releasing an arrestee to medical personnel, ensure that the arrestee is not released from custody if the following charges are applicable;
Crimes against an officer
Domestic Violence or driver on a DWI revoked license or any other charge when is mandated by statute
any violent crime against person with significant injury

What 3 other crimes?

A. Petit Larceny, Burglary, any violent crime involving the use of deadly force

B. Battery against sibling, Sexual assault, Robbery

C. Any violent crime involving the use of deadly force, Sexual assault, kidnapping

D. Sexual assault, any violent crime involving the use of intermediate force, Kidnapping

Answer 58

C. Any violent crime involving the use of deadly force, Sexual assault, kidnapping

Question 59

When making a warrant less arrest, the arresting officer will use only a reasonable amount of force to make the arrest,
Restrain the arrestee by handcuffing their hands behind their back, unless handicapped, obese or other physical reasons exist for not doing so.
Search the arrestee for weapons and instruments or fruits of the crime that are upon their person and/ or within their immediate control
If interrogation is to follow, give the arrestee the Miranda warning before hand
Protect and safeguard the arrestee and personal property
Transport the arrestee to the appropriate detention facility
Complete arrest procedures in accordance with LVMPD

And what else should the arresting officer do?

A. Request relief to transport the arrestee to the proper facility.

B. Inform the suspect that they are under arrest

C. Inform the suspect that they are under arrest and name the criminal offense or cause for arrest.

D. None of the above

Answer 59

C. Inform the suspect that they are under arrest and name the criminal offense or cause for arrest.

Question 60

NRS states that officer has discretion to arrest, cite, or give an advisement when there is probable cause to believe that a battery was committed within the preceding 7 days upon?

A. A person with whom suspect is residing
B. A sibling by blood or marriage (If the person is not the custodian or guardian of sibling)
C. A Cousin (If the person is not the custodian or guardian of sibling)
D. All of the above
E. Only A and C

Answer 60

D. All of the above

Question 61

When releasing property of an arrestee to a third party when will the supervisor will sign the property report?

A. End of shift
B. After arrestee is taken to correct facility
C. After completion of arrest paperwork
D. Before arrestee is transported to appropriate detention facility

Answer 61

D. Before arrestee is transported to appropriate detention facility

Question 62

When releasing anything of monetary value to a third party, when will a supervisor presence be needed?

A. Currency over $120.00 and non currency items valued over $220.00

B. Currency over $150.00 and non currency items valued over $250.00

C. Currency over $100.00 and non currency items valued over $250.00

D. Currency over $100.00 and non currency items valued over $300.00

Answer 62

C. Currency over $100.00 and non-currency items valued over $250.00

Question 63

While conducting domestic violence investigations when should a supervisor be contacted?
Felony Domestic Violence has occurred,
A Law enforcement employee of any agency is involved as a suspect or victim, parties involved are believed to be a pimp and prostitute, a suspect under arrest has a previous conviction for domestic violence and is in possession of a firearm and or ammunition.

A. Suspect is an ex-felon for Murder
B. Victim is gone on arrival
C. Mutual arrest
D. Battery between co-workers

Answer 63

C. Mutual arrest

Question 64

When investigating a domestic dispute, in cases when a law enforcement employee of any agency is involved as a suspect or victim of domestic violence who should be notified?

A. Agency supervisor, watch commander, criminal investigation
B. Watch commander, Criminal investigation section if WC not available, area sergeant
C. Watch commander, Criminal investigation section if WC not available, area lieutenant
D. Area lieutenant, Area Captain, Criminal investigation section

Answer 64

C. Watch commander, Criminal investigation section if WC not available, area lieutenant

Question 65

When transporting a prisoner in a vehicle with a partition cage and 2 officers, what are the responsibilities of the passenger officers?

A. Periodically monitor arrestees
B. Have arrestee sit up front next to driving officer
C. Maintain communication with arrestee
D. Complete any and all necessary paperwork

Answer 65

A. Periodically monitor arrestees

Question 66

Officers will not be diverted to any other law enforcement agency activities while transporting unless the risk to third parties is both clear, and grave and the risk to the arrestee is _______ and supervisory approval is given.

A. Levitated
B. Sudden
C. Preventable
D. Minimal

Answer 66

D. Minimal

Question 67

Investigations involving department vehicle collisions a supervisor will send a check ride, post accident to who?

