Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

From Flashcardlet > ATR study general > Flashcards

ATR study general Flashcards

0
Q

A PB in means:

A

On, auto, normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

What are the dimensions of the ATR roughly?

A

About 25’ tall, 74’ long and 80’ wide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A PB out means:

A

Off, manual, alternate, shut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Light philosophy: no lights

A

Normal basic operation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Blue light means

A

Temporarily required system in normal operation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Green light means

A

Backup or alternate system selected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

White light means

A

Other than normal basic operation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Amber light means

A

Warning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Red light means

A

Warning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Max ITT for engine startup

A

950

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Max ITT for hotel mode

A

785

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Max continuous ITT

A

800

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Max ITT for reserve takeoff

A

816

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Max transient ITT

A

850

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

DC gen operated at 400 amps for…

A

No limit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

DC gen operated at 600 amps for…

A

2 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

DC gen operated at 800 amps for…

A

8 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Inverters operated at 500 VA for how long…

A

No limit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Inverters operated at 575 VA for…

A

30 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Inverters operated at 750 VA for…

A

5 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

ACW gens operated at 40 kva…

A

4 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

ACW gens operated at 20 kva…

A

No limit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

ACW gens operated at 30 kva…

A

5 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Min takeoff and landing altitude

A

-1000ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Max takeoff and landing altitude

A

8500ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Min takeoff and landing temp

A

-40C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Max takeoff and landing temp

A

50c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Max/min runway slope

A

+/- 2 deg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Max tailwind for takeoff and landing

A

15kt (ATR) 10kt cape air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Max crosswind on a dry runway takeoff/landing:

A

45kt/38kt

20kt landing flaps 45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Max takeoff landing crosswind limits a after it just rained

A

GOOD/MED: 37kt/31kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Max positive G load flaps up

A

+2.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Max negative G load flaps up

A

-1g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Max positive G load flaps down or gear down

A

+2g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Max negative G load flaps down or gear down

A

0g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Max descent rate

A

3000fpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Max crosswind cargo door operation

A

45kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Max operating Mach

A

.55 Mach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Max operating speed

A

250kt

39
Q

Max landing gear extension/retraction

A

160kt

40
Q

Max operating flaps 15

A

170kt?

41
Q

Max speed flaps 30

A

150kt?

42
Q

Max rough air speed

A

180kt

43
Q

Vfe45

A

130kt

44
Q

Va

A

160kt

45
Q

Max tire speed

A

165 ground speed

46
Q

Vwo max wiper operation

A

160kt

47
Q

Max ramp weight

A

37632

48
Q

Max takeoff weight

A

37258

49
Q

Max zero fuel weight

A

34259

50
Q

Max landing weight

A

36155

51
Q

Max differential pressure

A

6.35psi

52
Q

Max negative differential pressure

A

-.5

53
Q

Max differential pressure for landing

A

.35psi

54
Q

Max differential for overboard valve full open selection

A

1psi

55
Q

Max one bleed off operations

A

20,000ft

56
Q

Icing definitions: on ground for takeoff

A

OAT <5c and visible moisture

57
Q

Icing definitions: in flight

A

TAT 7°C or OAT 5°C or colder and Visible Moisture

58
Q

Ground icing definition, for taxi and takeoff

A

OAT 5°C or colder and surface snow, standing water or slush present on ramps, taxiways, or runways

59
Q

What do you do when the ATR tells you that you are accreting ice?

A

Turn on levels 1, 2, 3

60
Q

Minimum np setting when in icing conditions

A

86%np

61
Q

What do you turn on in ground icing conditions while taxiing to takeoff

A

CONT RELIGHT and Propeller Anti- Icing

62
Q

What do you have on when in icing conditions but haven’t picked up ice yet?

A

Levels1 and 2

63
Q

Limitation for taking off on contaminated runways

A

Takeoff is not authorized if standing water, slush, or wet snow on the required length or width of the runway is more than 1/2” deep, or if dry snow accumulation is more than 4” deep.

64
Q

Min height to engage autopilot after takeoff

A

500ft AFL

65
Q

VOR approaches using NAV mode with either autopilot or flight director is authorized only if:

A

A collocated DME is available, and
• DME HOLD is not selected.

66
Q

Minimum height for use of either autopilot or flight director except during takeoff or executing an approach:

A

1000ft AFL

67
Q

Minimum height for use of either autopilot or flight director VS, IAS or CAT I APP mode during approach:

A

160ft AFL

68
Q

If both DC generators fail, flight under IMC is limited to

A

30 minutes

69
Q

Can we hold in icing conditions with flaps?

A

No. Except single engine

70
Q

Can we use flaps 45 if we are in icing?

A

No

71
Q

Max approved anti icing additives is ___% per volume

A

15%

72
Q

Max pressure for refueling

A

50 psi

73
Q

The total quantity of fuel usable in each tank

A

4960

74
Q

Total quantity of usable fuel

A

9920lbs

75
Q

Max fuel imbalance

A

1212lbs

76
Q

Can one electrical pump and associated jet pump supply both engines in the whole flight envelope?

A

Yes

77
Q

Can one electric pump without the associated jet pump supply both engines in the whole flight envelope?

A

No

78
Q

Approved hydraulic system fluids

A

Hyjet IV or Skydrol LD4

79
Q

Can we tow the plane with a towbarless system?

A

No

80
Q

Green arc for oil temperature:

A

45c to 115c

81
Q

Why should iol temp be maintained above 45c?

A

To ensure intake strut deicing

82
Q

In flight can we leave an engine running and prop feathered?

A

No

83
Q

Propeller description

A

Two Hamilton Standard 14 SF - 5

84
Q

ATR airplanes are protected against a positioning of power levers below the flight idle stop inflight by an ________________.

A

Idle gate

85
Q

What limitations do we have when starting an engine?

A

Three (3) starts with a 1 minute 30 second maximum combined starter running time, followed by 4 minutes off

86
Q

What conditions need to be met to set the prop brake?

A
  1. Control PB selected ON
  2. Aircraft on ground
  3. Gust lock engaged
  4. CL FEATHER or FUEL SO
  5. Blue hydraulic pressure available
87
Q

What are the conditions that need to be met to arm the ATPCS?

A
  1. PWR MGT TO
  2. ATPCS PB ON
  3. Both PLs above 56%
  4. Both TQs above 53%
  5. Aircraft on ground (for up trim)
88
Q

What is the triggering condition for ATPCS

A

One TQ falls below 21%

89
Q

On the ITT gauge, what is the Red dot +S?

A

950C temp limit for start 5 seconds

90
Q

On the ITT Indicator what does the red dot and red mark mean?

A

Mark: 785C temp limit for normal takeoff and MCT operations
Dot: 850C temp limit for 20 sec

91
Q

What does the red and white mark of the ITT gauge mean?

A

816C the max temp for up trim conditions. Also CCAS is activated at this point

92
Q

What kind of switch does the gear system use to tell you the gear is 3 green?

A

Proximity switch

93
Q

Can you wiggle the prop blade?

A

Yes up to 1 deg

94
Q

Where are all the smoke detectors?

A

Lav
Aft cargo
Electronics racks
Fwd cargo

95
Q

How much halon in each bottle?

A

6.5lb

96
Q

Do you need both loops working to detect a fire?

A

Yes, so if one faults then turn it off!

From Flashcardlet (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions