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Neuroanatomy Flashcards

1
Q

What is the function of the CNS and its components

A
  • integration and command center
  • brain and spinal cord
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2
Q

What is the function of the PNS and its components

A
  • carries messages to and from the CNS
  • paired spinal and cranial nerves
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3
Q

What are the two functional nervous systems

A

Somatic nervous system and autonomic nervous system

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4
Q

Name the neuroglia in the CNS

A

Astrocytes, Microglia, Ependymal cells, Oligodendrocytes

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5
Q

Name the neuroglia in the PNS

A

satellite cells and schwann cells

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6
Q

What is the function of an astrocyte

A
  • repairs damage in the CNS and is the most abundant
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7
Q

What is the function of microglial cells

A

defensive cells of the CNS

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8
Q

What is the function of oligodendrocytes

A

form myelin sheaths around nerve fibers in the CNS

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9
Q

What is the function of satellite cells

A

acts as protective cushions and supplies nutrients in the PNS

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10
Q

What is the function of schwann cells

A

form myelin and surround neurons in the PNS (act as oligodendrocytes but for the PNS)

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11
Q

What are clusters of cell bodies called in the CNS and PNS

A

CNS = nuclei
PNS = ganglia

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12
Q

What are bundles of processes (axons & dendrites) called in the CNS and PNS

A

CNS = tracts
PNS = nerves

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13
Q

What is the receptive region of a neuron called

A

dendrites (conveys electrical signals toward the cell body)

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14
Q

What is the function of an axon

A

conduction region of a neuron, transmits impulses away from the cell body

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15
Q

Where are neurotransmitters released from?

A

knoblike axon terminals (boutons)

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16
Q

What is the function of myelin sheath

A

protect and electrically insulate the axon as well as increase the speed of impulse transmission

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17
Q

White matter is ________ whereas gray matter is _______

A

white matter is myelinated whereas gray matter is unmyelinated

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18
Q

Describe multipolar neurons

A

1 axon and several dendrites
- most abundant
- motor neurons and interneurons

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19
Q

Describe bipolar neurons

A

1 axon and 1 dendrite
- retinal neurons
- rare

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20
Q

Name the 3 meninges from superficial to deep

A

dura mater
arachnoid mater
pia mater

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21
Q

Describe unipolar neurons

A

single short process that has 2 branches
-peripheral process is more distal and associated with a sensory receptor
-central process is the branch entering the CNS

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22
Q

Name the layers of the dura mater

A

Periosteal - adherent to the skull
Meningeal - deep to the periosteal layer and forms the falx

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23
Q

What is in the longitudinal fissure attached to the crista galli

A

falx ceribri

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24
Q

what goes along the vermis of the cerebellum

A

falx cerebelli

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25
Q

what is the horizontal dural fold over the cerebellum and in the transverse fissure

A

tentorium cerebelli

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26
Q

What runs between the falx cerebri

A

superior sagittal sinus

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27
Q

which of these is epidural and which of these is subdural

A

right = subdural
left = epidural

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28
Q

Describe the arachnoid mater

A

-middle layer with web-like extensions and protruding arachnoid villi that permit CSF reabsorption
-subarachnoid space contains blood vessels and CSF

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29
Q

Describe the pia mater

A

delicate vascularized connective tissue that clings tightly to the brain

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30
Q

Name the 4 regions of the adult brain

A

cerebral hemispheres (R and L)
diencephalon
cerebellum
brain stem (midbrain, pons, medulla)

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31
Q

Describe the spinal cord

A
  • extends from foramen magnum to the intervertebral disc of L1 and L2
  • central cavity, edges made of gray matter with white matter core
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32
Q

What are ventricles lined with

A

ependymal cells

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33
Q

Describe where the 4 ventricles are located

A
  • 2 C shaped ventricles in the L and R cerebral hemispheres
  • 3rd ventricle in the diencephalon
  • 4th ventricle in the hindbrain dorsal to the pons
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34
Q

What connects the L and R ventricles to the 3rd ventricle

A

the interventricular foramen of monro

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35
Q

What connects the 3rd ventricle to the 4th ventricle

A

cerebral aqueduct aka aqueduct of silvus

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36
Q

What connects the 4th ventricle to the subarachnoid space

A

the lateral aperture of luschka and the median aperture of magendie

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37
Q

What connects the 4th ventricle to the spinal cord

A

the central canal

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38
Q

what is the function of CSF

A

gives buoyancy, protection, and nourishment to the CNS as well as carrying chemical signals

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39
Q

What is the function of the choroid plexuses

A

produces CSF at a constant rate

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40
Q

What is the blood brain barrier made of and what does it do

A

continuous endothelium of capillary walls, basal lamina, feet of astrocytes
-maintains stable environment for brain and separates some bloodborne substances

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41
Q

What does the BBB allow to pass through

A

fat soluble substances like alcohol, nicotine, and anesthetics

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42
Q

Where is there a lack of blood brain barrier

A

vomiting center and the hypothalamus - where it is necessary to monitor the chemical composition of the blood

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43
Q

Name the 5 lobes of the cerebral hemispheres

A

frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, insula

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44
Q

What separates the precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe and the postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe

A

the central sulcus

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45
Q

what separates the L and R hemispheres

A

the longitudinal fissure

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46
Q

what separates the cerebrum and the cerebellum

A

transverse cerebral fissure

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47
Q

what divides the temporal lobe from the frontal and parietal lobes

A

Slyvian/lateral fissure

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48
Q

What do association fibers do

A

connect adjacent gyri, do not cross the midline

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49
Q

What do commissural fibers do

A

connect wide areas of the cerebral cortex of the two hemispheres across the midline

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50
Q

What do homotopical and heterotpical comissural fibers do

A

homotopical connects identical areas, heterotopical connects different areas

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51
Q

what are the 4 areas of the corpus callosum

A

Rostrum (orbital surface)
Genu (medial/lateral frontal lobes)
Trunk (wide areas of cerebral cortex)
Splenium (occipital lobes)

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52
Q

what do projection fibers do

A

connect the cerebral cortex with sub-cortical gray matter of the basal ganglia, thalamus, and nuclei of the brain stem and spinal cord

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53
Q

What is the major group of projection fibers connecting the rest of the body to the primary motor cortex

A

the pyramidal/corticospinal tract

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54
Q

Describe the travel of the pyramidal/corticospinal tract from top down

A

primary motor cortex
corona radiata
internal capsule
midbrain
pons
medulla
spinal cord

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55
Q

What are the parts of the internal capsule

A
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56
Q

What are the arterial suppliers of blood to the brain

A

pair of internal carotid arteries
pair of vertebral arteries

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57
Q

what do the arterial pairs form

A

circle of willis

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58
Q

What are the 3 parts of blood supply in the brain

A
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59
Q

Name the 3 regions of the brain stem

A

midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata

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60
Q

How many cranial nerves are associated with the brain stem?

A

10 of 12

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61
Q

The nuclei of which cranial nerves are located in the midbrain?

A

Oculomotor (3), Trochlear, (4)

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62
Q

What are the 2 parts of the diencephalon?

A

thalamus, hypothalamus

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63
Q

Where are cerebral peduncles located

A

midbrain (ventral)

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64
Q

where is the substantia nigra located

A

midbrain (ventral)

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65
Q

Where is the corpora quadrigemina located

A

midbrain (posterior)

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66
Q

where are the superior and inferior colliculi located and what do they do?

A

Midbrain (posterior)
superior: visual reflex center
inferior: auditory relay center

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67
Q

What cranial nerves have their nuclei in the posterior midbrain?

A

oculomotor and trochlear

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68
Q

Why are the substantia nigra named the way they are and what is their degeneration associated with?

A

because they are melanin pigmented and if degenerated = Parkinson’s

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69
Q

What do the fibers of the pons do?

A

connect higher brain centers and the spinal cord via the pyramidal tract, and relays impulses between motor cortex and cerebellum

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70
Q

What cranial nerve origins are located in the pons?

A

trigeminal (5), Abducens (6), Facial (7)

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71
Q

At what level does the medulla oblongata join the spinal cord?

A

level of the foramen magnum

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72
Q

What are the 2 major landmarks of the medulla oblongata?

A

pyramids and olives

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73
Q

What are the pyramids of the medulla oblongata

A

2 ventral longitudinal ridges formed by pyramidal tracts

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74
Q

what are the olives of the medulla oblongata

A

inferior olivary nuclei that relay sensory info from muscles and joints to cerebellum

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75
Q

What cranial nerves are associated with the medulla oblongata

A

8, 9, 10, 11, 12

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76
Q

What center regulates breathing

A

pons and medulla

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77
Q

what center regulates vestibular nuclear comples

A

medulla oblongata

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78
Q

What does the vestibular nuclear complex do

A

mediates responses that maintain equilibrium

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79
Q

Where are autonomic reflex centers located

A

medulla oblongata

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80
Q

where is the cardiovascular center located and what does it do

A

medulla oblongata
- cardiac center adjusts force and rate of heart contraction
- vasomotor center adjusts blood vessel diameter for BP regulation

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81
Q

Where is the respiratory center located

A

medulla oblongata
- controls respiratory rhythm, rate, depth in conjunction with pontine centers

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82
Q

What does the cerebellum do

A

subconsciously provides precise timing and appropriate patterns of skeletal muscle contraction

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83
Q

Describe the anatomy of the cerebellum

A

2 hemispheres with 3 lobes each, connected by vermis
- transverse gyri = folia
- treelike pattern of white matter - arbor vitae

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84
Q

Name the cerebellar nuclei later to medial

A

dentate, emboliform, globose, fastigii

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85
Q

Describe the 3 cerebellar peduncles

A

paired ipsilateral fibers
- superior peduncles connect cerebellum to midbrain
- middle peduncles connect pons to cerebellum
- inferior peduncles connect medulla to cerebellum

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86
Q

what does the cerebellar vermis of the homunculus control

A

the axial and proximal musculature of the limbs

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87
Q

what does the intermediate part of the cerebellar homunculus control

A

distal musculature

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88
Q

what does the lateral part of the cerebellar homunculus control

A

involved in motor planning

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89
Q

what does the flocculonodular lobe of the cerebellar homunculus control

A

balance, eye movement

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90
Q

What is the blood supply of the cerebellum

A

superior cerebellar artery (SCA)
anterior inferior cerebellar artery (AICA)
posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA)

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91
Q

What are the 2 branches of the basilar artery that supply the cerebellum

A

SCA and AICA

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92
Q

what is the largest branch of the vertebral artery that supplies the cerebellum

A

PICA

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93
Q

Describe lateral medullary syndrome aka PICA syndrome aka Wallenberg syndrome

A
  • most common cerebellar stroke
  • PICA embolus/ischemia
  • pain or temporary loss of contralateral trunk, extremity control and ipsilateral face: dysphagia, slurred speech, vertigo, nystagmus, ataxia, horner’s syndrome
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94
Q

describe horner’s syndrome

A

ipsilateral ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis, red eye

95
Q

what is the second most common cerebellar stroke and its symptoms

A

AICA syndrome
- ataxia, vertigo, ipsi deafness, ipsi facial weakness

96
Q

What is the extent of the spinal cord

A

foramen magnum to conus medullaris at lower border of L1 vertebra

97
Q

describe the denticulate ligaments

A

extension of pia mater that secures cord to dura mater

98
Q

describe the filum terminale

A

fibrous extension from conus medullaris, composed of pia mater, anchors spinal cord to coccyx

99
Q

describe cauda equina

A

formed by roots of lower pairs of lumbar, 5 pairs of sacra, 1 pair of coccygeal nerves

100
Q

Which grows faster, the vertebral column or the spinal cord?

A

vertebral column

101
Q

what is the part of the spinal cord that gives rise to pairs of spinal nerves

A

spinal segment of the spinal cord

102
Q

What level is a lumbar puncture usually performed at

A

L4-L5

103
Q

What section of the spinal cord is the lateral horn located in and what does it give rise to?

A

thoracic section only
gives rise to the sympathetic nervous system

104
Q

White matter of the spinal cord consists of…

A

ascending sensory and descending motor tracts (in addition to transverse comissural fibers)

105
Q

Where is the dorsal-column pathway located on the spinal cord and what sensory info does it carry

A

posterior side of spinal cord
vibration, fine touch, prioprioception

106
Q

Where is the spinothalamic tract located on the spinal cord and what sensory info does it carry

A

lateral and anterior of spinal cord
carries pain and temperature (lateral), crude touch and pressure (ventral)

107
Q

what are the 2 parts of the dorsal column-medial lemniscal pathway

A

nucleus gracilis
nucleus cuneatus
(in the medulla)

108
Q

Describe a 1st order neuron

A
  • conducts impulses from cutaneous receptors and proprioceptors
  • branches diffusely as it enters the spinal cord/medulla
  • synapses with 2nd order neuron
109
Q

