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EIU > Bio Psych Final > Flashcards

Bio Psych Final Flashcards

1
Q

Ontogenetic

A
  • Within the lifespan of behavior
  • What factors contribute to the different behaviors?
  • Environment, prenatal environment, genetics, and neurotransmitter receptors
  • Developmental influences on the behavior
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2
Q

Evolutionary (How)

A
  • How the behavior or structure evolved across generations of time
  • How did the common characteristics come to be? Common ancestor
  • Tracking the evolutionary tree
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3
Q

Physiological

A
  • Focuses on the biological processes through the body, neurons, hormones, heart rate, blood pressure, chemicals, etc.
  • Fundamental physiological processes in behavior
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4
Q

Functional (Why)

A
  • What is the function of the behavior?
  • Why it came to be?
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5
Q

Evolutionary, Functional, Ontogenetic, or physiological?

Schizophrenia symptoms are caused by excessive dopamine activity.

A

Physiological

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6
Q

Evolutionary, Functional, Ontogenetic, or physiological?

Phobias develop from a complex interaction between genes, parental influences, and learning.

A

Ontogenetic

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7
Q

Evolutionary, Functional, Ontogenetic, or physiological?

Compared to other species, humans have proportionally larger area of cortex that is required for higher cognitive functions, suchas language and memory

A

Functional

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8
Q

Evolutionary, Functional, Ontogenetic, or physiological?

Human brains look very similar to the brains of other primates suggesting a common ancestor

A

Evolutionary

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9
Q

Which of the following explanations would suggest that squirrels hibernate to conserve energy during the winter?

A

Functional

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10
Q

Three R’s of Animal Research

A

Reduction
Refinement
Replacement

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11
Q

Axon

A

Carry communication
- Transmission of message

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12
Q

Afferent

A

The signal is coming toward
Admission

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13
Q

Efferent

A

Away from the reference point
Exit

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14
Q

A train traveling from Mattoon to Chicago would be ___ for Mattoon and ___ for Chicago.
Afferent and Efferent

A

Efferent; Afferent

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15
Q

Schwan Cells

A

Speeds up the signal
Myelination

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16
Q

Oligodendrocyte

A

Produces the myelin sheaths that insulate axons

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17
Q

Chemicals that cannot flow freely across a cell membrane enter a neuron through:

A

Protein channels

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18
Q

What is the correct order of information flow within a neuron?
Axon, Cell body, Dendrite

A

Dendrite, Cell body, Axon

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19
Q

Concentration Gradient

A

Molecules move from high to low

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20
Q

Electrical Gradient

A

Positive repel and negative repel. Positive want negative.

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21
Q

Sodium-potassium pump

A

Sodium out. Potassium in.

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22
Q

What is one major cause for the resting potential of a neuron’s membrane?

A

Selective permeability of the membrane to potassium

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23
Q

The resting potential would ____ if the membrane were more permeable to potassium.

A

Become more negative

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24
Q

Making the interior of the cell more negative will tend to keep potassium ions inside the neuron. (T/F)

A

True

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25
Q

For Na+ ions, at the resting potential of -70mV, the concentration gradient attempts to move Na+ ___ the cell, and the electrical gradient attempts to move Na+ ____.

A

In; In

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26
Q

For K+ ions, at the resting potential of -70mV, the concentration gradient attempts to move K+ ____ the cell and the electrical gradient attempts to move K+ _____.

A

Out; In

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27
Q

Depolarization

A

Sodium in. Removing polarization. Makes things more positive

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28
Q

Repolarization

A

Potassium out.
Membrane becomes more negative again

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29
Q

The sodium-potassium pump is what normally brings the membrane back to its original state of polarization immediately after the peak of the action potential. (T/F)

A

False

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30
Q

If a moderate and a strong stimulus both cause a neuron to exceed the threshold of excitation, the amount of depolarization during the action potential will be the same. (T/F)

A

True

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31
Q

The presence of an all-or-none law suggests that neurons can convey different messages by changing only their ____ of action potentials.

A

Rate or Pattern

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32
Q

Which of the following statements regarding reflexes would Charles Sherrington most likely agree with?

