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Study Guide > Avionics > Flashcards

Avionics Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Describe Modular Avionics Units (MAUs).
A

They’re the main computers and processors that control most avionics related applications on aircraft.

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2
Q
  1. Which display units (DUs) are referred to as Multifunction Displays (MFDs)?
A

DU #2 and #3

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3
Q
  1. What part display is cursor restricted from entering?
A

ADI and PEI; otherwise, it can move anywhere in a display window on its associated DUs.

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4
Q
  1. What happens if both cursors are selected to the same DU?
A

Last active cursor has exclusive control in making selections within the display in which both cursors reside.

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5
Q
  1. What’s the purpose of Guidance Panel?
A

It provides most of controls for operation of Automatic Flight Control System (AFCS).

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6
Q
  1. What does an amber MAG2 indicate on both PFDs?
A

It alerts the crew that both pilots are using same source for heading information: in this case, IRS #2.

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7
Q
  1. What does an amber RA2 indicate on both PFDs?
A

It alerts the crew that both pilots’ flight instruments are receiving radio altimeter data from same source.

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8
Q
  1. What’s the purpose of 121.5 EMER guarded physical switch located on side wall above oxygen mask?
A

Enables selection of emergency frequency for total TSC failure.

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9
Q
  1. What happens with selection of Call Inhibit?
A

Prevents GCMS related messages from displaying on CAS display.

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10
Q
  1. What’s the normal location of primary engine instruments?
A

DU2 upper.

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11
Q
  1. What’s the normal location of CAS display?
A

DU3 upper.

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12
Q
  1. What’s the restriction on selection of full windows on DU2 and DU3?
A

Cannot be selected on both DU2 and DU3 at the same time.

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13
Q
  1. What functions are available with Phase-Of-Flight (POF) presets?
A

They can be selected, stored, and reset.

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14
Q
  1. What’s the source of HUD symbols?
A

HUD computer.

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15
Q
  1. What’s the source of video image?
A

EVS image comes from a camera that uses infrared technology and is optimized to detect runway lighting; Synthetic Vision synthesizes flight information from multiple onboard databases, GPS and inertial reference systems into a complete, easy-to-understand 3-D rendering of forward terrain.

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16
Q
  1. How should cloth cover be removed from combiner?
A

Rockwell Collins recommends removing cloth cover after moving combiner to operating position. In like fashion, they recommend reattaching cloth cover before moving combiner to stow position.

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17
Q
  1. How would you know you haven’t placed combiner in correct operating position?
A

“ALIGN HUD” message appears on combiner display. If this occurs, carefully reposition combiner glass and allow it to snap into detents. Don’t use HUD if “ALIGN HUD” message continues to be displayed.

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18
Q
  1. Why does combiner have a breakaway position?
A

It’s a safety feature that allows combiner glass to rotate toward windscreen with head impact and lock in place during sudden aircraft deceleration. This minimizes head injury.

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19
Q
  1. What do top “T” and bottom inverted “T” represent on combiner during HUD Press and Hold test?
A

Upper and lower limit of data displayed on HUD.

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20
Q
  1. What’s the primary symbol used to control aircraft with the HUD?
A

Flight Path Vector (FPV)

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21
Q
  1. What does Aircraft Reference symbol (or Boresight symbol) represent on HUD?
A

Projected centerline of aircraft (boresight).

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22
Q
  1. What’s the difference between HUD uncaged and caged modes?
A

In UNCAGED mode, FPV is free to roam horizontally and vertically. In CAGED mode, FPV is free to move vertically; however, it’s locked in horizontal center. In CAGED mode, FPV indicates plane’s heading and ghost FPV represents track. In UNCAGED mode, boresight represents heading and FPV represents track.

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23
Q
  1. HUD symbols are described as being either conformal or non-conformal. What’s the difference?
A

Conformal symbol has real-world counterpart (e.g., the horizon line represents the horizon degree for degree). Altitude dial is considered non-conformal since it doesn’t represent anything in real world.

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24
Q
  1. Why does horizon line flash on HUD at nose high and nose low attitudes?
A

To indicate non-conformity.

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25
Q
  1. How do you know EVS image is displayed?
A

Upper left portion of combiner indicates EVS A, H, or L. EVS power up / cool down normally takes 10-15 minutes but can take longer if aircraft is hot soaked.

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26
Q
  1. What is NUC?
A

NUC stands for Non-Uniformity Correction. It’s a calibration process that results in cleaner picture and occurs during camera power-up, flaps selected from 0° to 10°, or manual NUC selected.

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27
Q
  1. Describe the three (3) different levels of EVS camera gain.
A

AUTO, H for high, and L for low. Select AUTO if you want camera to automatically adjust gain, H for low visibility, and L for night VMC or day with smog. Indications of your selection appear on upper left portion of combiner: EVS A for AUTO, EVS H for high, or EVS L for low.

