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Cat & Dog > Dermatology (1-12) > Flashcards

Dermatology (1-12) Flashcards

1
Q

this is the outer most layer of the skin;
multiple cell layers

A

Epidermis

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2
Q

name the 3 cell types found in the epidermis

A
  1. Keratinocytes
  2. Melanocyte
  3. Langerhan’s Cells
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3
Q

where is the stratum corneum & epidermis the thickest?

A

on nasal planum and footpads

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4
Q

where is the stratum corneym & epidermis the thinnest?

A

on ventral body

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5
Q

name the skin layer

this is the tough waterproof barrier of keratinised squames & intercellular sebum

A

stratum corneum

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6
Q

what cell type makes up the stratum corneum

A

keratinocytes

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7
Q

name the cell type

found in epidermis and hairs;
responsible for colour

A

melanocytes

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8
Q

name the skin layer

connective tissue (collagen and elastin);
increased cell infiltration in inflammation

A

dermis

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9
Q

are there blood vessels in the epidermis?

A

no

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10
Q

name the 3 parts of a hair bulb and shaft

A
  1. cuticle
  2. cortex
  3. medulla
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11
Q

name the 4 parts of hair growth cycle

A
  1. Catagen
  2. Telogen
  3. Exogen
  4. Anagen
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12
Q

what phase of hair growth are most dogs hair in

A

telogen

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13
Q

what phase of hair growth are non-shedding breeds hair in

A

anagen

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14
Q

name the term

lesions produced by self-trauma

A

excoriation & mutilation

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15
Q

name the term

hair loss without replacement (decreased coat density); OR
physiological shedding (coat density is normal)

A

alopecia

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16
Q

name the term

accumulation of keratinocytes;
primary = keratinisation disorder;
secondary = more common

A

scale

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17
Q

define the term

orthokeratosis

A

scale with NO nuclei

(non-specific)

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18
Q

define the term

parakeratosis

A

scale with RETAINED nuclei

(erosions)

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19
Q

name the term

thickening of the skin;
associated with chronic inflammation

A

Lichenification

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20
Q

name the term

split in heavily lichenified and/or crusted skin;
painful and vulnerable to infection

A

fissure

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21
Q

name the term

greasy accumulation of sebum and exudate;
often associated with scaling;
malodourous, esp. if infected & inflamed

A

Seborrhoea

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22
Q

name the term

solid & focal accumulation of cells
< 1cm

A

papule

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23
Q

name the term

solid & focal accumulation of cells >1cm

A

nodule

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24
Q

name the term

solid & focal accumulation of cells - flat topped

A

plaque

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25
Q

name the term

elevated patch of skin with dermal oedema;
should be pitting

A

wheal

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26
Q

name the term

subcutaneous oedema

A

angio-oedema

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27
Q

name the term

epithelial lined cavity with fluid or semi-fluid material;
usually neoplastic or developmental

A

cyst

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28
Q

name the term

pus filled lesion/cyst-like structure

A

pustule

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29
Q

name the term

fluid filled lesion/cyst-like structure <1cm

A

vesicle

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30
Q

name the term

fluid filled lesion/cyst-like structure >1cm

A

bulla

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31
Q

name the term

specific or exfoliative staphylococcal pyoderma

A

epidermal collarette

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32
Q

name the term

dried exudate (pus, blood, and/or serum)

A

crust

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33
Q

name the term

destructive lesion where the basement membrane is intact;
heals by re-epithelisation

A

erosion

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34
Q

name the term

destructive lesion where basement membrane is lost;
will scar

A

ulcer

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35
Q

name the term

replacement of normal skin by fibrous tissue;
smooth & thin with loss of hairs & pigment;
contraction may cause problems

A

scar

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36
Q

name the term

draining tracts connecting deeper tissues with surface;
often ulcerated and under-run;
usually infectious or immune-mediated

A

sinus

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37
Q

name the term

connects epithelial lined compartments

A

fistula

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38
Q

name the term

well-defined change in color of the skin <1cm

A

macule

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39
Q

name the term

well-defined change in color of the skin >1cm

A

patch

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40
Q

name the term

increased blood flow to the skin; blanches

A

erythema

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41
Q

name the term

dilated hair follicle plugged with epidermal and sebaceous debris;
keratinisation disorders, hyperadrenocorticism, Demodex

A

comedome

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42
Q

name the term

tight accumulation of scale around hair shaft;
highly specific for Demodex, follicular keratinisation diseases, sebaceous adenitis

A

follicular casts

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43
Q

name the term

thick accumulations of crust across hair shafts;
most common with Dermatophilus;
also seen with any dried exudate

A

paintbrush lesions

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44
Q

name the term

calcium phosphate deposits in skin & soft tissues;
highly specific for hyperadrenocorticicsm

A

Calcinosis cutis

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45
Q

how to rule out Sarcoptes as the cause of pruritis

A

trial therapy
OR
IgG Elisa

(can be hard to find)

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46
Q
A
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47
Q

what are the 3 main drug options for a trial ectoparasite therapy

A
  1. selamectin/moxidectin
  2. short acting isozazoline
  3. long acting isozazoline
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48
Q

name 3 diet choices for a food trial to treat pruritis

A
  1. home cooked novel protein
  2. commercial novel protein
  3. hydrolysed food
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49
Q

what is the minimum time a food trial should be used to see if it treats pruritis

A

8 weeks minimum

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50
Q

during what months are trees likely to cause pollen allergies

A

february - april

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51
Q

during what months are grasses likely to cause pollen allergies

A

June - August

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52
Q

during what months are flowering plants likely to cause pollen allergies

A

July - October

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53
Q

name the disease

inflammation of the hair follicle (hair follicle arrest);
malformation of the hair follicle (loss of the hair follicle)

A

alopecia

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54
Q

should you treat juvenile onset localised demodicosis?

A

no, don’t need to

(manage secondary infections)

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55
Q

name 5 treatment options for demodicosis

A
  1. systemic isoxalines
  2. lime sulphur dip
  3. imidacloprid/moxidectin
  4. systemic milbemycin oxime
  5. systemic ivermectin or moxidectin
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56
Q

how long should you treat demodicosis for?

A

until 2 neg plucks/scrapes & then for 1 month

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57
Q

name the 3 common species causing Dermatophytosis (ring worm)

A
  1. Microsporum canis
  2. Microsporum gypseum
  3. Trichophyton mentagrophytes
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58
Q

name 5 clinical signs of Dermatophytosis (ring worm)

A
  1. comedones
  2. follicular cysts
  3. rarely pruritic
    4.nodules
    5.paronychia
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59
Q

name 4 ways to diagnose Dermatophytosis (ring worm)

A
  1. Trichogram
  2. Woods lamp (M. canis)
  3. Fungal culture
  4. qPCR
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60
Q

what is the licensed treatment for dermatophytosis in cats

A

itraconazole

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61
Q

what is the licensed treatment for dermatophytosis in dogs

A

ketoconazole

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62
Q

how long should Dermatophytosis be treated for

A

until 2 neg cultures/PCR tests at least 7 days apart

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63
Q

name 6 systemic clinical signs of Leishmania

A
  1. lameness
  2. lymphadenopathy
  3. hepatomegaly/splenomegaly
  4. anaemia
  5. kidney failures
  6. muscle atrophy
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64
Q

name 5 dermatological clinical signs of Leishmania

A
  1. alopecia
  2. fine, silvery scaling
  3. depigmentation
  4. nodules
  5. erosions
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65
Q

name 3 treatments for Leishmania

A
  1. Meglumine antimoniate
  2. allopurinol
  3. miltefosine
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66
Q

what insect spreads Leishmania

A

Sandflies

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67
Q

name 5 immune mediated causes of alopecia

A
  1. sebaceous adenitis
  2. alopecia areata
  3. Lymphocytic mural folliculitis
  4. dermatomyositis
  5. injection site
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68
Q

name the immune mediated cause of alopecia

immune mediated destruction of the sebaceous glands;
follicular casting;
often starts around the head (look in the ears!);
poodles, akitas, spaniels predisposed

A

sebaceous adenitis

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69
Q

name the immune mediated cause of alopecia

involve extremities, periocular skin & bony prominences;
strophic alopecia & scarring;
muscle atrophy

A

Dermatomyositis & vasculitis

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70
Q

name the immune mediated cause of alopecia

usually local but can be remote;
glucocorticoids, vaccines, depot injections, drug reactions, reactions to spot-on preparations;
usualy regress;
may scar

A

injection site alopecia

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71
Q

name 3 endocrinopathies that cause hair follicle arrest

A
  1. hyperadrenocorticism
  2. hypothyroidism
  3. sex hormone alopecia
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72
Q

what causes calcinosis cutis / what treatment will make it much worse

A

steroids

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73
Q

name the derm condition

stress causes telogenisation of the coat;
exogen or grooming results in alopecia

A

telogen effluvium

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74
Q

name the derm condition

anagen interruption;
hair shaft breaks

A

anagen defluxation

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75
Q

name the derm condition

pruritic;
one or more typical reaction patterns:
1. symmetrical self induced alopecia
2. miliary dermatitis
3. head and neck pruritits
4. EGC
Resp. disease

A

feline atopic syndrome

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76
Q

name the derm condition

pustular disease of cats;
bilaterally symmetrical (eyes, ears, nose) crusting;
pus around the claw beds

A

Pemphigus foliaceus

77
Q

name the feline derm condition

thymoma or non-thymoma ED;
often non-pruritic;
cytotoxic, interface dermatitis;
check for underlying disease

A

exfoliative dermatitis

78
Q

name the feline derm condition

associated with abdominal tumour;
‘shiny’ ventral abdominal skin;
often have secondary Malassezia overgrowth on cytology

A

paraneoplastic alopecia

79
Q

name the feline derm condition

well defined, pruritic, ulcerative and crusting lesions;
usually dorsal neck or shoulders;
injection site reaction, persistent antigen, bahviour and/or feline hyperaesthesia syndrome;
diagnosis on clinical signs and biopsy

A

feline ulcerative dermatitis

80
Q

name the feline derm condition

acute & violent/frenzied self-trauma;
can be worse after handling;
mouth directed behaviour;
good response to neurological agents

A

feline hyperaesthesia syndrome

81
Q

name the 3 species of Demodex that can (uncommonly) affect cats

A
  1. Demodex cati
  2. Demodex felis
  3. Demodex gatoi
82
Q

name 4 possible glucocorticoids treatments for cats with skin diseases

A
  1. Prednisolone
  2. Dexamethasone
  3. Triamcinolone
  4. Depot steroids
83
Q

name 8 possible adverse effects from glucocorticoids

A
  1. PU/PD
  2. weight gain
  3. diabetes mellitus
  4. bacterial cystitis
  5. hyperadrenocorticism
  6. dermatophytosis
  7. hypertension
  8. congestive heart failure
84
Q

name 3 adverse effects of ciclosporin in cats

A
  1. GIT upsets
  2. decr. WBC counts
  3. insulin antagonism
85
Q

name 2 adverse effects of Chlorambucil

A
  1. bone marrow suppression
  2. GI upsets
86
Q

what drug should NOT be used to treat derm diseases in cats!
only for dogs;
development of antibodies

A

Olcalcitinib
(Apoquel, Lokivetmab, Cytopoint)

87
Q

name the medication

block mast cell activity;
reduces itch and alopecia;
reduces lesion score;
well tolerated in cats

A

aliamides

88
Q

name 4 predisposing factors of dogs for otitis

A
  1. confromation
  2. environment
  3. iatrogenic
  4. swimming
89
Q

name 7 possible primary triggers to otitis

A
  1. foreign bodies
  2. parasites
  3. hypersensitivity
  4. keratinisation disorders
  5. neoplasia
  6. inflammatory polyps
  7. endocrinopathies
90
Q

name 5 perpetuating factors for otitis

A
  1. decreased cell migration
  2. epidermal/dermal/glandular hyperplasia
  3. fibrosis
  4. ear canal stenosis and mineralisation
  5. otitis media
91
Q

name the 3 most common secondary infections/dysbiosis with otitis

A
  1. Staphylococci
  2. Malassezia
  3. Pseudomonas
92
Q

what 4 things should you palpate the ear canal for in suspected otitis

A
  1. mobility
  2. pliability
  3. thickening
  4. pain
93
Q

name the two syndromes of zinc responsive dermatosis

A
  1. diet-related
  2. zinc malabsorption
94
Q

name the derm condition

destruction of cell membrane adhesion molecules;
pustules, scaling, and erosions of nose, face, pinnae, nipples, feet

A

pemphigus foliaceus

95
Q

name the derm condition

breeds with pendulous ears;
often mistaken for vasculitis (scaling, fissures NOT necrosis, & no hypoxi/discolouration);
treatment similar to naso-digital hyperkeratosis

A

ear margin seborrhea

96
Q

name the derm condition

normal protective mechanism;
alopecia and hyperkeratosis over bony prominences;
do NOT remove!

