Virology Flashcards

1
Q

Regeneron

A

cocktail of MONOCLONAL antibodies directed against spike proteins

antibodies injected & useful in early infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Paxlovid (Pfizer)

A

oral antiviral (prescription) that inhibits viral replication
needs to be taken early on

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Molnupiravir (Merck)

A

oral antiviral (prescription) that causes mutations in viral RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

RT-PCR

A

detects RNA genome of virus that uses reverse transcriptase. it is for current infections and is high specific (+ and -)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Antigen test

A

detects viral proteins using ELISA technology (only +)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The best preventative for unimmunized against SARD COVID-19 is

A

social distancing & masks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Viruses are considered nonliving because

A

they aren’t self replicating and rely on hosts for replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Since most viruses are tiny little *****, which microscope is needed to see them?

A

Electron Microscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A virion (virus particle) consists of nucleus acid surrounded by a protein coat. what is the name of this coat?

A

capsid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the two types of virion?

A

Naked: w/o envelope (naked &afraid bc they lack that fatty wall😔)
Enveloped: surrounded by lipid membrane containing matrix proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Viral genome contains only single type of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA. which of these is unstable and causes faster changes?

A

RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a viruses biggest weakness when it comes to replication?

A

it is an obligate intracellular parasite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Every virus contains information to encode proteins for:

a) viral protein coat
b) replication of viral nucleic acid
c) movement in & out of host cells
d) needed enzymes NOT present in infected cell
e) all of the above

A

e) all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Viruses live in these two phases

A

Extracellular phase (Metabolically inert)
outside of living cells, viruses can’t thrive

Intracellular phase (Metabolically active)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Lytic cycle

A

phage lyses infected cell and takes over cellular metabolic processes

*lyse means breakdown of a cell by causing damaging to plasma membrane (cell wall)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Non-Lytic cycle

A

phage extrudes out of infected cell and only partially take over cellular metabolic pathways
Ex. filamentous phages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

T/F Bacteriophage integrates into genome

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

T/F In a lytic cycle, a phage goes into the host cell as one, lyses, then leaves the cell as many

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Lysogenic state

A

phage integrate into host genome or DNA replicates as a plasmid (temperate phages)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Lysogenic conversion

A

phage DNA codes for proteins that modify the properties of the bacterium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Six stages of lytic phage replication by dsDNA phages:

A

1) attachment
2) penetration (stab & inject)
3) transcription
4) replication
5) assembly /maturation
6) release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

T/F Following attachment, phage DNA is injected into the bacterial cell, leaving the phage coat outside

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

During transcription/replication in the lytic cycle, the virus will…

A

-inhibit activity of host DNA
-produce enzymes to destroy host DNA
- have Viral DNA take over & produce proteins
- early viral proteins are synth. and assoc. w/ replication of viral nucleic acid
-late viral proteins are synth. and assoc. w/ other viral structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

T/F As viruses leave the host cell, the envelope is picked up only for eukaryotic viruses

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

T/F A lysogenic state integrates

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

prophage

A

integrated phage DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Lysogenic cell

A

bacterial cell carrying prophage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Steps of Lysogenic cycle

A

1) attachment
2) penetration
3) incorporation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

In the lysogenic state, the host chromosome allows the phage to integrate bc…

A

sequences in the phage & bacterial chromosome are identical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

T/F Phage repressor protein binds phage operator to inhibit expression of excision and lysis genes

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Examples of phages carrying bacterial toxins

A

-cholera toxin
-diphtheria toxin
shiga toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

ssDNA Filamentous phages are assembled & extruded from the cell wall w/o losing the cell. due to this, their DNA replication and synthesis of phage proteins cause bacterial growth to occur my slowly. In E.coli, the phages attach to the tip of the sex pilus but only infect which strain?
F+

A

F+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Transduction

A

DNA is transferred from one bacterial cell(donor) to another (recipient)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is a way that antibiotic resistance gets moved around?

