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EIU > Bio Final pt2 > Flashcards

Bio Final pt2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the four major structures that compose a neuron?

A

Dendrite, soma, axon, and presynaptic terminal

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2
Q

What kind of glial cell wraps around the synaptic terminals of axons?

A

Astrocytes

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3
Q

Which chemicals cross the BBB passively?

A

Uncharged molecules
- Oxygen, CO2, H20
- Fat soluble chemicals

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4
Q

Which chemicals cross the BBB by active transport? (6)

A

Glucose, amino acids, purines, choline, certain vitamins, iron

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5
Q

Santiago Ramon y Cajal were responsible for what discovery?

A

The nervous system is composed of separate cells

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6
Q

Which part of a neuron has its own genes, separate from those of the nucleus?

A

Mitochondria

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7
Q

What is most distinctive about neurons compared to other cells?

A

Their shape

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8
Q

What do dendritic spines do?

A

They increase the surface area available for synapses

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9
Q

What does an efferent axon do?

A

It carries output from a structure

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10
Q

What do astrocytes do?

A

Synchronize activity for a group of neruons

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11
Q

What does the microglia do?

A

Microglia removes dead cells and weak synapses

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12
Q

Which of these can easily cross the BBB?
- Fat-soluble molecules
- Chemotherapy drugs
- Proteins
- Viruses

A

A

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13
Q

What is the brain’s main source of fuel?

A

Glucose

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14
Q

For the brain to use its main source of fuel, what does it also need?

A

Thiamine

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15
Q

When the membrane is at rest, are the sodium ions more concentrated inside the cell or outside? Where are the potassium ions more concentrated?

A

Sodium ions are more concentrated outside the cell.
Potassium ions are more concentrated inside the cell

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16
Q

When the membrane is at rest, what tends to drive the potassium ions out of the cell? What tends to draw them into the cell?

A

The concentration gradient drives potassium out of the cell.
Electrical gradient and sodium-potassium pump draws them into the cell.

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17
Q

What is the difference between a hyperpolarization and a depolarization?

A

Hyperpolarization - a more negative level than usual. Exaggeration of the usual negative charge within the cell
Depolarization is a decrease in the amount of negative charge within the cell

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18
Q

What happens if the depolarization does or does not reach the threshold?

A

If it passes the threshold it produces an action potential.
If it does not pass threshold there are no action potentials

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19
Q

Does the all or none law apply to dendrites? Why or why not?

A

Does not apply to dendrites because they do not have action potentials

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20
Q

During the rise of the action potential, do sodium ions move into the cell or out of it? Why?

A

Move into the cell. Sodium is attracted to the inside of the cell by both an electrical and a concentration gradient

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21
Q

As the membrane reaches the peak of the action potential, what brings the membrane down to the original resting potential?

A

The potassium ions exit the cell, driving the membrane back to the resting potential

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22
Q

In a myelinated axon, how would the action potential be affected if the nodes were much closer together? How might it be affected if the nodes were much father apart?

A

If the nodes were closer the action potential would be slower. If they were further apart they would be faster.

If they are too far apart the action potential can’t reach so it would stop.

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23
Q

Under what conditions does an axon produce an action potential?

A

Whenever the membrane’s potential reaches the threshold

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24
Q

If a membrane is depolarized to twice its threshold, what happens?

A

The neuron produces the same action potential it would at the threshold

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25
Q

To which part or parts of a neuron does the all-or-none law apply?

A

Axons

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26
Q

During the rising portion of the action potential, which ions are moving across the membrane and in which direction?

A

Sodium ions move in

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27
Q

After the action potential reaches its peak, the potential across the membrane falls toward its resting level. What accounts for this recovery?

A

Potassium ions move out because their channels re open and the concentration gradient pushing them out

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28
Q

What does the myelin sheath of an axon accomplish?

A

It enable action potentials to travel more rapidly

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29
Q

What causes the refractory period of an axon?

A

The sodium channels are closed

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30
Q

What is the difference between temporal summation and spatial summation?

A

Temporal summation is the combined effect of quickly repeated stimulation at a sign synapse

Spatial summation is the combined effect of several nearly simultaneous stimulations at several synapses onto one neuron

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31
Q

What ion gates in the membrane open during an EPSP? What gates open during an IPSP?

A

During EPSP, sodium gates open

IPSP potassium or chloride gates open

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32
Q

Can an inhibitory message flow along an axon?