A

callus

97
Q

name the derm condition

hereditary defect with incr. epidermal turnover;
thick, adherent scales, erythema, seborrhoea and otitis externa;
diffuse dry scaling

A

idiopathic keratinisation disorder

98
Q

name the derm condition

immune-mediated loss of sebaceous glands;
dry scaling, follicular casts & alopecia;
diagnosis by skin biopsy

A

sebaceous adenitis

99
Q

name the derm condition

dogs, cats, rabbits;
defect in collagens and elastins;
abnormal elasticity and fragility

A

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

100
Q

what are the two phases of treatment of immune-mediated diseases

A
  1. remission
  2. maintenance
101
Q

what medications are the mainstay for remission of immune-mediated derm diseases

A

glucocorticoids

102
Q

what medication is useful to treat vasculitis

A

Oclacitinib

103
Q

name the derm condition

inflammation of subcutaneous fat;
nodules with fatty, haemorrhagic discharge;
ulceration, non-healing wounds

A

sterile panniculitis

104
Q

name the disease

sloughing of claws;
onychodystrophy

A

Symmetric lupoid onychodystrophy
OR lupoid onychitis (SLO)

105
Q

name the term

Abnormal changes in the shape, color, texture, and growth of the fingernails or toenails

A

onychodystrophy

106
Q

name 3 comon problems of the anal sacs

A
  1. impaction & infection
  2. perianal gland hyperplasia
  3. anal sac adenocarcinoma
107
Q

name the term

lowest concentration of antibiotic that prevented bacterial growth

A

MIC

108
Q

what does a Breakpoint:MIC index < 1 mean

A

resistant

109
Q

what does a Breakpoint:MIC index of 1 mean

A

incr. dose/frequency

110
Q

name the 3 categories of ear cleaners

A
  1. Drying agents
  2. Ceruminolytics
  3. Antiseptics
111
Q

name the ear cleaner

chelates metal ions in cell wall;
potentiates antibiotic killing;
administer 15-20min before antibiotic or with antibiotic

A

TrisEDTA

112
Q

name the bacteria type

directly ototoxic;
risk factor for otitis media;
inherently resistant;
excellent biofilm producers;
readily acquire resistance

A

Pseudomonas spp.

113
Q

name 3 first line topical antibiotics for otitis caused by Pseudomonas

A
  1. Fluoroquinolones
  2. gentamicin
  3. polymixin B/miconazole
114
Q

name 4 causes of Otitis media-Otitis interna

A
  1. extension of chronic otitis externa
  2. primary secretory otitis media (PSOM)
  3. feline inflammatory polyps
  4. feline respiratory disease
115
Q

what is the treatment for Otitis media

(4 part treatment)

A
  1. flush out debris
  2. glucocorticoids (topical & systemic)
  3. antibiotics (if required)
  4. analgesia
116
Q

name the term

a procedure to create a hole in the ear drum to allow fluid that is trapped in the middle ear to drain out OR to take a sample/cytology

A

myringotomy

117
Q

name the 4 steps of a myringotomy (a procedure to create a hole in the ear drum to take a sample or cytology)

A
  1. clean external ear canal
  2. catheter/spinal needle
  3. take middle ear sample for culture
  4. take sample for cytology
118
Q

name the condition

an abnormal collection of skin cells deep inside your ear;
can be congenital or acquired

A

cholesteatoma

119
Q

name the condition

ceruminous hyperplasia (in the ear);
common in cats, very rare in dogs;
requires laser ablation;
topical steroids can reduce recurrence

A

cystomatosis

120
Q

name the 7 parts of the “cycle of doom” associated with Chronic Pododermatitis with Interdigital Furunculosis (CPIF)

A
  1. hair follicle inflammation
  2. follicular rupture
  3. furunculosis & infection
  4. sinus tracts
  5. interdigital ‘cysts’
  6. scarring
  7. altered conformation & weight bearing
121
Q

name 3 predisposing causes of Chronic Pododermatitis with Interdigital Furunculosis (CPIF)

A
  1. sltered weight bearing
  2. short hairs
  3. obesity
122
Q

name 5 early changes associated with Chronic Pododermatitis with Interdigital Furunculosis (CPIF)