A. Vehicle Collision Board, AOST, RBT
B. Accident Review Board, AOST
C. Health and Safety, AOST
D. Vehicle Collision Board and AOST

Answer 67

D. Vehicle collision board and AOST

Question 68

Who investigates a department vehicle incident report LVMPD 42?

A. Patrol Supervisor
B. Traffic supervisor
C. Traffic supervisor or Traffic Officer
D. Any available unit

Answer 68

C. Traffic supervisor or Traffic Officer

Question 69

What is the criteria of an LVMPD 42 Department Vehicle Incident Report LVMPD 42?
Visible damage is apparently minor (Small dents/scratches, under carriage damage
No injuries or claimed injuries
Involves citizen vehicle or non motorist involved
Training collisions with serious injury or death of major property damage

A. Any use of PIT, Blocking with contact, Pinching or ramming
B. Ramming in intermediate force
C. Use of PIT during vehicle stop
D. B and C

Answer 69

A. Any use of PIT, Blocking with contact, Pinching or ramming

Question 70

A separate category from a collision, is an occurrence in which a vehicle collides with another vehicle, pedestrian, animal, bicycle, road debris, or stationary object such as a tree, pole or building not resulting in bodily injury, a complaint of bodily injury, death of a person, or results in the total damage to any vehicle or item of property to an apparent extent of less than $750.00? Describes what term?

A. Collision
B. Excusable
C. Incident
D. Non-preventable

Answer 70

D. Incident

Question 71

An occurrence in which a vehicle collides with another vehicle, pedestrian, animal, bicycle, road debris, or stationary object such as a tree, pole, or building resulting in bodily injury, a complaint of bodily injury, death of a person, or results in the total damage to any vehicle or item of property to an apparent extent of $750.00 or more. Describes what term?

A. Collision
B. Excusable
C. Incident
D. Non-preventable

Answer 71

A. Collision

Question 72

In accordance with the National Child Search Assistance Act of 1900 and the federally mandated __________ entry into NCIC will be made under certain circumstances.

A. Adam Walsh Act
B. Kelsey Smith Act
C. Amber Alert
D. Suzanne’s Law

Answer 72

D. Suzanne’s Law

Question 73

In accordance with the National Child Search Assistance Act of 1900 and the federally mandated Suzanne’s Law entry into NCIC will be made under what circumstances.

A. All Juveniles 17 years and younger, will be entered into NCIC immediately upon receiving the required minimum data elements, not to exceed 2 hours.
B. Missing person 18-20 years old will also be entered into NCIC in accordance with the federally mandated Suzanne’s law immediately upon receiving the required minimum data elements, not to exceed 2 hours.
C. Only A
D. Both A and B

Answer 73

D. Both A and B

Question 74

An officer notifies you of a female adult who is at UMC trauma who has sustained a life threatening head injury as a result of falling off a ladder while putting up her Christmas lights. No foul play is detected but the Dr says that she will likely not make it. What type of report should be taken?

A. Incident crime report for suspicious Death
B. Incident crime report for sick or injured person
C. Notify Patrol detectives
D. Incident crime report for Sick or injured person along with photographs to document event

Answer 74

D. Incident crime report for Sick or injured person along with photographs to document event

Question 75

Only the firearm used in an incident (IE. Suicide, accidental shooting etc) will be impounded as evidence by who_______?
Patrol officers may impound other firearms for safekeeping only when ____________or safety exist- notating the jurisdiction when doing so and when public administrator is not available.

A. Cadet/ threat to others
B. Primary officer/ threats to life
C. Crime Scene Analyst/ threats to life
D. Crime Scene Analyst/ threats to society

Answer 75

C. Crime Scene Analyst/ threats to life

Question 76

When will the coroner investigator collect any firearms?

A. Homicides
B. Suicides
C. When no officer is present
D. Never

Answer 76

D. Never

Question 77

Officers should coordinate with the appropriate ______ Officers to analyze problems and determine responses?

A. Safe Village Initiative Officers
B. FLEX Team
C. COP
D. PD

Answer 77

C. COP

Question 78

Field strip searches of prisoners will be conducted only in the rarest of circumstances where the life of the officers or other may be placed at risk and only with the explicit approval of a __________and only in the presence of a supervisor?

