Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

jkc med phys spring '24 > Med Phys Exam 1 > Flashcards

Med Phys Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Define Homeostasis

A

The body’s ability to control it’s internal environment aka ability to RESIST CHANGE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Name some bodily processes that help regulate temperature

A

Sweating
Flushing
Shivering
Convection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Name some organs that contribute to the bodies removal of waste

A

Lungs
Kidneys
GI Tract
Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the main organ that regulates homeostasis?

A

Hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the body’s primary mechanism to prevent a system from going extreme? Give some examples

A

Negative feedback, Control of body temperature, BG control, Respiratory, Endocrine hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are two examples of Positive feedback?

A

Contractions, Blood clotting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the three things that are higher on the INSIDE of the cell?

A

K+, Mg+, PO4-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the 8 things that are higher on the OUTSIDE

A

Na
Cl
Bicarb
Glucose
Fatty Acids
Amino Acids
CO2
O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the normal blood pH

A

7.4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the 3 types of epithelial tissues? Where do you find each type?

A

Squamous: Flat
Cuboidal: Glands, tubules
Columnar: Uterus, stomach, intestines, galbladder, bile ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the 3 types of muscle tissue? Give the smaller classification as well

A

Skeletal: striated-voluntary
Cardiac: striated- involuntary
Smooth: non-striated- involuntary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Name the 4 connective tissue types

A

Collagen
Elastin
Ground Substance: proteoglycans
Fluid: Blood or plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the properties of collagen? What is the major one?

A

Strong, flexible, INELASTIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the properties of elastin? What is the major one?

A

Rubbery, THICK COILED SPRING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Name the 4 parts of the nervous tissue

A

Cell body, dendrities, axon, neuroglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Cells are made up of ______ water

A

70-85%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What fat cells primarily composed of?

A

Triglycerides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the 4 components of the cell?

A

Nucleus, cytoplasm, nuclear membrane, plasma membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Integral proteins travel ____ the membrane

A

Through

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

give 4 examples of of integral proteins

A

Channels
Carriers
Enzymes
Receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Where are peripheral proteins located? Name 2 examples

A

on the surface, sometimes ATTACHED to integrals

Enzymes
Transport controllers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Pinocytosis is responsible for _____ and ______

A

Drinking and PROTEINS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Phagocytosis is responsible for ____

A

Large particles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

In Glycolysis 1 glycogen makes……

A

2 ATP
2 Pyruvate
2 NADH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

In the Krebs cycle what is the starting input?

A

2 Pyruvate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What does the Krebs cycle produce?

A

2 ATP
2 CoA
2 OH
6 CO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

In the electron transport chain what are the starting inputs?

A

1 triacylglycerol and 1 glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What does the electron transport chain produce?

A

19 ATP via glycolysis + citric acid (1 glycerol)
441 ATP via B-Oxidation + Citric acid (3 FAs)
460 ATP total

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

*****What is the only thing that your brain can use for energy?

A

Glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are membrane potentials?

A

Ion concentration differences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is diffusion potential?

A

the potential difference between the inside and the outside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the resting membrane potential for neurons? Large neurons? Skeletal muscle?

A

-70mV
-90mV
-95mV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The Nernst Equation calculates potential ______ of the membrane for ______.

A

INSIDE, one specific ion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Goldman Equation is used for (all or one) ions?

A

All the ions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What substance is the membrane most permeable to?

A

K+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The Na-K ATPase pump does what?

A

Pumps 3 Na+ out, 2 K in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The leaky channels are leaking what substance to the outside of the cell?

A

K+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The Na-K ATPase pump requires what in order to work?

A

ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the three steps to action potentials?

A
  1. Resting state (-90mV)
  2. Depolarization of the cell
  3. Repolarization- aka going back to being negatively charged
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The second step of action potentials require the cell to reach what level in order to depolarize?

A

+35mv

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The depolarization step in action potential is permeable to what substance? How long does it take to depolarize?

A

Sodium, 0.1ms to occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

In the third step of action potentials what is happening? How long does it take to occur?

A
  • Cell is repolarizing - aka going back to -90mV
  • 0.2ms to occur
  • The cell is closed to Na
  • K channels open wider and K diffuses out
  • Resets the membrane potential
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Activation gates are found of the _____ of the cell

A

outside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Inactivation gates are found on the _______

A

inside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

At rest the activation gate is ______

A

closed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

At inactivation the gate is _______. What does not enter?

A

open, Na

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

For voltage gated Na and K channels, at -70 to -50 mV is the activation gate open or closed? What happens?

A

Opens, Na pours in and depolarizes the cell to approx. +35mV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

At +35mV what happens?

A

Inactivation gate closes and Na CANNOT enter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Describe what is happening in the picture.

A

Ask Skye to complete this card :)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How is creatine excreted?

A

through the kidneys in the urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

The average nerve fiber has ______ unmyelinated fibers than myelinated

A

two times more

Unmyelinated >2x> myelinated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What increases the conduction speed of nerve fibers?

A

Myelination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

During the refractory period, what is ATP doing?

A

nothing, no new ATPs are produced during the refractory period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is a good membrane stabilizer?

A

Ca2+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How does anesthetics work on nerve fibers?

A

Anesthetics disable Na channels so the nerves skip them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

An action potential will occur once _____ happens

A

the action potential exceeds the threshold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Describe the all or none principle

A

The action potential either goes over the entire fiber or stops completely. No such thing as a “partial synapse”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Where does the signal enter the neuron?

A

Dendrite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Where does the signal exit the neuron?

A

Axon terminal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Describe how the signal flows through the neuron

A
  1. Signal enters at the dendrite
  2. Signal goes through neuron
  3. Signal exits via the axon terminal
  4. Axon then synapses with some second order neurons
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Where are the neurotransmitters made?

A

in the cytosol of the presynaptic terminal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

How are the signals in the CNS transmitted?

A

transmitted via chemicals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Name the 9 neurotransmitters.

A
  1. Acetylcholine
  2. Norepinephrine
  3. Epinephrine
  4. Histamine
  5. GABA
  6. Dopamine
  7. Serotonin
  8. Glutamate
  9. Glycine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Which neurotransmitters inhibit?

A

Dopamine
Serotonin (Inhibitor or pain)
Glycine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Describe what is happening during the neurotransmitter release

A
  1. Action potential depolarizes PRE-synaptic membranes
  2. Calcium channels open
  3. Release of calcium causes neurotransmitters to release from their vesicles
  4. Neurotransmitters binds to the outside binding component
  5. Inside Ionophore component is made of the G-protein complex.
  6. Alpha component leaves and does most of the actions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

During excitation what is the sodium channel doing?

A

opening, Sodium channels opening is the main cause of excitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

During excitation, tell me about what chloride/potassium are doing.

A

Decrease chloride going INSIDE
Decrease potassium going to the OUTSIDE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

During excitation, tell me about the what the excitatory and inhibitor receptors are doing.

A

Increased # of excitatory receptors
Decreased # of inhibitory receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Is excitation associated with metabolic acidosis or alkalosis?

A

Metabolic alkalosis (increased pH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

During inhibition, what is the sodium/chloride channel doing?

A

Chloride channels are opening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

During inhibition, tell me about what chloride/potassium are doing.

A

Increased potassium going to the outside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

During inhibition, tell me about the what the excitatory and inhibitor receptors are doing.

A

-Increased # of inhibitory receptors
-Decreased # of excitatory receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Is Inhibition associated with metabolic acidosis or alkalosis?

A

Metabolic Acidosis - pH decreases- Blood is more acidic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

An epileptic person undergo a keto diet makes them more ______ and helps suppress seizures

A

Acidotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Where are neurotransmitters made? Are they rapidly or slowly acting?

A

Made in the cytosol of the presynaptic terminal, rapidly acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Where are neuropeptides made? Are they rapidly or slowly acting?

A

by ribosomes in the neuronal cell bodies, slower acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Are neuropeptides or neurotransmitters very potent and long lasting?

A

Neuropeptides- (think hormones)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Where is the greatest excitation happening on the neuron?

A

Greatest at the the tips of the dendrites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

As the stimulus approaches the cell body, what is leaking?

A

potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Inhibition is the greatest at what part on the neuron?

A

The closer you get to the soma/cell body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

_____ increases as you approach the soma

A

Polarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Describe the effect of caffeine on the synaptic transmission

A

Increases neuronal excitability by reducing the threshold for excitation of neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Describe the effects of strychnine on synaptic transmission. What does it cause?