A
  1. weight bearing on haired skin
  2. comedones
  3. ingrown hairs
  4. cystic hair follicles
  5. sinus tracts
123
Q

name 4 chronic changes associated with Chronic Pododermatitis with Interdigital Furunculosis (CPIF)

A
  1. fibrosis and scarring
  2. false pad formation
  3. conjoined pads
  4. tissue pockets & folds
124
Q

name 3 ways to manage predisposing factors of Chronic Pododermatitis with Interdigital Furunculosis (CPIF)

A
  1. weight loss (4/9 BCS)
  2. boots
  3. lubricating barrier creams
125
Q

name the hair structure

these give the optical illusion of a diluted coat (eg black to grey);
they can be large enough to distort the hair follicle and shaft resulting in colour dilution alopecia

A

macromolecules

126
Q

name the hair structure

small & regular parcels of melanin synthesized by epidermal melanocytes and incorporated into skin and hair keratinocytes;
govern skin & hair colour

A

micromelanosomes

127
Q

name the hair growth stage

i.e. resting;
most hairs in most dogs & ctas are in this phase most fo the time;
these are not affected by cytotoxic or chemotheraoy drugs

A

telogen

128
Q

name the hair growth stage

i.e. growing;
more prominent in breeds that shed less but need trimming (e.g Poodles);
these re living hairs and vulnerable to cytotoxic & chemotherapy drugs;
a few are normal

A

anagen

129
Q

what color does bacteria always stain on a diff-quick stain?

A

blue

130
Q

name 3 non-rinsing formulations of topical therapy options for atopic dermatitis

A
  1. wipes
  2. foams
  3. spot-on preparations
131
Q

name the atopic dermatitis maintenance therapy

to alleviate flares associated with allergen exposure;
no anti-inflammatory action;
not a substitute for induction therapy

A

allergen specific immunotherapy (ASIT)

132
Q

name the atopic dermatitis maintenance immunotherapy protocol

one day hospital based protocol;
faster response;
no difference in clinical response;
slight increase in adverse effects;
Rush or conventional

A

subcutaneous immunotherapy (SCIT)

133
Q

name the atopic dermatitis maintenance immunotherapy protocol

induction course given in vet clinic;
monthly for 6 doses;
can use U/S guidance;
effect may last 3-6 months

A

intralymphatic immunotherapy (ILIT)

134
Q

name the atopic dermatitis maintenance immunotherapy protocol

avoids needles;
may be easier to administer;
treat twice daily every day;
fewer adverse effects (reverse sneezing, GIT upsets)

A

sublingual immunotherapy (SLIT)

135
Q

name 4 anti-inflammatory therapies with good evidence of high efficacy for atopic dermatitis

A
  1. systemic & topical glucocorticoids
  2. ciclosporin
  3. oclacitinib (Apoquel)
  4. Lokivetmab (Cytopoint)
136
Q

name 3 chronic adverse effects seen with glucocorticoids

A
  1. urinary tract infections
  2. hypertensions
  3. hyperadrenocorticism
137
Q

name 3 strategies for safer use of glucocorticoids

A
  1. daily to remission (0.5-1.0 mg/kg)
  2. switch to every other day
  3. taper maintenance dose
138
Q

name 2 topical diester glucocorticoids that can be used for atopic dermatitis

rapidly absorbed;
potent anti-inflammatory action;
metabolised within the dermis

A
  1. hydrocortisone aceponate
  2. Mometasone furoate
139
Q

name 4 possible adverse effects of topical diester glucocorticoids

A
  1. thinning of abdominal skin
  2. local immunosuppression
  3. absorption (hyperadrenocorticism, depressed IDAT reactions)
  4. skin reactions
140
Q

name 2 other uses of topical glucocorticoids (besides atopic dermatitis)

A
  1. otitis externa
  2. atopic conjunctivitis
141
Q

what is cyclosporin metabolised through

A

cytochrome P450

142
Q

name the drug for mangement of atopic dermatitis

calcineuron inhibitor;
well tolerated by most dogs;
transient vomiting most common;
monitor urinalyisis;
contraindicated in neoplasia;
could impair response to vaccination

A

ciclosporin

143
Q

name the drug for mangement of atopic dermatitis

targeted JAK1 inhibitor;
inhibits IL-31 & other pro-inflammatory cytokines;
semi-broad spectrum activity;
will not reverse ear canal stenosis;
not advised for CPIF

A

Oclacitinib (Apoquel)

144
Q

what 3 things is Oclacitinib (Apoquel) contraindicated in?