Describe a 2nd order neuron

A
  • interneuron
  • cell body in dorsal horn of spinal cord/medullary nuclei
  • axons extend to thalamus/cerebellum
110
Q

Describe a 3rd order neuron

A
  • interneuron
  • cell body in thalamus
  • axon extends to somatosensory cortex (3, 1, 2)
111
Q

At which levels do the dorsal column and spinothalamic tracts cross over

A

dorsal column - medulla
spinothalamic - spinal cord

mapping this out helps determine where a lesion is (contra-ipsi)

112
Q

What are the arteries supplying the spinal cord

A

primarily anterior and posterior spinal arteries (branches of vertebral arteries)

-reinforced by cervical, intercostal, and lumbar arteries at each level

113
Q

A lesion of which blood vessel leads to anterior spinal artery syndrome

A

artery of adamkiewicz aka arteria radicularis magna

(this is the most substantial major blood supply to lumbar and sacral cord)

114
Q

what are the 2 divisions of the autonomic nervous system

A

parasympathetic and sympathetic
- all visceral organs are served by both divisions

115
Q

what is the role of the parasympathetic division

A

relaxation, digestion, lowers BP, HR, RR

116
Q

what is the role of the sympathetic division

A

fight or flight, bronchiles dilate, blood flow shunted to skeletal muscle and heart

117
Q

What is the origin of the fibers of the sympathetic vs parasympathetic divisions

A

sympathetic - thoracolumbar region of spinal cord
parasympathetic - craniosacral

118
Q

what is the length of the fibers in the sympathetic vs parasympathetic divisions

A

sympathetic - short preganglionic and long postganglionic

parasympathetic - long preganglionic and short postganglionic

119
Q

where are the ganglia located in the sympathetic vs parasympathetic divisions

A

sympathetic - close to spinal cord
parasympathetic - in visceral effector organs

120
Q

Describe how we get referred pain

A

visceral pain afferents travel along the same pathways as somatic pain fibers

(visceral pain shares somatic nerves so impulses of visceral reflex activates whatever that nerve is ie. appendicitis and umbilical pain, MI and chest, L arm pain)

121
Q

What fibers release/receive acetylcholine

A

cholinergic fibers (all ANS preganglionic axons and parasympathetic postganglionic axons)

122
Q

what fibers release/receive noradrenaline/norepinephrine

A

adrenergic fibers (most postganglionic sympathetic axons except in sweat glands and blood vessels in skeletal muscle)

123
Q

What are the 2 types of cholinergic receptors that bind ACh

A

nicotine and muscarinic

124
Q

Describe nicotinic cholinergic receptors

A
  • found in skeletal muscle, ganglionic neurons, hormone producing cells of the adrenal medulla
  • always stimulatory
125
Q

Describe muscarinic cholinergic receptors

A
  • associated with postganglionic cholinergic fibers
  • inhibitory or excitatory
126
Q

How does atropine work

A
  • blocks muscarinic receptors (anticholinergic)
  • prevents salivation during surgery and dilates pupils for exam
127
Q

What are the 2 types of adrenergic receptors

A

Alpha 1 and 2
Beta 1, 2 and 3

128
Q

What are the 5 layers of the scalp

A

Skin
Connective tissue
Aponeurosis
Loose sub-aponeurotic tissue
Pericranium/periosteum

129
Q

what are the 3 divisions of the trigeminal nerve

A

V1 - ophthalmic
V2 - maxillary
V3 - mandibular

130
Q

what is the only cranial nerve that extends beyond the head and neck

A

vagus nerve

131
Q

What is the basal ganglia

A

sub-cortical collection of gray matter in the cerebrum which lie in close relation to the internal capsule, which are essential constituents of the extra pyramidal system

132
Q

what does the basal ganglia do

A

initiates and provides gross control over skeletal muscle movements

functionally associated with the subthalamic nuclei (diencephalon) and the substantia nigra (midbrain)

133
Q

Describe the caudate nucleus of the basal ganglia

A

forms an arched band of gray matter in conformity with the curvature of the lateral ventricle
- head
- body
- tail

134
Q

What are the parts of the corpus striatum of the basal ganglia

A
  • caudate nucleus
  • lentiform nucleus
135
Q

What are the parts of the lentiform nucleus within the corpus striatum of the basal ganglia