A

Increases excitability of neurons by inhibiting the action of some normally inhibitory transmitter substances

Causes severe tonic muscle spasms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is the effect of anesthetics on synaptic transmission

A

increased neuronal membranes threshold for excitation by decreasing synaptic transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Define temporal summation

A

Consecutive synapses firing equals buildup to a bigger action potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

The pyramidial tract is involved with upper or lower motor neurons? Is it lateral or ventromedial?

A

pyramidial = Upper motor neurons

lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

The extrapyramidial tract is involved with upper or lower motor neurons? Is it lateral or ventromedial?

A

Extrapyramidial tract is LOWER motor neurons

Ventromedial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

The pyramidial tract is characterized by……

A

Babinski sign, hypertonic spasticity, clonus, hyperreflexia, loss of fine motor skills, muscle wasting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

The extapyramidial tract is characterized by……

A

Parkinsons or dyskinesias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What are some common signs of dyskinesias (involuntary, random movements)

A

Tremor
Pill rolling
Chorea
Myoclonus
Tics
Dystonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Describe the 6 steps in the reflex arc

A
  1. Stimulus
  2. Peripheral receptor
  3. Afferent sensory fiber
  4. Interneuron in spinal cord
  5. Efferent motor fiber
  6. Effector
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is one motor unit made up of?

A

1 alpha motor neuron + muscle fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Describe motor pool

A

all alpha motor neurons projecting to a given muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Cross sectional area of a muscle: ______ + _______

A

of fibers + size of fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Also means that motor units from the same pool have > 10% variance in force generated.

ASK SKYE WHAT THIS MEANS

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Describe the size principle

A

Small fibers are recruited first, aka fast twitch is recruited last

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Describe a type 1 fiber

A

slow twitch = endurance, aka red muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Describe a type 2 fiber

A

fast twitch = power, aka white muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is the basic functional unit of a muscle fiber?

A

Sacromere

100
Q

What is a myocyte

A

muscle fiber

101
Q

What is a myofibril

A

a bundle of sarcomeres

102
Q

Intrafusal fibers are innervated by ______, and are responsible for ????

A

Gamma-motor neurons, change the spindles length

103
Q

Primary spindle afferents are what type of fibers? What types of sensation are they responsible for?

A

1a, annulospiral, dynamic changes (tapping and vibration)

104
Q

Secondary spindle afferents are what type of fibers? What types of sensation are they responsible for?

A

2?, flower spray, static changes in length (posture)

105
Q

Describe what is happening during the stretching of intrafusal fibers

A
  1. Activating gamma motor neurons, shortening ends, stretching center.
  2. Passively lengthening of intrafusal fibers
106
Q

Describe what is happening during muscle contraction

A
  1. EPSP reaches muscle fibril and AP propagates.
  2. Sarcolemma release Ca++
  3. Ca++ binding to troponin exposes binding site.
  4. Muscle contraction first begins with cross-bridging of actin and myosin.
  5. ATP is currently bound to myosin
  6. Release of ATP => power stroke
  7. New ATP joining = BREAKING CROSS BRIDGE
  8. Hydrolyzing the ATP => myosin bends again.
107
Q

ATP releasing causes what during muscle contraction

A

Causes the power stroke

108
Q

ATP rebinding causes what during muscle contraction

A

Causes myosin to release from action

109
Q

***What are alternative ways to make a post synaptic membrane more excitable?

A

Increase number of excitatory membrane receptors or decrease inhibitory membrane receptors

110
Q

What are the two components of the post- synaptic neuron

A

Binding (outside) and ionophore (inside) components

111
Q

What are the two prevertebral ganglia?

A

Celiac and hypogastric

112
Q

Where do the sympathetic nerve fibers originate?

A

between T1 and L2

113
Q

How does the sympathetic nervous system effect the eye, heart and bronchi?

A

Causes the pupil to dilate

Heart to beat faster

bronchi to dilate which allows more air in your lungs

114
Q

the sympathetic nervous system has a (long or short) PREganglion and (long or short) POSTganglion fiber?

A

short PRE

Long POST

115
Q

The parasympathetic nervous system has a (long or short) PREganglion and (long or short) POSTganglion fiber?

A

long :PRE

short: POST

116
Q

A preganglionic fiber that goes through a white ramus and gray ramus and then goes back into the spinal nerve can go one of three places. Name them

A

Blood vessels
Sweat glands
Piloerector- hair standing up

117
Q

What is the neurotransmitter that is used for the three places that comes out of spinal nerve?