A. Patrol Sergeant
B. Incident Commander
C. Lieutenant
D. Senior officer

Answer 78

C. Lieutenant

Question 79

Pursuant to a lawful stop, vehicles may be searched under the following circumstances;

PC evidence is contained in vehicle;

A. Search Pursuant to a search warrant
B. Vehicle is readily mobile
C. Consent search
D. All of the Above
E. Only B and C

Answer 79

D. All of the above

Question 80

Pursuant to a lawful stop, vehicles may be searched under the following circumstances;

No PC evidence is contained in vehicle

A. Protective frisk for officer safety
B. Inventory
C. Consent search
D. Vin Inspection
E. All of the above

Answer 80

E. All of the above

Question 81

What are the way that consent may be documented?

A. Verbal either electronically recorded
B. Written is preferred
C. Document in CAD
D. All of the above

Answer 81

D. All of the above

Question 82

The show up witness form will be completed on all show ups involving what types of crimes? Regardless of identity outcome.

A. Misdemeanor
B. Gross Misdemeanor
C. Felony
D. All of the above

Answer 82

C. Felony

Question 83

In the event that multiple suspects are detained at the same time, a show up will only be conducted with 1 suspect at a time. The show up should be done within a relative timeframe of ______-______ hours following the incident.

A. Immediately- Sooner
B. 2-4 hours
C. 1-3 hours
D. 60 minutes

Answer 83

C. 1-3 hours

Question 84

A show up should be conducted at the location where the suspect is detained within ________ of detainment, if not under arrest.

A. 2 hours
B. 60 minutes
C. 1-3 hours
D. As soon as possible

Answer 84

B. 60 minutes

Question 85

What crimes should Patrol Detectives be notified?

A. Grand Larceny over 25k
B. Domestic Battery
C. PPPFA, Possession of a stolen FA
D. Residential Burglary over 25K

Answer 85

C. PPPFA, Possession of a stolen FA

Question 86

As a supervisor when will homicide be notified?

A. Homicides
B. Fire Deaths
C. Suspicious deaths after CSA have responded to and assessed the scene.
D. All of the above
E. Only A and C

Answer 86

D. All of the above

Question 87

As a field supervisor, you are notified by one of your officers that his victim has succumbed to injuries while at the hospital. The details of the incident were that two brothers were in a fight at their home which the victim struck the suspect in the head due to being chased with a bread knife. Officers tell you that no one is in custody. Who do you need to notify?

A. Patrol Detectives
B. Watch Commander
C. Homicide Section
D. Admin lieutenant

Answer 87

C. Homicide Section

Question 88

Red crime scene tape will be placed around the crime scene where an OIS, In custody death or the use of deadly force incident has occurred?

A. True
B. False

Answer 88

A. True

Question 89

When responding to a critical incident what are the procedures for the first officer on scene?

A. Render first aid and summon medical assistance when responding to crimes against a person involving bodily injury.
B. Place yellow crime scene tape around the perimeter of the crime scene.
C. Remove all unauthorized persons, including officers, from the inner perimeter of the crime scene.
D. Ensure unauthorized vehicles do not enter the inner perimeter of the crime scene.
E. All of the above.

Answer 89

E. All of the above

Question 90

When investigating officer involved shooting or deadly force situations who is responsible to collecting and securing the body worn camera from all involved and witness officers upon arrival at the scene?

A. CIRT
B. FIT
C. Field Supervisor
D. A and B

Answer 90

B. FIT

Question 91

When may supervisors self dispatch feature under what following circumstances?

A. To close out pending non-response required calls without using the radio. (a Sgt calls a PR and determines that a subject causing a disturbance is gone. The Sgt can self-dispatch to update and close the call.
B. After contacting the PR and determining that the call can be cancelled, or if the sergeant resolves the call, they may utilize the self-dispatch feature.
C. Both A and B
D. Only A

Answer 91

C. Both A and B

Question 92

Emergency calls will be dispatched to on-shifts units up to the _______ of the shift.

A. 45 minutes
B. Conclusion
C. End of shift
D. Pending

Answer 92

B. Conclusion

Question 93

Communications will dispatch on-shift units to routine calls including report call up to _______before the conclusion of their shift.

A. 45 minutes
B. Conclusion
C. End of shift
D. Pending

Answer 93

A. 45 minutes

Question 94

What are the 7 examples of when a Significant event reporting is needed?

A. OIS (Involved or witness, Victim or witness to substantial violence against commissioned officer or civilian employee, involvement in a call for service in which children sustain substantial bodily harm or death.
B. Responding to a mass casualty event or a multi-casualty traffic accident, personal involvement in divorce, loss of a family member or significant other, A citizen dying or suffering substantial bodily harm in the employees presence.
C. Both A and B
D. None of these

Answer 94

C. Both A and B

Question 95

Department members are prohibited from disclosing information pertaining to any other members of the Department without permission of the affected member?