A

generalized transduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Sites can be altered by two mechanisms:

A

mutation & lysogenized bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Bacteria have two genes encoding for restriction-modification system:

A

endonuclease (cuts small segements of DNA that recognize viral DNA)

methylated bases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Phage therapy

A

use bacteriophage as antibacterial to treat patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

phage lysine as antimicrobials

A

use phage enzyme to treat infections as opposed to whole phage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

CRISPR (clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats)

A

phage spacer DNA inserted into CRISPR, provides record of infection

-Transcribed, cut
-small RNAs bind to CAS (CRISPR associated sequences)
-binding of spacer RNA to phage targets phage for destruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Taxonomic criteria based on

A

-genomic structure
-virus particle structure
-presence or absence of envelope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

enteric virus

A

transmitted via fecal-oral route
often cause gastroenteritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

respiratory virus

A

Usually inhaled via infected respiratory droplets
Generally remain localized in respiratory tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

zoonotic virus

A

transmitted from animal to human via animal vector
rabies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

sexually transmitted virus

A

can cause lesions on genitalia or cause systemic infections
HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Types of infections

A

Acute & persistent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

acute infection

A

-short in duration
- host may develop long lasting immunity
-produce large # of viruses during replication
-tissue damage & infection of new cells

47
Q

persistent infections

A

-viruses continuously present in host
-can be divided into 3 categories:
-Latent(periods of no virus then reactivation…HSV-1)
-Chronic(virus always present at high levels…HBV)
-Slow(virus increases over time, disease late…HIV)

48
Q

latent infection

A

-provides integrated into host chromosome or replicated separately
-cannot be eliminated
-can later be reactivated
ex. herpes & chicken pox—> adult=shingles

49
Q

Reproductive cycle of animal virus

A

1) attachment
2) entry into susceptible cell
3) targeting site of reproduction
4)uncoating of virion
-exposes nucleic acid
5) replication of nucleic acid & protein
6) maturation
7) cell lysis
8) speeding w/in host
9) shedding outside host
10) transmission to next host

50
Q

enveloped virion and the plasma membrane of the host may

A

fuse or the virion may be taken into cell by endocytosis

51
Q

naked virion enter by endocytosis but do not

A

fuse with the vesicle membrane

52
Q

Stages of the viral growth cycle

A

-Attachment and penetration by parental virion

-Uncoating of the viral genome

-Early viral mRNA and protein synthesis

-Viral genome replication

-Late mRNA and protein synthesis

-Progeny virion assembly

-Virion release from the cell

53
Q

viral mRNAs have

A

-A methylated GTP cap
-A poly A tail
-mRNA generated by splicing

54
Q

some viruses make more than one type of RNA from one piece of DNA by

A

shifting of the reading frame

55
Q

How do some DNA viruses exercise temporal control of transcription

A

depressor protein prevents transcription of some genes until later

56
Q

diff processes used to generate the monistic mRNAs that code for single protein from polycistronic viral genome

A

-individual mRNAs transcribed by starting at many specific initiation points (herpesviruses, adenoviruses, tumor viruses)

-genome may be segmented into multiple pieces, each coding for single mRNA (reoviruses & influenza)

-entire genome is translated into one long polypeptide which is then cleaved into specific proteins by protease (poliovirus)

57
Q

enveloped virgins acquire the envelope though the

A

golgi apparatus, nuclear of cytoplasmic membrane

58
Q

T/F most cells die due to take over of host cell machinery by virus

A

T

59
Q

Retroviruses (HIV)

A

-contain 2 copies of ssRNA &RT
-ssRNA converted to dsDNA by RT
-dsDNA integrated into to host genome as provirus
-infection may be latent or productive
-viral DNA is transcribed by host RNA polymerase into polycistronic mRNA
-mRNA is translated into long polyprotein
-polyprotein is cleaved by viral encoded protease

60
Q

genetic reassortment

A

two viruses infecting the same cell

61
Q

T/F Reassortment is responsible for antigenic shift in influenza virus

A

T

lead to change in viral surface hemagglutinin expression & inability of antibodies to recognize new influenza strain

loss of herd immunity leading to past & future pandemics

62
Q

T/F viruses can alter properties via point mutations

A

T

63
Q

Tumor virus interacts with/host cells in one of two ways

A

-virus can go thru productive cycle and lyse (lytic cycle does NOT lead to tumor formation)

-virus can transform cell w/o killing it (CAN lead to tumor formation)

64
Q

cancers caused by viruses can result from

A

-Encoding proteins that promote uncontrolled cell growth (stimulation of signal transduction pathways that regulate cell growth)
-Integration of viral oncogenes (causes malignant transformation of normal cells into cancer cells) into host DNA (HTLV-1)
-Activation of host cell proto-oncogenes (involved in host cell growth regulation) by integrating into a key regulatory area

65
Q

plaque assay

A

Determines the number of viruses in solution. A known volume of solution is added to metabolizing cells, and the infection lyses cells and leads to a clear zone or plaque surrounded by uninfected cells. Each plaque represents one virion.

66
Q

Hemagglutinin
causes clumping of red blood cells

A

spike protein attaches to RBC

67
Q

viral infected plants may be recognized via outward signs

A

-pigment loss
-marks on leaves &fruit
-tumors
-stunted growth

*plants generally DONT recover from infections

68
Q

Spread of plant viruses

A

-Viruses infect plants through wound in plant cell wall
-Plant viruses do not attach to specific cell receptors
-Once started, infection spreads from cell to cell through plasmodesmata
-Many viruses resistant to inactivation
-Viruses can be transmitted through soil contaminated by prior growth
-Viruses spread through grafting healthy plants to infected plants
-Viruses can spread via parasitic vine called fodder
-vine establishes simultaneous connection btwn 2 plants
-serves as conduit of transfer

69
Q

Prions

A

-Proteinaceous infectious particles
-linked to fatal human diseases
-afflictions cause brain degeneration
-brain tissue develops sponge like holes
-sides termed transmissible spongiform encephalopathies
*symptoms may not appear for years after infection

70
Q

T/F normal proteins &prions are resistant to UV light and nucleases

A

T

71
Q

T/F prions are inactivated by chemicals that denature proteins

A

T

72
Q

T/F antiviral chemicals interfere with viral replication

A

T

73
Q

In regards to our current options, antiviral medications are not effective against latent infections.

A

T

74
Q

A successful anti-viral will:

A

-Interfere with a virus-specific function
-Interfere w/a cellular function ao that the virus cannot replicate
-Toxicity may be acceptable if there is no other alternative

75
Q

Potential anti-viral targets include:

A

-Attachment
-Viral uncoating
-Transcription of viral genome
-Translation to proteins
-Post-translational modification of proteins
-Assembly

76
Q

Protease inhibitors are used to treat….

A

AIDS patients

77
Q

Enfuvirtide

A

binds to an HIV protein that promotes fusion of viral envelope with cell membrane
Prevent viral entry

78
Q

Maraviroc

A

blocks HIV co-receptor CCR5
Prevent viral entry

79
Q

amantadine and rimantidine interfere with…

A

viral uncoating; nucleic acid must separate from protein coat

block influenza A viruses

80
Q

Anti-viral drugs that block viral nucleic acid synthesis are selective because

A

-virus can use its own enzyme to activate drug
-viral polymerases are much more sensitive to the drug than the corresponding host enzymes

81
Q

T/F Most nucleic acid synthesis inhibiting drugs are nucleoside analogs with an altered sugar, base or both

A

T

82
Q

Nucleoside analogs

A

-similar in structure to nucleoside
-analogs phosphorylated & become nucleotide analogs
-Incorporation of analog results in chain termination /defective strand

83
Q

Examples of nucleoside analogs

A

-Acyclovir, Valaciclovir, Penciclovir, Famciclovir, Ganciclovir
-Ribavarin
-AZT
-DDI
-3TC

84
Q

Acyclovir

A

-herpes simplex virus thymidine kinase
-blocks DNA synthesis (chain terminator)
-effective against:
-HSV-1 (fever blisters)
-HSV-2 (genital herpes)
-HS keratitis (HSV-1)
-Varicella-Zoster Virus (chicken pox, shingles)

85
Q

Ganciclovir

A

-active against CMV (cytomegalovirus)…in children
-used predominantly in AIDS patients

86
Q

Nucleoside inhibitors of reverse transcriptase

A

-AZT
-DDI
-DDC
-chain terminators
-typically used in combos

87
Q

Molnupiravir (Merck)
(Lageviro)

A

-nucleoside analog to promote high level of mutation in viral RNA (NOT chain terminator)

88
Q

Non-Nucleoside Polymerase Inhibitors

A

-inhibit viral polymerases by binding to site other than nucleotide binding site
-Foscarnet used to treat ganciclovir-resistant CMV & acyclovir resistant HSV

89
Q

Non-nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (NNRTIs) inhibit reverse transcriptase by binding to the site other than nucleotide-binding site

A

-often used w/nucleotide analogs to treat HIV infections
-Include nevirapine, delaviridine, efavirenz

90
Q

Prevent Genome Integration

A

-inhibit HIV-encoded enzyme integrase; prevent virus from inserting DNA copy of genome into host cell
-Raltegravir

91
Q

Prevent Assembly & Release of viral particles

A

-During replication of HIV, several proteins are translated as a polyprotein that must be cleaved
-Includes indinavir, ritonavir, saquinavir, nelfinavir

92
Q

Neuraminidase Inhibitors

A

-enzyme encoded by influenza viruses, needed for release
most commonly used

93
Q

Protease inhibitors

A

inhibit HIV encoded enzyme protease
-Ex. indinavir & ritonavir

94
Q

Highly Active Anti-Retroviral Therapies (HAART)

A

-combo therapy consisting of AZT, lamivudine (3TC), and protease inhibitor

95
Q

Antivirals against COVID19

Paxlovid (Pfizer) (nirmatrelvir)

A

-SARSCOV2 Protease inhibitor
-inhibits viral replication
-for mild-moderate COVID-19

96
Q

Neuraminidase (sialidase) inhibitors

A

-inhibit neuraminidase enzyme of influenza
-enzyme essential for release of virus
-Ex. zanamivir(inhalation) & oseltamivir(Tamiflu)(orally)
Effective against influenza A & B

97
Q

HIV Disease belongs to

A

lentivirus subgroup of retrovirus family (ssRNA virus)

98
Q

HIV symptoms

A

-Appear after incubation period of 6 days-6 weeks
-“Flu-like” symptoms (fever, headache, sore throat, muscle aches), enlarged lymph nodes & generalized rash
-Symptoms constitute acute retroviral syndrome (ARS)
-Acute illness followed by asymptomatic period
-AIDS-related complex (ARC)
-fever, weight loss, fatigue, & diarrhea
-tumors or opportunistic infections

99
Q

HIV Pathogenesis

A

-HIV attacks variety of cell types
-After entry, DNA copies of RNA genome produced using reverse transcriptase viral enzyme
-In activated cells virus leaves cell genome & kills cell
-Macrophages have CD4 receptors
-Eventually immune system becomes too impaired to respond

100
Q

HIV gene products & function

A

-Gp160, encoded by the env gene, is cleaved after translation by host enzymes to form gp120 & gp41
-Group-specific antigen gene (gag)
(made as polypeptide then cleaved by protease)
-Pol gene

101
Q

HIV pathogenesis
(destruction of immune system helper T cells by HIV can occur via multiple mechanisms)

A

-lysis following HIV replication
-attack by HIV-specific cytotoxic CD8+ T lymphocytes
-natural killer cells
-antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity
-autoimmune process
-fusion of infected & uninfected cells
-apoptosis

102
Q

HIV Prevention & Treatment

A

-No approved vaccine
-Many people infected are unaware
-Viruses on surfaces can be inactivated w/commercially available disinfectants & heat at 56 C for more than 30 minutes
-Knowledge of transmission greatest tool for control
-Use of condoms not 100% effective but have been shown to decrease transmission
-Avoidance of practices that favor HIV

102
Q

How is HIV transmitted?

A

-sexual intercourse
-blood & blood products
-mother to infant
bodily fluids

102
Q

The treatment for HIV is directed at “cocktails” of drugs. What is this combination?

A

Combination of reverse transcriptase inhibitors and protease inhibitors
-HAART

103
Q

Reverse transcriptase inhibitors fall into these two categories:

A

*Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
-AZT, D4T, & 3TC

*Non-Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
-Nevirapine, efavirenz, & delavirdine

103
Q

In regards to HIV treatment, how do protease inhibitors affect HIV replication?

A

Act late in HIV replication to prevent packaging of viral proteins

104
Q

Prevention vaccine

A

-immunize uninfected individuals against disease

105
Q

Therapeutic vaccine

A

-Boost immunity of those already infected

106
Q

A successful vaccine must

A

-produce both mucosal & blood stream immunity
-get around HIV variability & stimulate cellular & humoral immunity

107
Q

Rifamycins inhibit bacteria by:
A. Inhibiting DNA gyrase
B. Inhibiting RNA polymerase
C. Inhibiting folic acid synthesis
D. Interfering w/membrane integrity

A

B. Inhibiting RNA polymerase

108
Q

Outside of living cells, viruses are:
A. scavenging glucose
B. slowly stockpiling ATP from mitochondria
C. Using cilia to move to the next host
D. Metabolically inert

A

D. Metabolically inert

109
Q

The structure by ??? in T4 bacteriophage is:
A. tailspike
B. enelope
C. capsid
D. baseplate

A

C. capsid

110
Q

The spike protein of a virus:
A. reverse transcribes RNA into DNA
B. facilitates attachment to host cells
C. integrates virus DNA into host genome
D. is important in volleyball tournaments

A

B. facilitates attachment to host cells

111
Q
A