A

Acetylecoline

118
Q

Splanic nerve

A
119
Q

Name the 4 cranial nerves that are parasympathetic. Which one does the majority?

A

III- Oculomotor
VII- Facial
IX- Glossopharyngeal
X- Vagus** does the majority**

120
Q

What are the orgins of the parasympathetic nerve fibers?

A

S2 and S3

121
Q

Most preganglionic parasympathetic go where?

A

STRAIGHT to their organ

122
Q

Postganglionic parasympathetic neurons are located where?

A

in the walls of the organs

123
Q

***Someone has a cold and you want to dry them out, would you use an cholinergic or anti-cholinergic medication? Why?

A

Anti-cholinergic drug, because you want to block the parasympathetic system (aka mucus production)

124
Q

Sympathetic preganglionic are what kind of neurotransmitter?

A

Cholinergic

125
Q

Sympathic postganglionic neurotransmitters are what type?

A

Adrenergic

126
Q

What type of neurotranmitters are used for sweat, blood vessels and piloerectors?

A

Cholinergic

127
Q

Parasympathetic preganglionic neurotransmitters are what type?

A

Cholinergic

128
Q

Parasympathetic postganglionic are what type of NT?

A

Cholinergic

129
Q

Cholingergic correlated with what NT?

A

Acetylcholine

130
Q

Adrenergic NT are correlated with what NT? What kind use this type?

A

Norepinephrine, sympathetic postganglionic

131
Q

What are the 5 types of adrenergic receptors?

A

Alpha 1
Alpha 2
Beta 1
Beta 2
Beta 3

132
Q

What are the 2 types of cholinergic receptors?

A

Muscarinic
Nicotinic

133
Q

If all the receptors are beta receptors, then what NT will be a more effective excitant?

A

Epinephrine

134
Q

Where are muscarinic receptors found?

A

on all effector cells that are stimulated by the postganglionic cholinergic nuerons

135
Q

Alpha 1 receptors cause what kind of response?

A
136
Q

What is the alpha 2 receptors response?

A

Pain, regulates sympathetic input from CNS to PNS- calm everything down

137
Q

Beta 1 receptors cause what?

A

Cardiac and smooth muscles, ex: Blood pressure medication

Increased heart rate and and myocardial strenght

138
Q

Beta 2 receptors causes what effect?

A

Bronchiodilation, acts on bronchial tree and visceral organs- causes organs to relax

Intestinal relaxation
Uterus relaxation
Bladder wall relaxation

139
Q

Nicotinic receptors act on _____ and ______

A

Ganglions and skeletal muscles

140
Q

Muscarinic receptors target _____ organs. Name them.

A

Visceral organs. DUMBBELS

  • Defecation
  • Urination
  • Miosis
  • Bradycardia
  • Bronchospasm
  • Emesis
  • Lacrimation
  • Salivation
141
Q

Caloriegenesis and glycogenolysis is caused by what receptor?

A

Beta two

142
Q

Where are Alpha two receptors located?

A

in the grey matter of the spinal cord

143
Q

What does it do: Pupil of the eye: Sym and Parasympathetic

A

Sym: Dilation
Para: Slight relaxation- allows you to see further away

144
Q

Describe what is happening during muscle soreness.

A
  1. Minute tears in muscle tissue
  2. Osmotic pressure changes causing edema around muscle.
  3. Muscle spasms
  4. Overstretching/tearing of muscle harness
  5. Acute inflammation (the later part of working out)
  6. Alteration in calcium regulation

Notable: lactic acid only causes initial soreness in working out

145
Q

Why is your muscle sore approximately 1 hour after working out?

A

Due to latic acid

146
Q

Why is your muscle sore approximately 4 hour after working out? (later part of working out)

A

Due to acute inflammation

147
Q

Why is your muscle sore several days after working out?

A

Microtears in the muscle tissue

148
Q

What is tonic receptor? Give some examples

A

Receptor that constantly transmits info to the brain

Muscle spindles
GTOs
Pain receptors
Chemoreceptors
Baroreceptors

149
Q

Describe rate/phasic receptors. Give an example.

A

Transmits only when there is a CHANGE in stimulus

Pacinian corpuscle- they will stop transmitting the signal even if you keep pressing

150
Q

T/F: Rate/Phasic receptors will send a new signal when you release the pressure

A

True

151
Q

Also need to study the Lecture 4 deck for Nerve fiber types and Sensory Receptors. DO NOT FORGET!!!