A

Repeated stimuli occurring within a brief time can have a cumulative effect

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33
Q

The primary difference between an EPSP and an action potential is that:

A

EPSPs are subthreshold events that decay over time and space

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34
Q

In the withdrawal reflex, the flexor and extensor muscles do not contract at the same time because:

A

When the interneuron sends excitatory messages to one, an additional synapse inhibits messages going to the other

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35
Q

A military force plans to attack a city surrounded by a moat, with several weak bridges leading to it. If the attacking army sends small forces across each bridge simultaneously to converge on the city at once, this is most similar to:

A

Spatial Summation

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36
Q

What provides the building blocks for synthesizing neurotransmitters?

A

Substances found in the diet

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37
Q

The release of neurotransmitters is ultimately triggered by:

A

Calcium rushing in

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38
Q

High concentrations of neurotransmitters are stored in the

A

Presynaptic terminal

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39
Q

After neurotransmitters bind to metabotropic receptors, the “Second messengers” carry their messages to:

A

Areas within the postsynaptic cell

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40
Q

Your brain uses small differences in the timing of sound arriving at both ears (as small as 10 microseconds) to determine the location of the sound. What type of neurotransmitter receptors are most likely involved in this auditory pathway?

A

Ionotropic

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41
Q

MDMA

A

Increase dopamine and serotonin

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42
Q

Hallucinogens (LSD)

A

Stimulates serotonin receptor

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43
Q

Nicotine

A

Stimulates ACH receptor

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44
Q

Opiates

A

Stimulates endorphin receptors

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45
Q

Ritalin

A

Blocks dopamine reuptake

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46
Q

Why do the effects of certain transmitters, such as serotonin, vary from one synapse to another?

A

There are several kinds of postsynaptic receptors for serotonin

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47
Q

Opiate drugs, like morphine, bind to which of the following receptors?

A

Endorphin

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48
Q

Which drugs most closely resemble the neurotransmitter serotonin?

A

Hallucinogens

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49
Q

Phrenology

A

Shape of the brain shows the personality

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50
Q

Structural Brain imaging

A

CAT
MRI

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51
Q

Functional Brain imaging

A

EEG
fMRI
PET Scan

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52
Q

You want to know if the volume of the hippocampus changes with learning the streets of London. Which technique is best?

A

MRI

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53
Q

Research on the amount (size) of cortex devoted to sensory/motor function of the left hand in musicians would likely involve:

A

MRI and fMRI

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54
Q

You are interested in determining which areas of the brain become more active when Googling. Which of the following techniques could you use?
CAT, EEG, MRI, PET, TMS, fMRI, Optogenetics

A

EEG
Pet Scan
fMRI

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55
Q

Medulla

A

Breathing, heart rate, blood pressure

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56
Q

Pons

A

Sleep and arousal

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57
Q

Midbrain

A

Routes for visual and auditory information
Superior and inferior colliculus

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58
Q

Forebrain parts

A

Limbic system

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59
Q

Limbic System

A

Plays an important role in memory, motivation and emotion

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60
Q

Hippocampus

A

Storage of memories

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61
Q

Thalamus

A

Relay station between sensory input and the cortex

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62
Q

Hypothalamus

A

Regulates eating, drinking, aggression, body temperature, endocrine system
Homeostasis
Hormones

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63
Q

Basal Ganglia

A

Responsible for motor behavior, some memory and emotional expression

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64
Q

Corpus Callosum

A

Connects the hemisphere

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65
Q

Damage to the thalamus would most likely result in which of the following?
Abnormal emotional behavior
Loss of some sensation
Abnormal hormone release
Difficulty in distinguishing between two rhythms

A

Loss of some sensation

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66
Q

An impairment of eating, drinking, temperature regulation, or sexual behavior suggests possible damage to which brain structure?
Midbrain
Hippocampus
Cerebellum
Hypothalamus

A

Hypothalamus

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67
Q

An individual has difficulty remembering anything recent after brain damage, but all memories stored before the damage are intact. The brain area damaged may be the:
Hypothalamus
Hippocampus
Amygdala
Corpus Callosum

A

Hippocampus

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68
Q

Damage to the right parietal cortex results in which of the following?
Loss of muscle tone
Impaired attention
Cortical blindness
Deafness