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28
Q
  1. How is heat depicted on EVS image?
A

Hotter items from IR camera are depicted as lighter while items with less heat are depicted as darker.

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29
Q
  1. Describe some factors that affect EVS performance.
A

Thick clouds, thermal crossover, blooming, and misalignment.

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30
Q
  1. How can you increase chances of seeing approach and runway lights with EVS in low visibility?
A

Make sure lights are set to full bright prior to commencing the approach and select high gain.

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31
Q
  1. What are requirements for descending below DA with EVS?
A

You need EFVS lights to descend below DA and you need visual cues without the aid of EFVS at 100 ft above TDZE in order to continue and land unless qualified under FAR 91.176 (a) to continue and land with EFVS in lieu of natural vision.

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32
Q
  1. Flight director or autopilot with vertical guidance, either ILS or FMS vertical path, is required for all IMC EVS approaches. How do you determine if obstacle-free path is present?
A

Runway is served by an approach to Decision Altitude (DA).

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33
Q
  1. At what altitude does airport symbol normally appear on HUD?
A

2000’ above airport.

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34
Q
  1. When does runway symbol replace the airport symbol?
A

At 350 ft RA, runway symbol joins airport symbol and at 325 ft RA, airport symbol disappears. Runway symbol is removed from display at 60 ft RA.

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35
Q
  1. When does flare cue appear?
A

100 ft; it moves upward as aircraft approaches the ground and provides flare guidance.

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36
Q
  1. What is provided on HUD unusual attitude display to prevent you from over stressing the aircraft during recovery?
A

G-load digital readout.

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37
Q
  1. What is RNP?
A

Required nav performance: accuracy in NM required for navigation in the area the aircraft is flying and affects CDI sensitivity (i.e., lower RNP equates to greater CDI sensitivity).

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38
Q
  1. What is EPU?
A

Estimated position uncertainty: calculated estimate of accuracy of navigation equipment aboard aircraft. If EPU > RNP, numbers are highlighted by cautionary amber overlay and CDI needle turns amber.

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39
Q
  1. What does magenta dashed line extending from nose of aircraft to compass arc represent on map display?
A

IRS track vector

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40
Q
  1. How do you know if a chart is geo-referenced?
A

A white or green icon appears in right corner of chart’s title bar which enables aircraft’s actual position (displayed as green airplane symbol) to be displayed.

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41
Q
  1. What color messages can be scrolled off the CAS display?
A

Amber, blue and white: red can only be scrolled out of view to show other red messages.

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42
Q
  1. What happens when a red or amber CAS message becomes active?
A

Message displays in inverse video, aural alert sounds (i.e., three chimes for red or two for amber), and respective annunciator on master warning panel illuminates (i.e., red WARN for red or amber CAUT for amber). When annunciator/button is pushed on master warning panel, annunciator extinguishes, tone silences, and message displays normally. If there are red messages already on CAS display when new red message becomes active, new message displays at top of red message stack. If there are amber messages already on CAS display when new amber message becomes active, new message displays at top of amber message stack.

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43
Q
  1. What happens when a blue CAS message becomes active?
A

Message flashes for five (5) seconds and then displays normally, and blue message aural alert is sounded (one chime). No pilot action is required to acknowledge blue messages: you get one (1) chime only. If there are blue messages already on CAS display when new blue message becomes active, new message displays at top of blue message stack.

44
Q
  1. What happens when a white status message becomes active?
A

Message displays similar to blue CAS message but there’s no chime.

45
Q
  1. What are the two (2) types of automatic CAS message filters?
A

Takeoff and Landing, and Power up.

46
Q
  1. When would pilot’s PFD automatically be placed onto DU #2?
A

Failure of DU #1 (or respective AGM)

47
Q
  1. When would copilot’s PFD automatically be placed onto DU #3?
A

Failure of DU #4 (or respective AGM)

48
Q
  1. What would a big red X indicate on a DU?
A

Loss of data (i.e., failure of associated AGM)

49
Q
  1. What would be indicated if DU had a black display?
A

Failed or unpowered.

50
Q
  1. What’s the purpose of DU switches?
A

Allows dispatch with single AGM failed.

51
Q
  1. With airplane on ground, if AGM 1, 2 or 4 fails, selecting the corresponding display system control switch to ALT position causes what to occur?
A

There’s a rearrangement of AGM to DU architecture, DU associated with failed AGM receives graphics, and red X is placed on DU 3.

52
Q
  1. Which displays are considered most important?
A

PFDs are considered most important followed by primary engine display and CAS.

53
Q
  1. If DU1 fails and is subsequently regained by performing Display Unit (DU) Failure procedure, PFD comes back on DU1 and also remains displayed on DU2. How can you unlatch the display and regain your map or synoptic?
A

In flight, you’ll need to press DU Unlatch (OHPTS>DU Ctrl / Test)

54
Q
  1. What occurs when AUTO is selected on flight guidance panel?
A

Both AP and AT engage: one channel of autopilot connects to autopilot system servos that move side stick, and one channel of autothrottle connects to autothrottle system servos that move power levers.

55
Q
  1. What tone is associated with autopilot disengagement?
A

LO/HI/LO triple tone.

56
Q
  1. With AP engaged, what happens when PFD SRC switch is pressed on flight guidance panel?
A

Lateral and vertical modes change to ROL and FPA; autopilot remains engaged.

57
Q
  1. During ILS approach below 1200 feet RA, both green triangles illuminate above PFD SRC switch. What does this indicate?
A

Both navigation receivers’ data is being averaged.

58
Q
  1. Describe methodology behind flight mode annunciations on the PFD.
A

In all cases, a green mode annunciation (right side of mode window) indicates a particular mode is engaged, while a white mode annunciation (left side of mode window) indicates a particular mode is armed only. Whenever mode transitions from armed to engaged, mode is surrounded by green box for five (5) seconds to alert crew that a mode is engaged.

59
Q
  1. What must the source of navigation be when selecting VNAV?
A

Since all VNAV vertical modes are based on FMS altitude and/or constraints, FMS must be the selected NAV source.

60
Q
  1. What is FLCH mode?
A

In all cases FLCH modes are speed hold modes (IAS or MACH), meaning the aircraft changes pitch to maintain speed displayed in FGPs speed window.

61
Q
  1. How does climb or descent rate vary with FLCH?
A

It’s based on the magnitude of altitude change commanded.

62
Q
  1. Describe heading auto sync feature.
A

Pressing SYNCH button in FMS selects Auto Sync (AS) feature which keeps the heading synchronized.

63
Q
  1. When VGP is engaged vertical mode, what’s the effect of any altitude set in FGPs altitude preselect window?
A

It’ll be ignored by AFCS similar to an ILS approach.

64
Q
  1. How is GP altitude preselect window depicted on VSD?
A

As green dashed line across the display and digital readout in upper left corner of the display.

65
Q
  1. What happens when ALTITUDE HOLD button is pressed?
A

If ALT not active, vertical mode is immediately changed to ALT, green cue light illuminates and altitude that existed at the instant the button was pressed is held. If ALT is active, ALT hold is deselected and aircraft goes into FPA mode.

66
Q
  1. When is retard mode activated?
A

Radio altitude < 50 feet with gear down.

67
Q
  1. What’s the indication of normal AT disengagement?
A

AT1 or AT2 flashes amber for five (5) seconds along with an aural tone (i.e., LO/LO/LO triple tone)

68
Q
  1. True/False: GPS is capable of SBAS signals which enables GVIII to execute Localizer Performance with Vertical Guidance (LPV) approaches.
A

True

69
Q
  1. What are long range position sensors on GVIII?
A

Two (2) GPSs and three (3) IRUs. Hybrid IRSs are primary source of navigation input to FMS: they receive GPS input which greatly improves accuracy and reduces drift rate. If both GPSs fail or entire GPS network goes down, FMS uses performance based sensor selection scheme to select best performing sensor.

70
Q
  1. What are the primary short-range position sensors on GVIII?
A

VOR/DME and DME/DME

71
Q
  1. Where is the navigation mode displayed on TSC?
A

Pos Sensors page of FMS.

72
Q
  1. What kind of information do IRUs provide?
A

Position, velocity, heading and attitude data.

73
Q
  1. What would an amber HDG or ATT comparator warning indicate on your PFD?
A

Heading or attitude different from other pilot’s.

74
Q
  1. What would red HDG FAIL and red ATT FAIL annunciations indicate on PFD?
A

IRS failure

75
Q
  1. What’s the default heading and attitude reference for each SFD?
A

Attitude / Heading Reference System (AHRS) unit and magnetometer: attitude from AHRS and heading from magnetometer.

76
Q
  1. What’s the source of air data to SFDs?
A

ADS 4 is direct wired to SFDs; however, other air data systems are selectable.

77
Q
  1. Describe purpose of Air Data System (ADS).
A

It measures pressure and temperature of outside air and supplies this data to using systems. Processed air data provided by ADCs include things like pressure altitude, calibrated airspeed, vertical speed, true airspeed, mach number, AOA, and side slip.

78
Q
  1. Why are TAT probes aspirated by bleed air on ground?
A

To improve accuracy of temperature readings.