A. True
B. False

Answer 95

A. True

Question 96

An employee may voluntarily self-identify as an abuser of prescription or over the counter drugs or alcohol before being identified through other means. Such self identification may occur through any supervisor in the employees chain of command or an association representative who then has an obligation to report it to the officer of Labor relations. Under these circumstances the employee will participate in a mandatory rehabilitation program paid for by the employee and or the appropriate health insurance carrier. The employee will also be subject to the conditions of a __________ which will include unannounced testing for a ______ period.

A. Last Opportunity Agreement/ 1 year
B. Last Chance Agreement/ 6 months
C. Last Chance Agreement/ 2 year
D. Last Opportunity Agreement/ 2 year

Answer 96

C. Last Chance Agreement/ 2 year

Question 97

A concentration of alcohol that indicates a ______ percent or above, at the time of a BAC test, is per se impairment and may be grounds for discipline?

A. .018
B. .022
C. .02
D. .03

Answer 97

C. .02

Question 98

Upon becoming aware or developing reasonable suspicion of an employees impairment, a supervisor will contact ________ immediately.

A. Watch commander
B. Bureau commander
C. Internal Affairs Bureau
D. Criminal IA

Answer 98

C. Internal Affairs Bureau

Question 99

Upon developing reasonable suspicion, a supervisor will conduct a preliminary investigation (which may include an FST). The supervisor should request a ____________________ to observe any indicators of impairment to confirm the reasonable suspicion.

A. Bureau Commander
B. IAB
C. Secondary Supervisor
D. Patrol detective

Answer 99

C. Secondary Supervisor

Question 100

As a supervisor for reports of criminal or suspected criminal misconduct involving law enforcement employees of any other jurisdiction, who will be immediately notified?

A. Bureau command/ Criminal Intelligence
B. On duty Captain/ appropriate investigative unit
C. On duty watch commander/ appropriate investigative unit
D. Secondary supervisor/ IAB

Answer 100

C. On duty watch commander/ appropriate investigative unit

Question 101

An employees bureau/ area commander will confer with the employees supervisor regarding the implementation of court-referred program and/or discipline regarding DUI/DV. The employees immediate supervisor will address the employees behavior through?

A. Discipline
B. Counseling
C. Ensure any reduction in discipline, wholly or in part, due to successful completion of court referred treatment retains the designation of the initial discipline.
D. Coordinate any voluntary follow up care for the employee through PEAP.
E. All of the above

Answer 101

E. All of the above

Question 102

All religious accommodation request will be reviewed and processed on a case-by-case basis by who?

A. Bureau Commander
B. IAB lieutenant
C. Employment Diversity Section Director
D. Patrol supervisor

Answer 102

C. Employment Diversity Section Director

Question 103

Employee request religious accommodation to the supervisor, A supervisor will notify who?, of the request for a religious accommodation by a member in a _______manner to begin with the formal interactive process.

A. EDS Director/ Speedy
B. IAB supervisor/ timely
C. Patrol supervisor/ quick
D. EDS director/ timely

Answer 103

D. EDS director/ timely

Question 104

A customer service dispute is not an allegation that involves what?

A. Violation of law or department policy
B. Criminal violations
C. Allegations of misconduct
D. Violation of policy and laws

Answer 104

A. Violation of law and department policy

Question 105

Who investigates a customer service dispute?

A. Incident Commander
B. Supervisor
C. Watch Commander
D. Bureau Commander

Answer 105

B. Supervisor

Question 106

All internal investigation should be completed within how many days?

A. 30
B. 45
C. 60
D. 90

Answer 106

D. 90 Days

Question 107

Are not considered interrogation questions. This is because they are not intended to elicit incriminating information pursuant to an investigation. Rather they are questions asked so that law enforcement officials known how to reach a situation. Is the definition of what?

A. Non-Incriminating questions
B. Threshold questions
C. Public Safety Statement
D. None of these

Answer 107

B. Threshold Questions

Question 108

Officers will treat shot spotter incidents as what and respond in a safe and strategic manner?

A. STAR de-escalation protocol
B. Crime in progress
C. Priority 1
D. All of the above

Answer 108

B. Crime in progress

Question 109

A patrol supervisor will ensure that what two documents are completed following a shotspotter event?

A. ICR and Teams notification
B. Central Intelligence Notification and ICR
C. CIU and AAR
D. Both A and C

Answer 109

B. Central Intelligence Notification and ICR