A

Impaired attention

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69
Q

Homosygous

A

Identical genes
BB
bb

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70
Q

Heterozygous

A

Different genes
Bb

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71
Q

Sex-linked

A

Carried on the X or Y chromosome

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72
Q

Color vision deficiency is more common in males than in females because it is controlled by a:
Sex-limited gene
Y-linked gene
Dominant X-linked gene
Recessive X-linked gene

A

Recessive X-linked gene

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73
Q

On a given trait, high heritability suggests that:
- Adopted children will closely resemble their biological parents
- Adopted children will closely resemble their adoptive parents
- Identical twins will be more similar to each other than adopted siblings
- Fraternal twins will be more similar to each other than identical twins

A

1 and 3

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74
Q

The critical component of evolution is
Natural selection
Artificial selection
Reproduction
Mutations

A

Reproduction

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75
Q

Development of the brain (5)

A

Proliferation
Migration
Differentiation
Myelination
Synaptogenesis

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76
Q

Proliferation

A
  • Production of new cells along lining the ventricles
  • 28 weeks
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77
Q

Differentiation

A
  • Become neurons or glia
  • Start to become different from each other
  • Formation of axon and dendrites
  • Happens after proliferation and during migration
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78
Q

Migration

A
  • Prior to birth
  • Radial glial
  • Guided by chemicals
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79
Q

Synaptogenesis

A
  • Formation of synapses
  • Occurs throughout life, but slows with aging
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80
Q

Myelination

A
  • Speeds up the transmission of neural impulses
  • occurs gradually for decades
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81
Q

The stages of neural development that occur for the longest duration are:
Myelination and synaptogenesis
Proliferation and myelination
Migration and proliferation
Differentiation and migration

A

Myelination and synaptogenesis

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82
Q

Apoptosis

A

Programmed cell death

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83
Q

Why is it that all neurons in a healthy adult brain have made appropriate connections?
Chemical messages from our muscles tell our brain how many neurons to form, and that number perfectly matches the connections required.
We are born with all connections formed.
Connections form rapidly, but we learn to use whatever connections have formed
If an axon does not make the appropriate connections by a certain age, it dies

A

If an axon does not make the appropriate connections by a certain age, it dies

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84
Q

Increasing the rate of apoptosis would promote
The activity of neurons
The survival and growth of the axon
The survival and growth of dendrites
Thinning of the cortex

A

Thinning of the cortex

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85
Q

At later stages of the neuron’s development, neurotrophins:
Increase the branching of axons and dendrites
Cause the neuron’s death
Act as neurotransmitters
Decrease differentiation

A

Increase the branching of axons and dendrites

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86
Q

Synaesthesia

A

Mixing of sense
- Hear colors
- See sounds

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87
Q

Competition of neurons for postsynaptic sites results in the survival of only the most successful axons. This general principle is called
Natural selection
Evolution
Apoptosis
Neural Darwinism

A

Neural Darwinism

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88
Q

The primary problem with focal hand dystonia is:
Loss of touch receptors
Cortical reorganization
Loss of motor neurons
Too much rock and roll

A

Cortical reorganization

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89
Q

Stroke

A

Ischemia
- Blood clot
- Prevents blood from flowing
- Lack of oxygen from teh blood clot

Hemorrhage
- Rupture of a blood vessel

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90
Q

Immediate consequences of stroke

A

Edema (swelling)
Impaired Sodium Potassium pump

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91
Q

Giving a drug that breaks up blood clots would be helpful for:
Ischemic stroke
Hemorrhagic stroke
Both

A

Ischemic stroke

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92
Q

Which of the following would be the best treatment for helping someone who is suffering from a stroke caused by a blood clot?
Decrease activity of the sodium-potassium pump
Warm the brain
Administer tPA
Enhance glutamate release

A

Administer tPA

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93
Q

Diaschisis

A

Decreased activity of surviving neurons after damage to other neurons

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94
Q

If some of the axons innervating a given cell are destroyed of if they become inactive, what compensatory process takes place in the remaining presynaptic cells?
Collateral sprouting
Activation of previously silent synapses
Denervation supersensitivity
Release of neurotrophins

A

Collateral sprouting

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95
Q

If some axons innervating a given cell are destroyed of they become inactive, what compensatory process takes place in the remaining postsynaptic cell?
Collateral sprouting
Activation of previously silent synapses
Denervation supersensitivity
Glial cell activation

A

Denervation supersensitivity

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96
Q

Your left and right hands are amputated and during the reattachment process, get switched. Like in a salamander, the sensory nerves of each arm regrow completely to the “new” hands. What is the most likely result?
- You’ll start typing with your arms crossed
- The sensations from the new left and right hand will be switched
- Most people would become “left-handed”
- Nothing, other than your thumbs point laterally instead of medially

A

Nothing, other than your thumbs point laterally instead of medially

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97
Q

Sleep is a time when your body and brain shut down for rest and relaxation
True
False

A

False

98
Q

If you regularly doze off unintentionally during the day, you may need more than just a good night’s sleep
True
False

A

True

99
Q

If you snore loudly and persistently at night and are sleepy during the day, you may have a sleep disorder
True
False

A

True

100
Q

Opening the car window or turning the radio up will keep the drowsy driver awake
True
False

A

False

101
Q

The body has a natural ability to adjust to different sleep schedules, such as working different shifts or traveling through multiple time zones quickly
True
False

A

False

102
Q

Circannual rhythm

A

Every year
Mating season

103
Q

Circadian rhythm

A
  • Every day
  • Human circadian rhythm is slightly longer than 24 hours
  • Blood pressure, appetite, body temperature
104
Q

What would happen if you damage the SCN?
Always asleep
Always awake
Random sleep patterns

A

Random sleep patterns

105
Q

Evidence that blind or deaf animals continue to have nearly normal circadian rhythms suggests that:
Circadian rhythms are generated internally
Hearing and vision normally regulate the circadian rhythm
Circadian rhythms are generated from environmental stimuli
Vision and hearing are necessary for sleep

A

Circadian rhythms are generated internally

106
Q

The circadian rhythm is reset by input from special ganglion cells in the retina. These ganglion cells are unusual in that they:
Receive input from only cones, not rods
They are located only in a doughnut-shaped band surrounding the fovea
Respond directly to light, but respond very slowly
Become active only at night or in very dim light

A

Respond directly to light, but respond very slowly

107
Q

Stages of Sleep

A

Non-REM sleep
Stage 2
Stage 3 and 4
REM sleep

108
Q

Non-REM sleep

A

Alpha waves

109
Q

Stage 2 of sleep

A

-Contains sleep spindle
- K-complex
Big wave

110
Q

Stage 3 and 4 of sleep

A
  • Slow wave sleep
  • Deeper sleep
  • Delta waves
111
Q

REM sleep

A
  • Resembles stage 1 non-REM
  • Eyes move around
  • Easy to be awoken
112
Q

With each succeeding stage of non-REM sleep (from 1 to 4):
Brain waves become smaller
Breathing and heart rate increase
Brain activity increases
Slow,large-amplitude waves increase in number

A

Slow,large-amplitude waves increase in number

113
Q

EEG waves are larger when brain activity decreases because:
The EEG measures muscle tension, which also decreases
Neurons are becoming more synchronized
Neurons are becoming more desynchronized
Blood flow is increasing

A

Neurons are becoming more synchronized

114
Q

In which part of the night are you most likely to catch someone in slow-wave sleep?
Right after falling asleep
The first half of the night
The second half of the night
Anytime during the sleep cycle

A

The first half of the night

115
Q

Large EEG waves are known as ___ waves and are prominent during stages ____ of Non-REM sleep
Alpha, 1-2
Delta, 3-4
Alpha, 3-4

A

Delta 3-4

116
Q

Dreams occur in
SWS sleep
Non-REM sleep
REM sleep
All of the above

A

All of the above

117
Q

Periodic limb movement disorder

A

Mostly during non-REM

118
Q

REM behavior disorder

A

Ability to move during REM
Pons are damaged

119
Q

Nightmare

A

REM sleep

120
Q

Night terror

A

Non-REM sleep

121
Q

Somnambulism

A
  • Occurs during the deepest stages of non-REM sleep
  • Sleep driving
  • Sleep walking
122
Q