A

putamen and globus pallidus

136
Q

Name the sections of the basal ganglia

A

blue - caudate nucleus (head, body, tail)

green - putamen

purple - globus pallidus

red - thalamus

137
Q

Describe what happens if there is a tumor on the caudate nucleus

A

it can compress the lateral ventricle and hamper circulation of CSF

138
Q

What part of the basal ganglia is most affected in Huntington’s disease

A

neurons of the head of the caudate nucleus - degenerated

139
Q

What are the green lines

A

comissural fibers

140
Q

What is the blue

A

ventricles

141
Q

What is the white matter between the pink and purple

A

internal capsule

142
Q

What is the anterior pink and lateral pink

A

anterior - caudate nucleus

lateral - lentiform nucleus
(medial = globus pallidus, lateral = putamen)

143
Q

Where is the amygdaloid body located

A
144
Q

What does the amygdaloid body do

A

primary role in processing memory and emotional reactions, therefore more functionally related to the limbic system

145
Q

What is the Claustrum

A

thin sheet of gray matter separating the putamen and insular cortex

146
Q

is GABA inhibitory or excitatory

A

inhibitory

147
Q

is glutamate inhibitory or excitatory

A

excitatory

148
Q

Which diseases are linked to the basal gangia and which pathways are affected

A
  • Parkinson’s disease (direct pathway)
  • Huntington’s disease (indirect pathway)
  • Hemiballism (indirect pathway)
  • Tourette syndrome (indirect pathway)
  • Wilson disease (direct pathway)
149
Q

What does dopamine do (connections of the corpus striatum)

A

increases cortical excitation by exciting the DIRECT pathway and inhibiting the INDIRECT pathway

150
Q

What does acetylcholine do (connections of the corpus striatum)

A

decreases cortical excitation by exciting the INDIRECT pathway

151
Q

What happens with increased level of cortical excitation vs decreased level of cortical excitation

A

promotion of movement vs suppression of unwanted movement

152
Q

Direct pathway is characterized by _____ levels of cortical excitation and _______ of movement

A

increased, promotion

153
Q

Indirect pathway is characterized by _____ levels of cortical excitation and _______ of movement

A

decreased, suppression (unwanted movement)

154
Q

Identify each letter

A

A = caudate nucleus
B = lentiform nucleus
C = thalamus
D = internal capsule
E = corpus callosum?
F = occipital lobe

155
Q

What are the 4 parts of the diencephalon

A

Masses of gray matter that surround the 3rd ventricle
- thalamus
- hypothalamus
- epithalamus
- subthalamus

156
Q

Identify the green, blue, light pink, darker pink (anterior), dark purple, light purple

A

green = Pons
blue = Cerebral aqueduct
light pink = pituitary gland
dark pink = pineal gland (part of epithalamus)
dark purple = hypothalamus (with inferior mammillary body)
light purple = thalamus

157
Q

What is 80% of the diencephalon

A

the thalamus

158
Q

What does the thalamus do

A

serves as major sensory relay for info that reaches the cortex and motor control areas synapse here before reaching the cortex

159
Q

What is the input and output for Ventral posteriolateral (VPL) thalamic nuclei

A
160
Q

What is the input and output for the ventral posteriomedial (VPM) thalamic nuclei

A
161
Q

VPL and VPM thalamic nuclei are sensory or motor?

A

sensory

162
Q

VA and VL (ventral anterior and ventral lateral) thalamic nuclei are sensory or motor?

A

motor

163
Q

What is the input and output for the medial geniculate body (MGB) thalamic nuclei

A
164
Q

What is the input and output for the lateral geniculate body (LGB) thalamic nuclei

A
165
Q

What is the internal medullary lamina of the thalamus do

A

participates in our asleep/awake cycle - circadian rhythm (along with hypothalamus)

166
Q

What do the anterior and medial nuclei of the thalamus do

A

help in memory processing

167
Q

What is the mediodorsal nucleus involved in in the thalamus

A

degeneration of thalamus results in memory issues (Korsakoff)

168
Q

Describe thalamic pain syndrome

A
  • affects the ventral nuclear group
  • burning, aching, loss of vibratory and touch sense in contralateral side
  • resistent to analgesics
  • secondary to lacunar stroke
169
Q

What does the hypothalamus do

A

afferent and efferent connections throughout the nervous system including the pituitary gland, autonomic system, and limbic system
- regulates sleep awake, autonomic nervous system, temperature, involved in endocrine system