79
Q
  1. Describe some features of the GVIII’s weather radar.
A

It controls antenna scan, collects weather and terrain info, and stores it in 3-D memory. Some operational modes include ground mapping, turbulence detection and predictive windshear feature.

80
Q
  1. What is primary and secondary weather and how is it depicted?
A

Primary weather is weather along flight path or flight plan altitude: depicted in solid colors. Secondary weather is weather outside of flight path or flight plan altitude: depicted with cross hatching.

81
Q
  1. What’s the best policy regarding thunderstorms?
A

Avoiding thunderstorms is the best policy. Avoid by at least 20 miles any thunderstorm identified as severe or giving an intense radar echo.

82
Q
  1. What color is turbulence displayed on weather radar?
A

Magenta

83
Q
  1. What happens when Ground Override is selected?
A

This mode overrides forced standby and allows operation of radar on ground: it’s deselected airborne.

84
Q
  1. True/False: If WX is selected and there’s a terrain threat, EGPWS displays threats on map and on PFD, regardless of previous display selection.
A

True

85
Q
  1. How is predicted windshear displayed?
A

By a series of red and black bands in area of windshear event followed by searchlights (amber lines outside of black lines) extending from far edge of windshear event on each side and to the edge of WX data buffer.

86
Q
  1. What does the EGPWS use to predict potential conflicts between aircraft flight path and terrain?
A

Internal worldwide terrain database along with geographic position information.

87
Q
  1. Where can terrain be displayed?
A

On PFD and/or map (including VSD)

88
Q
  1. What are the two VSD terrain display modes?
A

Terrain under Flight Plan and Terrain under Track. When VSD mode is Terrain under Track, green TRACK is displayed below horizontal axis of display. When mode is Terrain under Flight Plan, green FPLN is displayed.

89
Q
  1. What’s the relative elevation of terrain depicted in red or yellow?
A

At or above aircraft’s altitude.

90
Q
  1. Caution look ahead distance is computed from aircraft ground speed and turn rate to provide advanced warning and adequate time for crew response. Depending
    on situation, this distance roughly corresponds to how many seconds of advance warning
A

40 to 60

91
Q
  1. What’s the difference between amber and red WINDSHEAR warnings?
A

Amber WINDSHEAR is for proverse (increasing performance) windshear. Red WINDSHEAR is for adverse (decreasing performance) windshear condition.

92
Q
  1. What’s the difference between amber GND PROX and red PULL UP icons displayed on PFD?
A

Amber GND PROX displays when aircraft is approaching terrain in unusual manner or at excessive rate whereas red PULL UP displays when GPWS senses closure on rising terrain ahead.

93
Q
  1. What is Windshear / CFIT vertical escape maneuver?
A
  1. AP / AT: Disconnect
  2. Pitch: Smoothly increase using up to full aft stick (30° pitch maximum)
  3. Power Levers: Full forward
  4. Once safe climb out is assured: Retract gear / flaps
94
Q
  1. Selecting GPWS Inhibit inhibits all GPWS aural warnings except for what?
A

Windshear

95
Q
  1. In what kind of situation would you select GPWS Inhibit?
A

While flying day VFR approach in areas of high terrain.

96
Q
  1. What callouts are inhibited with selection of the Rad Alt Inhibit?
A

GPWS Mode 6 advisory callouts of altitudes during approach and landing except for “minimums” and “bank angle”.

97
Q
  1. When would you select GPWS Flap Inhibit?
A

In accordance with checklist: to inhibit GPWS voice alarm, “TOO LOW, FLAPS”.

98
Q
  1. Where can traffic be displayed?
A

Three places: HSI, map and traffic synoptic page.

99
Q
  1. What’s the normal TCAS vertical display range?
A

Auto range is ±2700’, +9900’/-2700’ for climbing & +2700’/-9900’ for descending.

100
Q
  1. What’s the meaning of the color yellow on flight plan page?
A

From waypoint.

101
Q
  1. What’s the meaning of the color magenta on flight plan page?
A

To waypoint.

102
Q
  1. What does RTA stand for?
A

Select Required Time of Arrival (RTA) from FMS Task Menu then monitor RTA Prog from Flight Progress.

103
Q
  1. What does BTMS stand for?
A

Enable or disable Brake Temperature Monitoring System (BTMS) from AC Cfg radio button under Perf Takeoff tab of FMS menu. Power-up default is Enabled. Disabling BTMS withholds brake temperature information from FMS.

104
Q
  1. Why does approach speed default to Vref + 5 knots?
A

Accounts for the common 10 knot headwind and turbulence.

105
Q
  1. Under what FMS tab would you find Unit Conversion?
A

Tools

106
Q
  1. What are the limitations associated with navigation database?
A

Verify currency. If out of date, verify latitude / longitude of each waypoint during flight. A current database is required in order to fly any approach procedure using the FMS.

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