Sleep talking

A

Occurs about as often in REM and non-REM sleep

123
Q

Alpha waves are characteristic of what type of activity?
NREM sleep
Nightmares
Relaxed wakefulness
Great excitement

A

Relaxed wakefulness

124
Q

Orexin, produced by neurons in the hypothalamus, appears to be necessary for:
Getting to sleep
Waking up
Raising body temp
Staying awake

A

Staying awake

125
Q

Functions of sleep

A
  • Energy conservation
  • Hibernation
  • Sleep and memory
126
Q

T/F Night terrors occur during NREM sleep

A

True

127
Q

Dreams only occur during REM sleep
True
False

A

False

128
Q

PGO waves are associated with which of the following?
Relaxation during wakefulness
NREM sleep
Being awakened from REM sleep
REM sleep

A

REM sleep

129
Q

On which of the following activities do you expend most of your calories?
Physical activity
Brain activity
Video games
Studying biopsych
Basal metabolism

A

Basal metabolism

130
Q

Allostasis

A

Adaptive changes in set points

131
Q

Endothermic

A

Use physiological mechanisms to maintain an almost constant body temperature

132
Q

Ectothermic

A

Unable to regulate their body’s temperature using physiological mechanisms

133
Q

Ways to warm up

A
  • Seeking a warm place
  • Shivering
  • Goosebumps
134
Q

Ways to cool down

A
  • Seeking a cool place
  • Sweating
135
Q

Direct cooling of the POA/AH will result in sweating
True, for sure
True, maybe
False, maybe
False, for sure

A

Fasle for sure

136
Q

Damage to the POA/AH will cause:
Constantly cold
Constantly hot
No preference for temperature
None of these

A

None of these

137
Q

Ibuprofen inhibits the production of prostaglandins, resulting in:
Shivering
Sweating
Shift in temperature set point

A

Shift in temperature set point

138
Q

Direct heating of the POA/AH will result in sweating
True, for sure
True, maybe
False, maybe
False, for sure

A

True for sure

139
Q

Total water in body

A

70%
Most in the cells
1/3 outside of cell

140
Q

Lose H2O by

A
  • Eliminating waste
  • Sweating
  • Evaporation from lungs
141
Q

Gain H2O by

A
  • Drinking
  • Eating
142
Q

Osmotic Pressure

A

Water will always move to where there is more salt

143
Q

Osmotic Thirst

A

Need slat in the body

144
Q

Osmotic Thirst Detection

A

OVLT and SFO
- Detects osmotic pressure of blood
When neurons in OVLT shrink, increase the rate of action potential

145
Q

Osmotic Thirst Correction

A

OVLT and SFO send signals to the hypothalamus to stimulate
- Dinking
- Vasopressin
Released from posterior pituitary
Constricts blood vessels
Reduces urine output

146
Q

Diabetes Insupidus

A

Lack sufficient vasopressin production

147
Q

What is the cause of osmotic thirst?
Increased concentration of solutes in the blood
Dryness of the throat
Low blood volume
Too much diet coke

A

Increased concentration of solutes in the blood

148
Q

Osmotic thirst would best be relieved by drinking:
Salt water
Gatorade
Alcohol
Plain water
Milk

A

Plain water

149
Q

Suppose you must cross the Sahara desert on foot, causing you to sweat. Which of the following would be an adaptive physiological response?
- Increase release of renin
- Increase release of vasopressin
- Decrease release of aldosterone
- Increase activity in OVLT
- Block A-II receptors

A

Increase release of renin
Increase release of vasopressin
Increase activity in OVLT

150
Q

After exercising, which of the following would you most likely crave?
Plain water
Salty snacks
Salty snacks and water
A blood transfusion

A

Salty snacks and water

151
Q

Why do slugs shrivel up when you salt them?
Its a natural defense mechanism
The salt draws out the water
They’re easier to eat that way

A

The salt draws out the water

152
Q

Vasopressin causes a ___ in blood pressure and ____ in urination
Increase/Increase
Increase/Decrease
Decrease/Decrease
Decrease/Increase