A
  1. dogs <12 months
  2. Demodex and infections
  3. concurrent neoplasia
145
Q

name the drug for mangement of atopic dermatitis

anti-IL31 monoclonal antibody;
very safe (potential for anti-drug antibodies);
species specific

A

Lokivetmab (Cytopoint)

146
Q

name the drug for mangement of atopic dermatitis

rapid H1R blockade;
poor efficacy (treatment sparing);
use before allergen challenge;
very safe (may be sedating)

A

antihistamines

147
Q

most skin-related tumours arise from what tissues?

A

epithelial tissues

148
Q

name 6 known causes of skin tumours

A
  1. UV radiation
  2. Chemical carcinogens
  3. irradiation
  4. physical agents
  5. viruses
  6. inflammation
149
Q

nsme 5 features of skin tumours that suggest malignancy

A
  1. rapid growth
  2. fixation
  3. invasion into overlying skin or deep tissues
  4. ulceration
  5. poorly defined margins
150
Q

name 7 contraindications for excisional biopsy for skin and subcutaneous masses

A
  1. rapidly growing masses
  2. ill-defined or poorly demarcated lesion
  3. peritumoural oedema or erythema
  4. skin ulceration
  5. injection site masses in cats
  6. FNA suspicious for MCT or STS
  7. non-diagnostic FNA
151
Q

name the epithelial tumour

young dogs;
viral
usually regress;
malignant transformation to SCC possible

A

canine papilloma

152
Q

name the epithelial tumour

older animals;
median age 10-12y;
nasal planum, pinnae;
UV exposure from sunlight (UVB);
develops in areas of thin/unpigmented hair in non-white cats

A

feline Squamous Cell Carcinoma (SCC)

153
Q

name the stage of feline SCC

pre-cancerous, dysplasia due to chronic UV exposure

A

actinic keratosis (a)

154
Q

name the stage of feline SCC

cancer cells have not penetrated basement membrane

A

carcinoma in situ (b)

155
Q

name the stage of feline SCC

penetration of basement membrane

A

invasive SCC (C)

156
Q

name 6 treatment options for feline cutaneous SCC

A
  1. surgical excision!
  2. radiotherapy
  3. photodynamic therapy
  4. intralesional chemotherapy
  5. electrochemotherapy
  6. topical imiquimod
157
Q

name the treatment option for feline cutaneous SCC

best possible approach;
wide margins provide long term control;
cosmetic

A

surgical excision
(pinnectomy, nosectomy)

158
Q

name the treatment option for feline cutaneous SCC

for early stage (superficial) tumours;
Strontium 90 plesiotherapy;
orthovoltage;
electrons

A

radiotherapy

159
Q

name the treatment option for feline cutaneous SCC

local or systemic administration of a photsensitiser;
administration of light of an appropriate wavelength to activate the drug several hours later;
generally reasonably well tolerated;
small, non-invasive, early stage tumours only

A

photodynamic therapy

160
Q

name the treatment option for feline cutaneous SCC

usually systemic bleomycin;
high response rates but variable destruction, possible significant local side effects

A

electrochemotherapy

161
Q

how to prevent feline cutaneous SCC?

A

avoid sunlight
(UV light-blocking film/sunblock)

162
Q

name the treatment option for feline cutaneous SCC

immunomodulator;
antitumour and antiviral effects;
for Bowenoid carcinoma in situ (SCC which has not penetrated the basement);
side effects: local erythema, incr. liver enzymes, hyporexia and vomiting

A

topical imiquimod

163
Q

what are the 3 most common locations for canine SCC

A
  1. nasal planum
  2. nailbed (subungual)
  3. ventrum
164
Q

what is the latency period of feline injection site sarcomas (FISS)

A

few months - several years

165
Q

what is the 3-2-1 rule for investigation of firm cutaneous or subcutaneous masses
(possible FISS)

A

3 - any mass present for 3 months or longer
2 - any mass greater than 2 cm in diameter
1- any mass that continues to increase in size 1 month after injection

166
Q

name 3 types of round cell cutaneous/SC tumours

A
  1. histiocytic tumours
  2. mast cell tumours
  3. lymphoma
167
Q

name the histiocytic skin lesion

arise from epidermal Langerhan dendritic cell;
benign

A

canine cutaneous histiocytoma

168
Q

name the histiocytic skin lesion

arises from activated interstitial dendritic cell

A

reactive histiocytosis
(cutaneous or systemic)

169
Q

name the histiocytic skin lesion

14% of all skin tumours;
usually young dogs;
raised, often hairless lesions, may grow rapidly;
cytology usually diagnostic (pleomorphic round cells and lymphoid infiltrate) ;
boxers, dachshunds, cocker spaniels, and bull terriers

A

canine cutaneous histiocytoma

170
Q

what are the 3 most common sites of metastases by canine mast cell tumours (in order)

A
  1. local lymph node
  2. regional nodes
  3. spleen & liver
171
Q

what is the most important prognostic factor in Mast Cell Tumours (MCTs)

A

histological grade

172
Q

name the 2 systems for histopathological grading of MCTs

A
  1. Patnaik
  2. Kiupel
173
Q

name the histological grade of MCT based on the critera (Patnaik)

monomorphic round cells with distinct cytoplasm, medium sized intracytoplasmic granules, no mitotic figures noted;
compact groups or rows of neoplastic cells confided to dermis

A

grade 1
well differentiated

174
Q

name the histological grade of MCT based on the critera (Patnaik)

some pleopmorphic cells - round to ovoid shape;
some cells having less distinct cytoplasm with large and hyperchromatic intracytoplasmic granules but others have distinct cytoplasm with fine granules;
areas of oedema or necrosis are noted;
mitotic figures are 0-2 per high power field;
tumour infiltrating lower dermis/subcutaneous tissue

A

grade 2
intermediately differentiated

175
Q

name the histological grade of MCT based on the critera (Patnaik)

dense sheets of pleomorphic cells with indistinct cytoplasm with fine or not obvious intracytoplasmic granules;
mitotic figures 3-6 per high power field;
oedema, haemorrhage, necrosis and ulceration common;
tumour infiltrating lower dermis/subcutaneous tissue

A

grade 3
poorly differentiated

176
Q

diagnosis of high-grade MCTs using Kiupel method is based on the presence of any one of what 4 criteria

A
  1. at least 7 mitotic figures in 10 high-power fields (hpf)
  2. at least 3 multinucleated cells in 10 hpf
  3. at least 3 bizarre nuclei in 10 hpf
  4. karyomegaly
177
Q

name the system of MCT histopathological grading

well established so limitations well known;
most grade 1 good and grade III bad;
subjective;
does not allow classification of subcutaneous tumours

A

Patnaik

178
Q

name the system of MCT histopathological grading

limitations becoming apparent;
up to 15% of low grade tumours metastasise;
less subjective

A

Kiupel

179
Q

what is the treatment of choice for a mast cell tumour

A

surgery

180
Q

what must the lateral margin be for surgical excision of a MCT

A

3cm plus deep fascia

181
Q

name 3 proven chemotherapy agents for canine mast cell tumours

A
  1. pred
  2. vinblastine
  3. lomustine

(possible chlorambucin)

182
Q

name the chemotherapy drug that can be used for canine MCTs

plant alkaloid (inhibiton of microtubule formation, interferes with amino acid metabolism);
M phase specific;
hepatic metabolism;
faecal excretion;
more myelosuppressive than vincristine;
GI effects rare;
EXTREME perivascular irritant

A

vinblastine

183
Q

name the chemotherapy drug that can be used for canine MCTs

alkylating agent;
CCPNS;
hepatic metabolism;
urinary excretion;
myelosuppressive (can be severe, delayed, and cumulative);
hepatotoxic

A

lomustine
(CCNU)

184
Q

what are the two forms of cutaneous MCTs in cats

A
  1. Mastocytic
  2. Atypical
185
Q

name the feline cutaneous MCT form

generally seen in older cats;
histologically subdivided (compact v. diffuse, well differentiated v. poorly differentiated, pleomorphic v. anaplastic);
mitotic count prognostic

A

mastocytic form

186
Q

name the feline cutaneous MCT form

often Siamese breed;
young cats;
spontaneously resolve over several months;
no effect of corticosteroids on the time course of the disease

A

atypical form

187
Q

what is the best treatment option for single cutaneous feline MCTs

A

surgery

188
Q

what is the treatment of choice for a splenic MCT in a cat

A

splenectomy

Cat & Dog (19 decks)

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