A

No, only action potentials propagate along an axon. Inhibitory messages -IPSPs- decay over time and distance

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33
Q

According to Sherrington, why do the extensor muscles of a leg relax when the flexor muscles contract?

A

Inhibitory connections in the spinal cord

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34
Q

In what way were Sherrington’s conclusions important for psychology as well as neuroscience?

A

He demonstrated the importance of inhibition

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35
Q

What was Loewi’s evidence that neurotransmission depends on the release of chemicals?

A

Frogs heart rate

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36
Q

Blood flow increases to the most active brain areas. How does the blood know which areas are the most active?

A

In a highly active brain area, many stimulated neurons release nitric oxide, which dilates the blood vessels in the area and thereby makes it easier for blood to flow to the area

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37
Q

Name the three catecholamine neurotransmitters.

A

Epinephrine
Norepinephrine
Dopamine

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38
Q

When the action potential reaches the presynaptic terminal, which ion must enter the presynaptic terminal to evoke the release of the neurotransmitter?

A

Calcium

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39
Q

How do ionotropic and metabotropic synapses differ in speed and duration of effects?

A

Ionotropic synapses act more quickly and more briefly

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40
Q

How do LSD, nicotine, and opiate drugs influence behavior?

A

LSD binds to one type of serotonin receptor. Nicotine binds to one type of acetylcholine receptor, Opiates bind to endorphin receptors

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41
Q

How do amphetamine and cocaine influence synapses?

A

They block reuptake of released dopamine, serotonin and norepinephrine

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42
Q

Why is methylphenidate generally less disruptive to behavior than cocaine is despite the drugs’ similar mechanisms?

A

It develops and declines in the brain much more slowly than do those of cocaine

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43
Q

How do cannabinoids affect neurons?

A

They inhibit further release of both glutamate and GABA

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44
Q

Which of the following is not one of the brain’s neurotransmitters?
- Glutamate
- GABA
- Glucose
- Serotonin

A

C

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45
Q

Which of these is not a catecholamine?
- Serotonin
- Dopamine
- Norepinephrine
- Acetylcholine

A

D

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46
Q

Suppose you want to cause the presynaptic terminal of an axon to release its transmitter. How could you do so without an action potential?

A

Inject calcium into the presynaptic terminal

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47
Q

Which type of synapse is better suited for vision and hearing, and why?

A

Ionotropic synapses because they produce quick, brief effects

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48
Q

What is the most abundant excitatory ionotropic neurotransmitter?

A

Glutamate

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49
Q

What process is the serotonin transporter responsible for?

A

Reuptake

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50
Q

Except for the magnitude and speed of effects, methylphenidate (Ritalin) affects synapses the same way as which other drug?

A

Cocaine

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51
Q

In what way do cannabinoids differ from other drugs that affect the nervous system?

A

Cannabinoids act on the presynaptic neuron

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52
Q

What does ventral mean, and what is its opposite?

A

Ventral means toward the stomach side.
Opposite is dorsal

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53
Q

What term means toward the midline, and what is its opposite?

A

Midline is medial
Opposite is lateral

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54
Q

The bulges in the cerebral cortex are called ___. The grooves between them are called___.

A

Gyri; sucli

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55
Q

Motor nerves leave from which side of the spinal cord, dorsal or ventral

A

Ventral

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56
Q

Which functions are controlled by the sympathetic nervous system?

A

Fight or flight response

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57
Q

What makes up the hindbrain? (3)

A

Cerebellum, medulla, and pons

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58
Q

What makes up the forebrain? (5)

A

Basal Ganglia
Hippocampus
Hypothalamus
Pituitary
Thalamus

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59
Q

Which area is the main source of input to the cerebral cortex?

A

Thalamus

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60
Q

If two structures are both on the left side, or both on the right, what is their relationship?

A

Ipsilateral

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61
Q

What is the function of the dorsal roots of the spinal cord?

A

They receive sensory input

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62
Q

Which of these controls breathing, heart rate, and salivation?
- Hippocampus
- Cranial Nerves
- Basal Ganglia
- Pituitary gland

A

Cranial Nerves

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63
Q

What do the ventricles contain?

A

Cerebrospinal fluid

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64
Q

If several neurons of the visual cortex all respond best when the retina is exposed to horizontal lines of light, then those neurons are probably in the same

A

Column

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65
Q

Which lobe of the cerebral cortex includes the primary auditory cortex?

A

Temporal

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66
Q

Which lobe includes the primary somatosensory cortex?

A

Parietal

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67
Q

Which lobe includes the primary visual cortex?

A

Occipital

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68
Q

Which lobe includes the primary motor cortex?

A

Frontal

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69
Q

What are the functions of the prefrontal cortex?

A

-Movement
- Working memory, cognitive control, and emotion
- Decision making

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70
Q

What is the main way in which mammalian species vary in their cerebral cortex?

A

Brains differ in their size and degree of folding

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71
Q

What is the relationship between columns and laminae in the cerebral cortex?

A

Each column crosses through one lamina after another

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72
Q

What is the binding problem?

A

The question of how we perceive separate sensations as part of a single object

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73
Q

What is the difference between a lesion and an ablation?

A

A lesion is a damage to a structure.

Ablation is the removal of a structure

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74
Q

What does fMRI measure?

A

Increase in blood flow to a brain area

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75
Q

What are the similarities and differences between MRI and fMRI?

A

Both measure the responses of brain chemicals to a magnetic field. MRI shows the anatomy of the brain. fMRI shows which brain areas are most active at the moment

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76
Q

What does the ontogenetic technique enable researchers to test?

A

The function of a particular type of neuron

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77
Q

EEG and MEG are advantageous for measuring what?

A

Changes in brain activity over very short periods of time

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78
Q

How does a sex-linked gene differ from a sex-limited gene?

A

A sex-linked gene icon the X or Y chromosome. A sex-limited gene is on an autosomal chromosome, but activated in one sex more than the other.

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79
Q

How does an epigenetic change differ from a mutation?

A

A mutation is a permanent change in part of a chromosome.
An epigenetic change is an increase or decrease in the activity of a gene or group of genes

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80
Q

What does micro deletion remove?

A

Part of a chromosome

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81
Q

What is the difference between monozygotic (MZ) and dizygotic (DZ) twins?

A

MZ twins develop from a single egg, whereas DZ twins develop from two eggs

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82
Q

Why do human infants show a grasp reflex?

A

The reflex was advantageous to infants of our remote ancestors

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83
Q

Which comes first: migration, synaptogenesis, or myelination?

A

Migration

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84
Q

New receptor neurons form in which sensory system?

A

Olfaction

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85
Q

What was Sperry’s evidence that axons grow to a specific target instead of attaching at random?

A

If he cut a newt’s eye and inverted, axons grew back to their original targets, even though the connections were inappropriate to their new positions on the eye

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86
Q

What process assures that the spinal cord has the right number of axons to innervate all the muscle cells?

A

The nervous system builds more neurons than it needs and discards through apoptosis those that do not make lasting synapses

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87
Q

What class of chemicals prevents apoptosis in the sympathetic nervous system?

A

Neurotrophins, such as nerve growth factor

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88
Q

At what age does a person have the greatest number of neurons- early in life, during adolescence, or during adulthood?

A

Early in life

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89
Q

Which brain area shows expanded representation of the left hand in people who began practicing stringed instruments in childhood and continued for many years?

A

Somatosensory cortex (postcentral gyrus) of the right hemisphere

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90
Q

Why is immaturity of the prefrontal cortex not a satisfactory explanation for risky behaviors in adolescents?

A

As the teenage years progress, risky behavior tends to increase, even though the prefrontal cortex is becoming more mature

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91
Q

In early brain development, what is the relationship between the sensory systems and muscle movements?

A

The first muscle movements occur before the sensory systems develop

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92
Q

Is collateral sprouting a change in axons or dendrite receptors?

A

Axons

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93
Q

is denervation supersensitivity a change in axons or dendritic receptors?

A

Dendritic receptors

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94
Q

What are the two kinds of stroke, and what causes each kind?

A

Ischemia: Result of an occlusion of an artery.
Hemorrhage: Result of a ruptured artery

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95
Q

Why is tPA not helpful in cases of hemorrhage?

A

tPA breaks up blood clots, and hemorrhage results from a ruptured blood vessel, not a blood clot

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96
Q

What is responsible for the phantom limb experience?

A

Synapses that used to receive input from the now amputated part become vacant. Axons representing another part of the body take over those synapses. Now stimulation of this other part activates the synapses associated with the amputated area, but that stimulation feel like the amputated area

97
Q

A monkey that loses sensation from one arm stops using it, but a monkey that loses sensation from both arms does use them. Why?

A

A monkey that lost sensation in one arm is capable of moving it, but finds it easier to walk with the three intact limbs.
When both arms lose their sensations, the monkey is forced to rely on them

98
Q

What would be the purpose of giving a drug that stimulates dopamine receptors to a stroke patient?

A

To combat diaschisis

99
Q

In which species, if any, can axons regrow in the spinal cord?

A

Fish

100
Q

Where does denervation super sensitivity take place?

A

At synapses

101
Q

For most young adults, what happens to mood as a function of time of day?

A

Mood tends to be most pleasant in late afternoon or early evening

102
Q

What evidence most strongly indicates that the SCN produces the circadian rhythm itself?

A

SCN cells isolated from the body continue to produce a circadian rhythm

103
Q

Light can reset the SCN’s rhythm even after damage to all rods and cones. Why?

A

The SCN receives input from ganglion cells that respond to light

104
Q

If you want to get to sleep on time, what should you avoid?

A

Short wavelength light late in the evening

105
Q

When is melatonin mostly released?

A

At night, for all species

106
Q

What do large, slow waves on an EEG indicate?

A

Low level of activity, with much synchrony of response among neurons

107
Q

How can an investigator determine whether a sleeper is in REM sleep?

A

Examine EEG pattern and eye movements

108
Q

During which part of a night’s sleep is REM most common?

A

Toward the end of the night’s sleep

109
Q

Why do most antihistamines make people drowsy?

A

Block histamine which increases arousal

110
Q

What would happen to the sleep-wake schedule of someone who lack orexin?

A

Someone without orexin would alternate between brief periods of waking and sleeping

111
Q

What would happen to sleeping and waking if you took a drug that blocked GABA?

A

You would remain awake or at least somewhat conscious

112
Q

What is the relationship between orexin and narcolepsy?

A

Orexin is important for staying awake. Therefore, those lacking either orexin or receptors for orexin develop narcolepsy

113
Q

What kinds of people are most likely to develop sleep apnea?

A

Genetic predisposition, old people, overweight middle-aged men

114
Q

Of the following, which shows the least brain activity?
- Slow-wave sleep
- Coma
- Vegetative state
- Minimally conscious state

A

Coma

115
Q

What do high-amplitude slow waves of slow-wave sleep indicate?

A

Synchrony among neurons

116
Q

At which time, if any, is slow wave sleep most common?

A

Not immediately, but during the early part of the night’s sleep

117
Q

Why are people unconscious during slow-wave sleep?

A

Inhibitory transmitters block the spread of activity in the cortex

118
Q

What kinds of individuals get more REM sleep than others?

A

More in young than the old

119
Q

How do whales and dolphins get oxygen at night?

A

They sleep in just one hemisphere at a time

120
Q

Sleep often improves memory. How?

A

Certain synapses become weakened, enabling others to stand out by contrast

121
Q

According to the neurocognitive hypothesis, what are dreams?

A

Dreams are thing that occurs under unusual conditions

122
Q

How does allostasis differ from homeostasis?

A

Homeostasis keeps certain body variables within a fixed range by reacting to changes.
Allostasis acts in advance to prevent or minimize changes

123
Q

What is the primary advantage of maintaining a constant high body temperature?

A

Keeps an animal ready for rapid, prolonged muscle activity even in cold weather

124
Q

What are the sources of input to the POA/AH?
Preoptic anterior hypothalamus

A

Receives input from temperatures in the skin, the organs, and the hypothalamus.

125
Q

If you had damage to your POA/AH, what would happen to your body temperature?

A

You would be much less able to shiver, sweat, or control other physiological mechanisms that control body temperature.

126
Q

Well over half of the human body’s energy is devoted to what?

A

Basal Metabolism

127
Q

How do ectothermic animals regulate their body temperature, if at all?

A

They move to a location with a more favorable temperature

128
Q

What is an example of a ectothermic animal?

A

Snake

129
Q

When you have an infection, what causes the fever?

A

The immune system delivers prostaglandins and histamine to the hypothalamus

130
Q

If you lacked vasopressin, would you drink like a beaver or like a gerbil? Why?

A

Beaver. You would excrete much fluid, so you would need to drink an equal amount to replace it

131
Q

Would adding salt to the body’s extracellular fluids increase or decrease osmotic thirst?

A

Increase osmotic thirst. It would draw water from the cells in the extracellular spaces

132
Q

Why are you likely to feel thirst just before bedtime? Would you feel just as thirsty if you went to sleep at an unusual time?

A

You secrete vasopressin, which helps conserve water and also stimulates thirst.

133
Q

Who would drink more pure water - someone with osmotic thirst or someone with hypovolemic thirst?

A

Someone with osmotic thirst would drink more water.
Hypovolemic thirst would drink more of a solution containing salts

134
Q

What happens after you eat something salty?

A

Water flows out of the cells

135
Q

What does vasopressin do?

A

It decreases urination and increases thirst

136
Q

Why do you stop drinking before water reaches the cells that need it?

A

Drinking inhibits neurons responsible for thirst

137
Q

What is the most effective way to satisfy hypovolemic thirst?

A

Drink water containing salt or other solutes

138
Q

Why do most Southeast Asian adults avoid drinking much milk?

A

Most Southeast Asian adults lack the genes that help digest lactose, the main sugar in milk

139
Q

What evidence indicates that taste is not sufficient for satiety?

A

Animals that sham-feed chew and taste their food but do not become satiated

140
Q

Name three hormones that increase satiety and one that increases hunger.

A

Insulin, CCK, leptin
Ghrelin

141
Q

Which neuropeptide from the arcuate nucleus to the paraventricular nucleus is most important for satiety?

A

Melanocortin

142
Q

In what ways does the lateral hypothalamus facilitate feeding?

A

Improves taste, enhances cortical response to food, and increases secretions of insulin and digestive juices

143
Q

Why did the PIMA begin gaining weight in the mid-1900s?

A

They shifted from a diet of local plants that were seasonally available to a calorie-rich diet that is available throughout the year

144
Q

Which part of the body secretes CCK?

A

The duodenum

145
Q

What does insulin do?

A

It helps glucose enter cells

146
Q

Which part of the body secretes leptin?

A

The fat cells

147
Q

Which part of the brain is generally considered the master area for control of appetite?

A

The arcuate nucleus

148
Q

Which part of the body secretes ghrelin?

A

The stomach

149
Q

Cell bodies in the lateral hypothalamus are most important for what?

A

Eating

150
Q

Bulimia nervosa has been compared to what?

A

Drug addiction

151
Q

Temperature regulation is a likely explanation for which aspect of anorexia?

A

Increased exercise

152
Q

What does the SRY gene do?

A

Sex determining region on the Y chromosome.
Causes the undifferentiated gonad of a mammal to develop into a testis, which then produces testosterone and MIH

153
Q

How do sex hormones affect neurons?

A

Bind to receptors on the membrane, activate certain proteins in the cell’s cytoplasm, and activate or inactivate particular genes

154
Q

By what mechanisms does testosterone affect the hypothalamic areas responsible for sexual behavior?

A

Testosterone primes hypothalamic cells to be ready to release dopamine

155
Q

At what time in a woman’s menstrual cycle do her estradiol levels increase? When are they lowest?

A

Estradiol levels increase during the days leading up to the middle of menstrual cycle. They are lowest during and just after menstruation

156
Q

When is a woman most likely to act sexy and initiate sexual activity?

A

During the periovulatory period

157
Q

Why is it impossible to have both a penis and a clitoris?

A

Either one develops from the same embryonic structure

158
Q

What is the main difference between organizing effects and activating effects of hormones?

A

Organizing effects are long-lasting whereas activating effects are temporary

159
Q

Prenatal exposure to higher than average levels of testosterone produces what effect, if any, on girls?

A

It leads to higher than average interest in boys’ toys and activities

160
Q

When an antidepressant drug increases serotonin levels, which inhibits dopamine release, what happens to sexual behavior?

A

Decreased sexual arousal

161
Q

Compared to other men, what are the testosterone levels of married men?

A

Lower than average

162
Q

What does the combination pill for birth control contain?

A

Estradiol and progesterone

163
Q

Female sex drive depends on which hormone

A

Estradiol

164
Q

Vasopressin increases male mammals’ probability of which behavior?

A

Care for young

165
Q

When children who had been reared as girls reached puberty and grew a penis and scrotum, what happened to their gender identity?

A

Most changed their gender identity from female to male

166
Q

What is meant by the term sexual selection?

A

Evolution favors characteristics that make an individual more appealing to the opposite sex

167
Q

Cognitive adrenal hypertrophy results from a genetic disability to produce normal amounts of which hormone?

A

Cortisol

168
Q

After damage to the ventromedial prefrontal cortex, what happens to people’s moral reasoning and concern for others?

A

Become more likely to endorse the utilitarian option, even in situations where most people would find it emotionality unacceptable. They show decreased concern for others

169
Q

The parasympathetic nervous system is most active during which of the following?

A

Digesting food

170
Q

According to the James-Lange theory, feedback from the body’s actions is responsible for which aspect of emotion?

A

Feeling

171
Q

Which brain area is associated with the behavioral activation system and a tendency to approach?

A

The left hemisphere

172
Q

Damage to the ventromedial prefrontal cortex increases which tendency in making decisions?

A

More utilitarian choices

173
Q

What is the relationship between cortisol and aggressive behavior?

A

Cortisol tends to inhibit impulsive behaviors, including aggression

174
Q

What brain mechanism enables the startle reflex to be so fast?

A

Loud noises activate a path from the cochlea to cells in the pons that trigger a tensing of neck muscles

175
Q

Given that the amygdala becomes more active when an expression is harder to interpret, can you explain why it does not respond strongly to happy faces?

A

Smiling faces are easy to interpret

176
Q

Why do people with amygdala damage have trouble recognizing expressions of fear?

A

They focus their vision on the nose and mouth. Expressions of fear depend almost entirely on the eyes

177
Q

What would be the effect of benzodiazepines on someone who had no GABA?

A

A person without GABA would not respond to benzodiazepines

178
Q

Heritability of a tendency toward antisocial behavior is lowest for what?

A

People in impoverished neighborhoods

179
Q

How does the gene for the less active form of the enzyme MAO affect the probability for aggressive behavior?

A

Increased probability for someone who was abused in childhood

180
Q

Aggressive behavior correlates with low turnover of what neurotransmitter?

A

Dopamine

181
Q

Why do we know more about the brain mechanisms of fear and anxiety than we do about other emotions?

A

Researchers can more satisfactorily measure anxiety than other emotions in laboratory animals

182
Q

Research on the amygdala supports which of these psychological conclusions?

A

What we call fear is a combination of several components, not an indivisible entity

183
Q

What do benzodiazepines do?

A

They facilitate GABA synapses

184
Q

What function does cortisol play in the initial response to stress?

A

Cortisol increases blood levels of glucose and therefore makes more energy avaiable

185
Q

What kind of cell releases cytokines?

A

Leukocytes (white blood cells)

186
Q

What changes do prostaglandins stimulate?

A

Stimulate the hypothalamus to produce fever, decrease hunger, decrease sex drive, and increase sleepiness

187
Q

Which hormone does the alarm stage release, but the resistance stage does not?

A

Epinephrine

188
Q

How do the functions of the HPA axis compare to those of the sympathetic nervous system?

A

The sympathetic nervous system readies the body for brief, vigorous action, and the HPA axis prepares the body for prolonged coping with a persistent stressor

189
Q

How does McEwen’s definition of stress differ from Selye’s?

A

Selye’s definition applied equally to favorable or unfavorable events

190
Q

Which cells of the immune system secrete antibodies?

A

B cells only

191
Q

Why do nearly all infections produce similar symptoms, such as fever, sleepiness, and loss of energy?

A

The immune system sends prostaglandins to the brain, where they stimulate the hypothalamus to produce these effects

192
Q

What are the effects of stress on the immune system?

A

Brief stress activates the immune system, but prolonged stress weakens it

193
Q

Prolonged stress is known to damage which brain area?

A

The hippocampus

194
Q

What increases resilience?

A

Social support

195
Q

Is a drug with high affinity and low efficacy an agonist or an antagonist?

A

It is an antagonist because, by occupying the receptor, it blocks out the neurotransmitter

196
Q

What do drug use, sex, gambling, and video game playing have in common?

A

They increase the release of dopamine n the nucleus accumbens

197
Q

T/F CAH will cause noticeable effects on male fetuses

A

False

198
Q

T/F An individual with AIS will have a uterus

A

False

199
Q

How is it possible for a genetic male to have a uterus?
- It’s not possible
- Lack androgen receptors
- Fail to produce MIH
- Have an extra X chromosome

A

Fail to produce MIH

200
Q

Which of the following would probably develop with an intersex appearance?
- A genetic female deprived of her typical amount of estradiol during early development
- A genetic male exposed to more estradiol than typical during early development
- A genetic female exposed to more testosterone than typical during early development
- A genetic male exposed to a larger than typical amount of testosterone during early development

A

A genetic female exposed to more testosterone than typical during early development

201
Q

T/F a person can change their sexual orientation

A

True

202
Q

T/F There are obvious differences in the external anatomy of individuals who identify as gay or lesbian

A

False

203
Q

Most men who identify as gay have:
- Lower adult levels of testosterone
- Higher adult levels of testosterone
- Typical adult levels of testosterone
- Higher levels of estrogen

A

Typical adult levels of testosterone

204
Q

T/F According to the James-Lange theory of emotion, our physiological changes make a significant contribution to the intensity of our feelings

A

True

205
Q

The physiological arousal that accompanies the experience of an emotion is largely due to the activation of the:
- Sympathetic nervous system
- Parasympathetic nervous system
- Somatic nervous system

A

Sympathetic nervous system

206
Q

T/F The pattern of physiological reactions for each emotion is easily distinguishable by the person who is experiencing it

A

False

207
Q

Which of the following emotions is most likely to be localized to one brain area?
Happiness
Sadness
Disgust
Surprise
Aww

A

Disgust

208
Q

If a hamster in its home territory attacks an intruder, what will the hamster do if a second intruder arrives shortly after the first intruder leaves?
- Withdraw from the second intruder
- Attack the second intruder but less vigorously than the first
- Play with the second intruder
- Attack the second intruder quickly and vigorously

A

Attack the second intruder quickly and vigorously

209
Q

The concentration of 5-HIAA in the blood, cerebrospinal fluid, or urine provides an estimate of:
Serotonin synthesis
Serotonin stores
Serotonin reuptake
Serotonin turnover

A

Serotonin turnover

210
Q

A diet low in tryptophan will most likely lead to:
Increased aggression
Increased suicidal thoughts
Increased violent crime
All of the above

A

All of the above

211
Q

The amygdala seems to be most important for:
Fear and anger
Suicidal feelings
Happiness and sadness
A simple startle reflex

A

Fear and anger

212
Q

Across studies involving amygdala damage, the general conclusion seems to be that the amygdala is important for:
Focusing attention on emotional stimuli
Only the expression of emotion
Only for interpretation of emotion
The normal startle response

A

Focusing attention on emotional stimuli

213
Q

T/F Brief activation of the sympathetic nervous system can enhance activity of the immune system

A

True

214
Q

Which type of immune cell produces antibodies?
T cell
B cell
Macrophage
A cell

A

B Cell

215
Q

Chemicals released by the immune system that help coordinate the immune response and communicate with the brain to produce typical sickness behaviors are:
Macrophages
Cytokines
Natural killer cells
Cytotoxic cells

A

Cytokines

216
Q

Aged people with the highest cortisol levels tend to be those with the:
Most cellulose in the diet
Largest hippocampus
Greatest amount of social support
Greatest memory problems

A

Greatest memory problems

217
Q

Which of the following mechanisms might help reduce cravings for playing video games?
Stimulate nucleus accumbens
Stimulate nicotine receptors
Block dopamine receptors
Stimulate opiate receptors

A

Block dopamine receptors

218
Q

What is the idea behind giving Antabuse to alcoholics?
- It helps them to sober up after getting drunk
- It prevents them from experiencing the intoxicating effects
- It may cause them to associate alcohol with illness
- It provides a less debilitating, less addictive high

A

It may cause them to associate alcohol with illness

219
Q

T/F Inhibiting acetaldehyde dehydrogenase would make it less likely someone would abuse alcohol

A

True

220
Q

What is the advantage of taking methadone instead of morphine or heroin?
- Methadone is not addictive
- You can taper off methadone and be drug-free
- Methadone is available w/o prescription
- Methadone satisfies the craving without seriously disrupting behavior

A

Methadone satisfies the craving without seriously disrupting behavior

221
Q

Genetic predisposition for alcoholism is strongest in:
Early-onset alcohol abuse
Late-onset alcohol abuse
Daughters of fathers with alcoholism
Rats who were given alcohol

A

Early-onset alcohol abuse

222
Q

One of the primary sites of action of alcohol is at the __ receptor
Dopamine
GABA
Nicotinic
Serotonin

A

GABA

223
Q

One underlying common element of addictive behaviors is their association with the release of ___ in the ___.
- GABA; amygdala
- Dopamine; thalamus
- GABA; midbrain
- Dopamine; nucleus accumbens
- Ethanol; cortex

A

Dopamine; nucleus accumbens

224
Q

Which of the following is true of depression?
- A single gene has been identified that causes depression
- Men are more likely to be depressed than women
- The influence of traumatic events during young adulthood depends on particular genes for serotonin
- Male hormone levels are strongly correlated with depression

A

The influence of traumatic events during young adulthood depends on particular genes for serotonin

225
Q

The most severe episodes of depression generally occur:
When sex hormone levels are high
In childhood
In women, just before they give birth
After a traumatic experience

A

After a traumatic experience

226
Q

Tricyclic antidepressant drugs work by:
- Blocking the release of neurotransmitters
- Preventing the presynaptic cell from reabsorbing neurotransmitters
- Directing stimulating the postsynaptic cell’s receptors
- Increasing the rate of synthesis of neurotransmitters

A

Preventing the presynaptic cell from reabsorbing neurotransmitters

227
Q

T/F ECT has a higher rate of relapse than psychotherapy in treating depression

A

True

228
Q

Atypical antipsychotics are more effective than typical antipsychotics in:
Reducing positive symptoms
Reducing negative symptoms
Increasing negative symptoms
Blocking glutamate receptors

A

Reducing negative symptoms

229
Q

According to the dopamine hypothesis, what causes schizophrenia?
An unusual course and destination of dopamine fibers in the brain
Excessive activity at dopamine synapses
An unusual point of origin for dopamine fibers in the brain
Deficient activity at dopamine synapses

A

Excessive activity at dopamine synapses

230
Q

Prolonged use of antidepressants not only increases the availability of neurotransmitters in the synapse but also:
Dilates blood vessels in the right hemisphere
Increases the release of neurotrophins
Decreases the threshold for producing action potentials in axons
Increases the flow of glucose across the BBB

A

Increases the release of neurotrophins

231
Q

Which of the following characterizes total brain activity, as measured by the rate of glucose metabolism, in those suffering from mood disorders?
High is both mania and depression
Low in mania and high in depression
Low in both mania and depression
High in mania and low in depression

A

High in mania and low in depression

232
Q

The season of birth effect is most likely due to
Differences in age when children start school
Room temperature at time of birth
Availability of proteins in the diet
Maternal illness during pregnancy

A

Maternal illness during pregnancy

233
Q

According to the neurodevelopmental hypothesis, schizophrenia develops as a result of:
Stressful experiences
Poor diet during adolescence
Genetic or environmental abnormalities in development
Lack of social support from family and friends

A

Genetic or environmental abnormalities in development

234
Q

What would happen if a female rat was given testosterone after the critical period of sexual development?
- It would develop as a typical male
- Its genitals would be completely masculinized but would retain a feminine brain
- There would be no major noticeable changes in its anatomy or behavior
- It would prefer female mates

A

There would be no major noticeable changes in its anatomy or behavior

235
Q

How would the sexual behavior of a genetic female rat that lacked alpha-fetoprotein be affected?
Defiminized
Masculinized
Feminized
Demasculinized

A

Masculinized

236
Q

Which two of the following would masculinize a female rat fetus’s brain?
Low levels of estradiol
High level of estradiol
Low levels of testosterone
High levels of testosterone

A

High level of estradiol
High levels of testosterone

237
Q

T/F High levels of estradiol and progesterone will prevent ovulation

A

True

238
Q

At what point in the menstrual cycle, if any, are women who are not on birth control pills most likely to initiate sexual activity?
Just after the end of menstruation
Just before the next menstrual period
About midway between two menstrual periods
At any point in the menstrual cycle

A

About midway between two menstrual periods

239
Q

Sexual behavior is most likely to occur when sex hormones (testosterone and estradiol) prime the neurons in the hypothalamus to release the neurotransmitter
Serotonin
Norepinephrine
Dopamine
Acetylcholine

A

Dopamine

EIU (5 decks)

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