A

Increase/Decrease

153
Q

Aldosterone levels will rise:
After sweating
When you’re cold
Before a meal
After cutting off your leg

A

After sweating

154
Q

What do sleep, temperature regulation, and thirst have in common?
Motivated behaviors
Involve the hypothalamus
Homeostasis
Circadian rhythms
All of the above

A

All of the above

155
Q

Osmotic thirst results from ___; while hypovolemic thirst results from ___.
Coke ; Pepsi
Pepsi; Coke
Increase solute concentration in the blood; low blood volume
Low blood volume; Increased solute concentration in the blood

A

Increased solute concentration in the blood; low blood volume

156
Q

Short term regulation of feeding

A

Duodenum
- Detects nutrient content
Release CCK
Glucose

157
Q

Short term regulation of feeding: hormones

A

Insulin
- Assists glucose entering cells
- High or low levels can signal hunger
Glucagon
- Stimulates liver to convert glycogen to glucose

158
Q

Long term regulation of feeding

A

Leptin
- Produced by fat cells
- Reduces appetite

159
Q

GI181771Xis a potent CCK agonist. Which of the following effects will occur after taking the drug?
Become hungry
Feel full
Get thirsty
Duodenum will shrink

A

Feel full

160
Q

In which of the following ways does CCK limits meal size?
- Decreases rate of stomach emptying
- Speeds up the digestive processes in the intestines
- Increases the rate at which glucose enters the cells of the body
- Facilitates the emptying of the stomach
- Stimulates vagus nerve

A

1 and 5

161
Q

Injections of leptin would reduce eating in non-overweight rats
True
False

A

True

162
Q

Ventromedial hypothalamus (VMH)

A

Lesions lead to weight gain
Eat more frequently than normal

163
Q

Lateral Hypothalamus (LH)

A

Outputs regulate
- Taste sensations
- Ingestion, swallowing, digestion
- Responsiveness to food cues
- Insulin secretion

164
Q

An increase in the size of meals is most likely to occur following damage to which area of the hypothalamus?
Lateral
Paraventricular
Ventromedial
Preoptic

A

Paraventricular

165
Q

Which of the following hormones is most likely to have an effect opposite that of leptin?
Ghrelin
CCK
Insulin

A

Ghrelin

166
Q

Which of the following will increase feeding behavior?
Decrease Leptin
Stimulate LH
Damage VMH
Chronically high insulin
Inhibit PVN
Decrease CCK

A

All of the above

167
Q

Ghrelin

A

Hunger signal

168
Q

Leptin

A

Long-term satiety signal

169
Q

Insulin

A

Intermediate-term satiety signal

170
Q

CCK

A

Short-term satiety signal

171
Q

During a flood, a freshwater lake meets a salty ocean. When they first begin to mix together, salt molecules will tend to move:

A

To areas of their lowest concentration (the lake)

172
Q

Much like a battery, the small differences in voltage between the inside and the outside of a neuron, when it’s not firing is known as the:

A

Resting potential

173
Q

What happens to the ion gats when the membrane of a neuron start to be depolarized?

A

Sodium gates open

174
Q

The maximum rate at which neurons can fire is dependent upon their:

A

Refractory period

175
Q

Outside of the CNS, ___ forms the myelin sheath on axons

A

Schwann cells

176
Q

What movement of ions quickly repolarizes a neuron’s membrane after the peak of the action potential?

A

Potassium ions leave the cell

177
Q

The ends of axons that branch out to form connections with subsequent neurons or muscle cells are known as:

A

Presynaptic terminals

178
Q

Suppose we applied a drug to a motor neuron that prevented its sodium gaters from opening. What would happen?

A

The corresponding muscle would be paralyzed

179
Q

Glial cells are thought to perform each of the following functions, except:
- Synthesizing neurotransmitters
- Removing pathogens and waste materials
- Guiding the growth of neurons
- Building myelin sheaths

A

Synthesizing neurotransmitters

180
Q

The primary difference between methylphenidate (Ritalin) and cocaine is that Ritalin:
- Increases metabolic rate whereas cocaine decreases it
- Produces the same effects, but more slowly
- Inhibits receptors that cocaine excites
- Attaches to a different set of receptors

A

Produces the same effects, but more slowly

181
Q

The peripheral nervous system is made up of ___ and ___ nervous systems

A

Somatic; autonomic

182
Q

After a disc ruptures in the spine, it can pinch a ventral root of the spinal cord leading to problems with:

A

Control of organs in the affected body area

183
Q

Which brain structure provides the main source of sensory input to the cerebral cortex?

A

Thalamus

184
Q

Damage to the thalamus would most likely result in:
- Abnormal emotional behavior
- Abnormal hormone release
- Difficulty in distinguishing between two rhythms
- Loss of sensory input to the cortex

A

Loss of sensory input to the cortex

185
Q

Experiencing a change in appetite, inability to regulate body temperature, or a change in the level of sexual activity suggests possible damage to which brain structure?

A

Hypothalamus

186
Q

Damage to which hindbrain structure would be most life-threatening?

A

Medulla

187
Q

Localization of function in the brain can lead people to mistakenly believe that:

A

Each part of the brain is involved in just one or two things

188
Q

Which of the following brain imaging methods would work best for determining if the volume of the corpus callous is associated with a person’s ability to learn a second language?

A

MRI

189
Q

T/F
Male and females both have testosterone and estradiol

A

True

190
Q

T/F
Testosterone and estradiol have nearly identical chemical structures

A

True

191
Q

T/F
All fetuses have undifferentiated gonads that can develop into ovaries or testes

A

True

192
Q

T/F
All fetuses start with both male and female internal reproductive systems

A

True

193
Q

T/F
Fetal genital tissue can develop into male or female external genitalia

A

True

194
Q

T/F
Genetic sex depends on hormones

A

False

195
Q

T/F
Nature’s default setting is female

A

True

196
Q

Female sexual development

A

Gonads
- Turn to ovaries
Mullerian Ducts
- Fallopian tubes
- Uterus
Wolffish Ducts
- Will not develop
External Genitalia
- Labia
- Clitoris

197
Q

T/F Genetic male and female fetus have the same reproductive systems

A

True

198
Q

Male Sexual Development

A

Gonads
- Testes
Mullein ducts
- Will not develop
- MIH stops (defeminization)
Wolffian ducts

199
Q

MIH is necessary for:

A

Defeminization

200
Q

What would cause a young mammals external genitals to have an appearance intermediate between a male and a female?

High levels of both testosterone and estrogen in a genetic male
Extra estrogen production in a genetic male
More testosterone than other females in a genetic female
Typical levels of estrogen in a genetic female

A
201
Q

___ determines if the gonad develops as a testis or ovary
-MIH
- Testosterone
- Estrogen
- Y Chromosome
- X chromosome

A

Y chromosome

202
Q

How does an evolutionary explanation differ from a functional explanation?

A

The evolutionary explanation states what evolved from what. The functional explanation states why something was advantageous and therefore favored by nature

203
Q

Describe the reasons biological psychologists conduct much of their research on nonhuman animals.

A
  • Study animals to understand humans
  • Certain procedures that could be important are illegal or unethical to do to humans
204
Q

How does the minimalist position differ from the abolitionist position?

A
  • Minimalist: limit animal research
  • Abolitionist: Eliminate all animal research
205
Q

Monism

A

The idea that the mind is made of the same substance as the rest of the universe

206
Q

What is the long, thin structure that carries information to another cell called?

A

Axon

207
Q

Compared to other neurons, would an interneuron’s axon be relatively long, short, or about the same?

A

Because an interneuron is contained entirely within one part of the brain, its axon is short

208
Q

What can trigger both an EPSP and a full action potential?

A

Sodium ions entering the cell

209
Q

After damage to presynaptic terminals, what process takes place in the remaining presynaptic cells?

A

Collateral Sprouting

210
Q

A genetic mutation in the per gene of some humans with Familial Advanced Sleep Phase Syndrome is likely to:
- Make them always sleepy
- Disrupt their sensitivity to light
- Phase-advance their rhythms
- Lead to high melatonin levels

A

Phase-advance their rhythms

211
Q

The adaptive responses to even small temperature changes is detected in the brain by the:
- Parietal cortex
- Preoptic area of the hypothalamus
- Cerebellum
- Pineal body

A

Preoptic area of the hypothalamus

212
Q

The force that results from water moving across a semipermeable membrane from an area of low osmolarity to higher osmolarity is known as what?