170
Q

List some of the nuclei of the hypothalamus

A
  • preoptic
  • supraoptic
  • suprachiasmatic
  • ventromedial
  • lateral hypothalamic area
  • dorsomedial nucleus
  • paraventricular nucleus
171
Q

What is associated with the preoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus

A

androgens and estrogens

172
Q

what is associated with the supraoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus

A

ADH

173
Q

what is associated with the suprachiasmatic nucleus

A

circadian rhythm

174
Q

what is associated with the paraventricular nucleus

A

oxytocin

175
Q

What hormones and nuclei are associated with the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland

A

ADH and oxytocin from the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei

176
Q

what is associated with the dorsomedial nucleus of the hypothalamus

A

savage behavior

177
Q

what is associated with the lateral hypothalamic area

A

feeding center

178
Q

what is associated with the ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus

A

satiety center

179
Q

What happens if there is a lesion in the pre-optic nucleus of the hypothalamus before and after puberty

A

before: arrest of sexual development
after: amenorrhea or impotence

180
Q

lesion of the supraoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus can lead to what

A

neurogenic diabetes insipidus = polydipsia and polyuria

181
Q

Lesion of the anterior hypothalamic zone leads to

A

hyperthermia

182
Q

lesion to the posterior hypothalamic zone leads to

A

poikilothermy (inability to thermoregulate)

183
Q

What does the hypothalamus do

A
  • autonomic control of visceral functions
  • emotional response
  • body temp
  • food intake, thirst
  • sleep cycle
  • hormones (anterior/posterior pituitary)
184
Q

What does the epithalamus consist of

A

pineal body and habenular nuclei

185
Q

What is the pineal body

A
  • vascularized structure above the posterior comissure attached to the roof of the 3rd ventricle
  • contains pinealocytes and glial cells
186
Q

What does the pineal gland do

A
  • synthesizes melatonin, serotonin, cholecystokinin
  • regulates sleep wake cycle
  • anti-gonadotropin function and inhibits GRH before puberty
187
Q

Identify the pineal gland

A
188
Q

What happens if there is a tumor of the pineal gland

A

the growth of the tumor will put pressure on the surrounding areas and result in symptoms (can compress superior coliculi = vision issues, compress cerebral aqueduct = hydrocephalus)

189
Q

What is precocious puberty caused by

A

lesion of the pineal gland

190
Q

What is Parinaud syndrome

A

-impairment of conjugate vertical gaze and bilaterally suppressed pupillary light reflex
-compression of upper midbrain and pretectal area by pineal tumor

191
Q

Describe the subthalamus

A
  • biconvex mass of gray matter called the subthalamic nucleis, lateral to the hypothalamus
  • involved in the indirect pathway of the basal ganglia circuitry
192
Q

Lesion of the subthalamus can cause what

A

hemiballismus - contralateral flinging movements of one or both extremities

193
Q

what does the limbic system do

A

mediates and controls all aspects of emotional and motivational drives such as food, sex, anger, rage, love, stress, etc.

194
Q

What is the Papez Circuit

A

limbic system

195
Q

Window through which the limbic system sees the place of the person in the world =

A

amygdala

196
Q

What are the structures of the limbic system

A
197
Q

Kluver Bucy syndrome

A

lesion of the amygdala
- no fear
- compulsive to put objects in mouth
- forgetful
- curiosity
- strong sex drive

198
Q

Hippocampus is important for …

A

memory consolidation - short term

199
Q

Lesion of the hypothalamus will NOT affect

A

long term memory, only short term memory (alzheimers)

200
Q

What is the function of the temporal lobe

A

hearing, language processing, memory

201
Q

what is the function of the frontal lobe

A

executive function, judgement, personality

202
Q

What is the function of the parietal lobe

A

sense of self, spatial location, attention, motor control

203
Q

what is the function of the occipital lobe

A

vision

204
Q

What are the 3 functional areas of the cerebral cortex

A

primary, secondary, association

205
Q

Describe primary motor areas

A

direct connections with specific muscles for causing discrete muscle movement

206
Q

describe the secondary motor area

A
  • makes sense of signals in primary areas
  • provides patterns of motor activity or programs sequence of movement
207
Q

Describe primary sensory areas

A

detects specific sensations

208
Q

describe secondary sensory areas

A

analyzes the meanings of specific sensory signals
- interpretation of shape/texture, color/light, tones/sequence of tone

209
Q

Describe association areas

A

receives and analyzes signals from multiple regions of both motor and sensory cortices

(parieto-occipitotemporal and prefrontal)