A

DO NOT FORGET TO STUDY THE LECTURE 4 DECK

152
Q

Primary/annulospiral & GTO are what type of nerve fiber classification?

A

A- Alpha

153
Q

Secondary/flower spray are what type of nerve fiber classification?

A

A- Beta

154
Q

Motor spindle are what type of nerve fiber classification?

A

A-Gama

155
Q

Pricking pain are what type of nerve fiber classification?

A

A- Delta

156
Q

What are the 3 sensations associated with C fibers?

A

Aching pain,
Cold and warm (temperature)
Crude touch/pressure

157
Q

Describe a divergence signal pathway

A

Splitting up a single signal
When it occurs: Lots of fibers to excite leaving the pool.

Leads to prolonger output discharge

158
Q

Describe a convergence signal pathway

A

Multiple inputs into a single neuron.
Summation

Reverbatory

159
Q

Describe a reciprocal signal pathway

A

When one inhibits, the other contracts
Common in muscles

Rhythmical- found in the medulla

160
Q

What is this?

A

Map of the somatosensory areas

161
Q

How does an endocrine gland secrete their hormones?

A

Gland-> Blood-> Organ

162
Q

Tell me what you know about a paracrine gland.

A

-can diffuse over a short distance
- works through the extracellular fluid
-targets neighboring cells of a DIFFERENT type

163
Q

Tell me what you know about an autocrine

A

-Works through extracellular fluid
- IL-1
- signaling loop that promotoes metastasis

164
Q

Tell me what you know about cytokines as it relates to med phys. What is the major example

A

can function as an autocrine, paracrine or endocrine hormones

Leptin

165
Q

Name the 5 things that the endocrine system regulates

A
  1. Metabolism
  2. Growth & Development
  3. Water & electrolyte balance
  4. Reproduction
  5. Behavior
166
Q

What is the precursor to many steriod hormones? Name the 5 major ones.

A

Cholesterol

  1. Cortisol- major one
  2. Aldosterone- major one
  3. Testosterone
  4. Estrogen
  5. Progesterone
167
Q

T/F: Steroids are stored in the fat cells in the body

A

FALSE, steroids are fat soluble they are NOT STORED

168
Q

The precursor to thyroid hormones & adrenal medulla hormones is ______

A

Tyrosine

169
Q

T4 and T3 are incorporated into _____, then stored in large follicles within the thyroid gland

A

Thyroglobulin

170
Q

Epinephrine and norepinephrine are secrete by _____. Which one is primary?

A

Adrenal medullae

Epinephrine

171
Q

Corticotropin-releasing hormone. Origin? Structure?

A

causes release of adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)

Hypothalamus

Peptide

171
Q

thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) Origin? Structure?

A

Stimulates secretion of thyroid- stimulating hormone (TSH) and prolactin

Hypothalamus

Peptide

172
Q

Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH). Origin? Structure?

A

Causes release of growth hormone

Hypothalamus

Peptide

173
Q

Growth hormone inhibitory hormone (GHIH). Origin?

A

Inhibits release of growth hormone

Hypothalamus

174
Q

What is another name for Growth Hormone Inhibitory hormone.

A

Somatostatin

175
Q

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH). Origin?

A

Causes release of luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)

Hypothalamus

176
Q

Dopamine or prolactin inhibiting factor (PIF). Origin? Structure?

A

Inhibits release of prolactin

Hypothalamus

Amine

177
Q

_______ is a general extension of the hypothalamus

A

posterior pituitary

178
Q

Where is the anti-diuretic hormone released from?

A

posterior pituitary

179
Q

Growth hormone. Origin? Structure?

A

stimulates protein synthesis and overall growth of most cells and tissues

Anterior Pituitary

Peptide

180
Q

TSH. Origin? Structure?

A

Stimulates synthesis and secretion of thyroid hormones

Anterior Pituitary

Peptide

181
Q

ACTH. Origin? Structure?

A

Stimulates synthesis and secretion of the adrenocortical hormones

Anterior Pituitary

Peptide

182
Q

Prolactin. Origin? Structure?

A

Promotes development of the female breasts and secretion of milk

Anterior Pituitary

Peptide

183
Q

FSH. Origin? Structure?

A

Causes growth of follicles in the ovaries and sperm maturation in Sertoli cells of testes

Anterior Pituitary

Peptide

184
Q

LH. Origin? Structure?

A

Stimulates testosterone synthesis in Leydig cells of testes, stimulates ovulation, formation of corpus luteum and estrogen and progesterone synthesis in ovaries

Anterior Pituitary

Peptide

185
Q

Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH). Origin? Structure?

A

Increases water reabsorption by the kidneys and causes vasoconstriction and increased blood pressure

Posterior Pituitary

Peptide

186
Q

ADH is also called _____?

A

vasopressin

187
Q

Oxytocin. Origin? Structure?

A

Stimulates milk ejection from breasts and uterine contractions

Posterior Pituitary

Peptide

188
Q

Growth hormone works directly on…..

A

Adipose tissue (by releasing fats) and the liver (by releasing glucose)

189
Q

Growth hormone works indirectly on……

A

metabolism via somatomedins (IGF1)

190
Q

Somatomedins promote ______ and _______.

A

skeletal growth and protein synthesis

191
Q

The release of GH is stimulated by:

A

Starvation
Hypoglycemia
Low concentrations of serum FAs
Exercise
Excitement
Trauma
Ghrelin (when you’re hungry, you’re Grouchy)
Early part of sleep

192
Q

T4 and T3 have what effect on the body? Origin? Structure?

A

increase body metabolic rate by speeding up reactions

Thyroid

Amine

193
Q

If TSH is high, what does this indicate? Name some symptoms

A

HYPOthyroidism

Cold, low energy, fatigued

194
Q

If TSH is low, what does this indicate?

A

HYPERthyroidism

Excited and heated up

195
Q

How does calcitonin work? Origin? Structure?

A

Lowers Serum Ca by depositing it onto bones. TONING down calcium.

Thyroid

Peptide

196
Q

Cortisol. Origin? Structure?

A

Has multiple metabolic functions for controlling metabolism of proteins, carbs and fats. Some anti-inflammatory effects

Adrenal Cortex

Steroid

197
Q

***ATCH comes from the anterior pituitary gland, Corticotropin RH comes from hypothalamus to AP, pit gland release ATCH, ATCH has action on adrenal gland cortex and adrenal gland releases steriods/cortisol and aldosterone

A

Know this pathway, Sheppard repeats it 3 times

198
Q

Aldosterone. Origin? Structure?

A

Increases renal sodium reabsorption, potassium secretion and hydrogen ion secretion

Adrenal Cortex

Steroid

199
Q

Zona Glomerulosa is what kind? and what hormone does it secrete (and synthesize)?

A

Mineralcorticoids

secretes aldosterone

200
Q

Zona fasciculata is what kind? what does it secrete?

A

Glucocorticoids

Cortisol and androgens

201
Q

Zona reticularis is what kind? What does it secrete?

A

Sex hormones

cortisol and androgens

202
Q

Aldosterone is a _____ and regulated by ____ and _____.

A

Mineralcorticoid

AT2 and potassium levels

203
Q

Aldosterone boosts _____ reabsorption in exchange for getting rid of ____ and _____.

A

Na

K and H+

204
Q

_______ releases catecholamines

A

Adrenal Medulla

205
Q

Insulin. Origin? Structure?

A

promotes glucose entry in many cells and in this way controls carbohydrate metabolism

Pancreas

Peptide

206
Q

Glucagon. Origin? Structure?

A

increases synthesis and release of glucose from the liver into the body fluids

Pancreas

Peptide

207
Q

Epinephrine and noepinephrine originate where?

A

Adrenal medulla

208
Q

What does insulin do?

A

lowers blood glucose

209
Q

What does glucagon do?

A

boosts glucose

210
Q

Human Chorionic Gondadoptropin. Origin? Structure?

A

Promotes growth of corpus luteum and secretion of estrogens and progesterone by corpus luteum.

Placenta

Peptide

211
Q

Renin. Origin? Structure?

A

First part of the RAAS, converting angiotensinogen to AT1

Kidney

Peptide

212
Q

1,25- Dihydroxycholecalciferol. Origin? Structure?

A

Helps you absord Ca from the diet and bone mineralization.

Kidney

Sterioid

213
Q

Erythropoietin. Origin? Structure?

A

Increases erythrocyte production, commonly known at EPO-> boosting RBCs

Kidney

PeptideAt

214
Q

Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP). Origin? Structure?

A

Increases sodium excretion

Heart

Peptide

215
Q

Gastrin. Origin? Structure?

A

makes gastric acid

Stomach

Peptide

216
Q

Secretin. Origin? Structure?