A

Osmotic pressure

213
Q

Absorption of digested food occurs primarily in the:

A

Small intestine

214
Q

If you want to eat less by eating smaller meals and still feel full, the most effective option would be:
- Infuse CCK into the bloodstream
- Write down your calories
- Eat a larger breakfast
- Eat meals faster

A

A

215
Q

Blood glucose levels remain fairly constant throughout the day because:
- The liver can convert stored nutrients into glucose
- Manufacturing glucose is a lengthy process, so the body uses it slowly
- We are constantly eating
- Glucose does not leave the blood to enter the cells of the body

A

A

216
Q

The ventromedial hypothalamus has historically been viewed as the satiety center of the brain because damaging it often leads to:
- Slow digestion
- Overeating and weight gain
- Low levels of CCK
- Loss of appetite

A

B

217
Q

Circadian rhythms are regulated by the proteins Per and TIm as they

A

Increase during the day and decrease at night

218
Q

It takes several minutes before the brain can detect changes in osmolarity after drinking water, so we must rely on which of the following cues to use when to stop drinking?

A

Stretch receptors in teh stomach

219
Q

Giving leptin would be most advantegous for which of the following:
- Obese people who fail to produce leptin
- Obese people with faulty leptin receptors
- Anorexic patients
- Normal obese people

A

A

220
Q

You pet rat has a tumor in its hypothalamus that ahs damaged the periventricular nucleus (PVN). You rat will most likely eat:
- More frequent meals
- Only extremely tasty foods
- Smaller meals
-Larger meals

A

Larger meals

221
Q

A graded potential differs from an actio potential in that the graded potential:

A

Decreases in intensity over time and space

222
Q

Second messengers affect intracellular processes in the:

A

Postsynaptic cell

223
Q

Appetite is suppressed when teh duodenum releases

A

CCK

224
Q

After hours of fasting for religious purposes, the hormone ___ will trigger the liver to convert ___ to __

A

Glucagon
Glycogen
Glucose

225
Q

The accurate nucleus has outputs to the ___, which affects meal size

A

Paraventricular nucleus

226
Q

Temporary high levels of insulin will lead to:
- Suppressed release of CCK
- Increased rates of glucose entry into the cells
- Depletion of fat supplies
- Conversion of fat stores into gluscose

A

B

227
Q

Chemokines and other chemicals are important during development for neural:
- Synaptogenesis
- Apoptosis
- Proliferation
- Migration

A

Migration

228
Q

In mammals, the determining factor in sexual development of the external genitalia is the amount of:

A

Testosterone

229
Q

The uterus and seminal vesicles develop from ___, while the penis and clitoris develop from ___.

A

Separate structure; the same tissue

230
Q

Where can you find the sexually dimorphic nucleus?

A

Anterior hypothalamus

231
Q

The sexually dimorphic nucleus is:

A

Larger in males than in females

232
Q

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia results from ___ produced by the ___

A

Excessive androgens; adrenal gland

233
Q

One of the largest influences on male sexual orientation is the number of:

A

Older brothers

234
Q

Which part of the neuron are you most likely to find the highest concentration of neurotransmitters?

A

Presynaptic terminals

235
Q

XY typical sexual development

A

Gonad -> testes
Mullerian -> regressed
Wolffian -> developed
External genitalia -> Male

236
Q

XX typical sexual development

A

Gonad -> ovary
Mullerian -> developed
Wolffian -> regressed
External genitalia -> female

237
Q

XX CAH sexual development

A

Gonad -> Ovary
Mullerian -> Developed
Wolffian -> regressed
External genitalia -> Intermediate

238
Q

XY Androgen insensitivity

A

Gonad -> Testes
Mullerian -> Regressed
Wolffian -> Regressed
External genitalia -> female

239
Q

XY deficient 5a reductase

A

Gonad -> Testes
Mullerian -> Regressed
Wolffian -> Developed
External genitalia -> Female to male at puberty

240
Q

Sex limited

A

More in one gender than the other

EIU (5 decks)

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