210
Q

Describe the function of the parieto-occipitotemporal association area

A

provides interpretative meaning from all surrounding sensory areas
- spatial coordinates
- Wernicke’s language comp.
- angular gyrus for visual processing of words/reading
- area for naming objects

211
Q

Describe the function of the prefrontal association area

A

close association with motor cortex
- plans complex patterns and sequences of movement
- carries thought process
- involved in intellect, cognition, recall, personality

212
Q

What could a lesion in the association area lead to

A

agnosia - inability to know familiar objects/people

213
Q

What could a lesion in the visual cortex lead to

A

color agnosia - inability to name and distinguish colors and brightness discrimination

214
Q

What might result from a lesion in the angular gyrus

A

lack of knowledge of ones own hand
- can’t draw a hand
- Gerstmann Syndrome

215
Q

What would a lesion to the facial recognition area lead to

A

prosopagnosia - inability to recognize a face, even ones own

216
Q

Describe the 4 dominant speech centers

A

Sensory
- Wernicke’s (22): comprehends spoken language and familiar sounds/words
- Area 39 of the angular gyrus: stores visual images and recognizes objects by sight
- Area 40 of the supra-marginal gyrus: recognizes objects with help of touch and proprioception
Motor
- Broca’s (44, 45): expressive speech center

217
Q

What does lesion of Wernicke’s (22) produce

A

word deafness: unable to interpret spoken words, can still speak fluently with occasional meaningless words

218
Q

What does lesion of area 39 produce

A

word blindness: inability to read (alexia) and write (agraphia)

219
Q

What does lesion of area 40 produce

A

astereognosis: inability to recognize familiar objects by touch and proprioception

220
Q

What is a lesion to the Broca’s area called

A

motor aphasia: comprehension intact but distorted speech (nonsensical)

221
Q

what is a lesion to the longitudinal fasciculus connecting Broca’s and Wernicke’s called

A

Conduction aphasia: fluent speech with intact comprehension but repetition of spoken language is very difficult

222
Q

Lesion of area 18 and 19 causes what

A

visual agnosia

223
Q

Visual projection surrounds the calcarine line. Describe the projection of visual fields from the left, upper, and macula lutea

A

left visual field: right hemisphere
upper visual field: lower wall of cortex
Macula lutea: posterior third of the visual cortex

224
Q

Auditory agnosia (inability to identify familiar sounds) results from a lesion to what structure

A

bilateral destruction of the auditory association area (floor of lateral sulcus and posterior part of area 22)

225
Q

Describe the difference between positive and negative memory

A

positive: brain enhances and stores memory traces

negative: brain ignores info that is of no consequece

226
Q

Describe the 3 classifications of memory

A

short term: seconds or minutes

intermediate: days to weeks but fade away

long term: recalled up to years or a lifetime later

227
Q

Describe the consolidation of memory

A
  • the process of converting short term to long term memory
    - will cause chemical, physical, and anatomical changes in synapses with repetition
  • requires 5-10 mins for minimal consolidation, 1hr+ for strong consolidation
228
Q

What are the factors that affect memory consolidation

A
  • best if alert, motivated, surprised, aroused
  • repetition and practice
  • tying new info with old memories
  • automatic memory = subconscious info stored
229
Q

Describe the difference between declarative and nondeclarative memory

A

Declarative
- conscious, explicit thoughts and language
- stored in long term with context in which it was learned

nondeclarative
- unconscious, acquired through experience and repetition
- procedural skill memory, motor memory, emotional memory

230
Q

Describe the difference between anterograd and retrograde amnesia

A

Anterograde: cannot form new short term memories (seen in pts with hippocampal damage - Alzheimer’s)

Retrograde: inability to recall memories from past, amesia for recent events more so than distant past (seen in pts with lesions to mammillary bodies, anterior thalamic nuclei, sometimes hippocampus)

231
Q

Describe the input and output of the cerebellum

A

Input: inferior and middle cerebellar peduncles

Output: superior cerebellar peduncle

232
Q

Functions of the cerebellum

A

- coordination
- recognizes and predicts sequences during complex movements
- word association and puzzle solving

233
Q

Describe the parts of the cerebellum and their functions

A

-vermis: controls axial and proximal musculature of limbs
-intermediate part: controls distal musculature
-lateral part: motor planning
-flocculonodular lobe: control of balance and eye movement

Cumulative (162 decks)

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