A

Secrete water and bicarb

Small Intestine

Peptide

217
Q

Cholecystokinin (CCK). Origin? Structure?

A

Gallbladder contraction and release of pancreatic enzymes

Small intestine

Peptide

218
Q

Leptin. Origin?

A

Inhibits appetite (opposite of ghrelin)

Adipocytes

Peptide

219
Q

Name the 4 hormones that are derived from Cholesterol

A
  1. Coritsol
  2. Aldosterone
  3. Any androgen
  4. 1,25- Dihydroxycholecalciferol
220
Q

Name the hormones that are derived from tyrosine

A

Epi
NE
Dopamine
T4/T3

221
Q

_____ hormones boost all reaction, so they can work deep inside a cell

A

Thyroid

222
Q

______ can pass through a cell membrane

A

Steroids

223
Q

All the hormones at water soluble EXCEPT ___ and ______. What does this mean in terms of longevity?

A

Thyroid and steroids

Thyroids and steroids tend to last longer in the body

224
Q

In terms of metabolism, hormones either ____ or ______.

A

are used up or get excreted

225
Q

How can you tell human insulin from synthetic?

A

Measure C peptide amounts to check how much insulin is endogenous

226
Q

Insulin is secreted by _____ cells in the islets of Langerhans that are squished in between ____ cells in the pancreas

A

Beta cells

acini cells

227
Q

A B C chains are associated with what form of insulin? What process makes this?

A

Proinsulin form

RNA translation

228
Q

Why does high blood glucose trigger the release of insulin?

A
  1. High BG triggers beta cells, which have GLUT-2 channels.
  2. The more glucose, the more ATP.
  3. The more ATP, the more ATP-K+ channels we can close.
  4. Once enough channels are closed, we depolarize the beta cell and Ca channels open, triggering insulin release.
229
Q

During insulin release, High BG triggers beta cells, which have _____

A

Glut-2 channels

230
Q

During insulin release, the more glucose, the _______

A

more ATP

231
Q

During insulin release, the more ATP, the more ______ channels we can ____

A

ATP-K+

close

232
Q

During insulin release, ______ the beta cell and ____ channels open, which triggers _____

A

depolarize

Ca

Insulin release

233
Q

How does the insulin cause glucose to enter the cell?

A
  1. Glucose naturally enters cells via GLUT-1, but not very fast.
  2. Insulin binds to the outside alpha unit of its receptor, activating the inside beta unit.
  3. Beta units activate a tyrosine kinase
  4. TK activates the rest of the insulin receptor substrates, one of which activates GLUT-4 channels, which bring in more glucose.
234
Q

What 4 things decrease insulin secretion?

A

Low BG
Fasting
Leptin
Exercise

235
Q

Insulin effect, Glucose naturally enters cells via _____ but not very fast

A

Glut-1

236
Q

Insulin effect, Insulin binds to the outside _____ unit of its receptor, activating the the inside ____ unit

A

alpha

beta

237
Q

Insulin effect, beta units activate a ______.

A

Tyrosine kinase

238
Q

Insulin effect, TK activates the rest of the insulin receptor substrates, one of which activates ______ channel, which does what?

A

Glut-4

Brings in more glucose

239
Q

Why does Victoza (and other similiar sulfonylurea drugs) work?

A

Suppressed liver glycogenolysis (when the liver breaks down glucose and dumps it in the blood, aka stops this process from happening)

Increases insulin

decreases gastric emptying

240
Q

How is hearing transmitted?

A
  1. Sound causes TM to move.
  2. Malleus, Incus, Stapes conducts sound to the oval window.
  3. Vibrations enter at oval window, specifically the scala vestibuli and make fluid move along.
  4. Higher frequency = a wave with more oscillation
  5. Hair cells get moved by the vibrations
  6. Nerve fibers get stimulated by hair cells
  7. Nerve fibers depolarize the cochlear nerve.
241
Q

What are the 3 semicircular canals that control equilibrium?

A

Utricle
Saccule
Ampulla

242
Q

______ are found on hair cells. What do they detect?

A

Sterocilia, detects acceleration and deceleration

243
Q

_____ are horizontal in an upright position

A

Utricle

244
Q

_____ are vertical in a lying down position

A

Saccule

245
Q

______ are involved with equilibrium during rotational movement

A

Ampulla

246
Q
A

jkc med phys spring '24 (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions