Adolescents Flashcards

1
Q

4 principles of child development

A
  1. Child development proceeds along a predictable pathway 2. Range of normal is wide 3. various factors affect development(social, environmental, diseases) 4. The developmental conducts how one does the history and physical(hx from a 5 yr old is different than that from some bratty teen)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

5 APGAR components

A

1.Appearance(Color): Blue=0, pink body/blue extremities=1, pink all over=2 2.Pulse(HR):Absent=0, 100=2 3.Grimace(Reflex irritability): no response=0, 4.Grimace=1, Cries vigorously, sneezes, coughs=2 5. Respiratory Effort: absent=0, slow and irregular=1, good/strong=2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

APGAR Ranges at 1 minute

A

Normal is 8-10, at 1 minute 5-7 means some nervous system depression 0-4 is severe depression, requiring immediate resuscitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

APGAR Ranges at 5 minutes

A

Normal is 8-10 0-7= High risk for subsequent CNS and other organ dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Gestational age

A

Preterm 42 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Birth weight Classification

A

Extremely low < 2500 g normal >= 2500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Newborn Classification

A

Small for gestational age(SGA) 90th percentile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

True or Flase: You should examine the newborn prior to feeding since they will be the most responsive at that time.

A

False: The baby is most responsive 1-2 hours after feeding and that is the optimal time for the exam.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How much should an infants height and weight increase in one year?

A

Birth weight should triple and height should increase by 50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

At what times is it recommended to have health supervision visits?

A

Birth, 1st week, then at 1, 2, 4, 6, 9, 12 months. Called the Infant Periodicity Schedule.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Failure to Thrive

A

Inadequate weight gain for age: Growth2 quartiles in 6 months, weight for height < 5th percentile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Causes of microcephaly

A

ie: small head circumference= chromosomal, congenital infection, maternal metabolic disorder, neurologic insult.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Causes of macrocephaly

A

> 97th percentile= hydrocephalus, subdural hematoma, tumor, familial-benign with notmal brain growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Blood pressure norms

A

Doppler method is the most easily used to get a systolic pressure. in males is should be 70 mmHg at birth, 85 at 1 month, and 90 at 6 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Heart Rates from birth to 1 year

A

birth to 2 months is 140 range is 90-190 birth to 6 months is 130 range is 80-180 6-12 months is 115 range is 75-155

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Pulse that is too rapid may be caused by:

A

Paroxysmal SVT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Bradycardia in an infant:

A

drug ingestions, hypoxia, intracranial conditions, heart block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Respiratory Rate

A

between 30-60 in the newborn.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Tachypnea birth to 2 months

A

greater than 60/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Tachypnea 2-12 months

A

greater than 50/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Fever can raise rate by (blank) for each degree rise in temp. PNA is common cause

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

rapid shallow rates may mean:

A

cyanotic cardiac disease, right to left shunt, metabolic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Temperature

A

Average Rectal temp is higher-99.0 F until age 3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Fever in infants less than 2-3months

A

greater than 38C or 100F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Cutis Marmorata

A

Vasomotor abnormality in the dermis due to cooling or chronic exposure to heat. Lattice-like bluish mottled appearance on the trunk, arms, and legs. May last for months. Could also be due to hypothyroidism, Down syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Acrocyanosis

A

Blue cast to the hands and feet when exposed to cold. Common in newborns and may occur throughout infancy. If it DOES NOT disappear within 8 hours or with warming r/o cyanotic congenital heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Harlequin Dyschromia

A

Occasionally in newborns there is a transient cyanosis over one half of the body or one extremity, presumably from vascular instability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Central Cyanosis

A

Assessed at the tongue, oral mucosa, NOT the nails. May signify congenital heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Cafe Au Lait spots

A

Pigmented light brown lesions <1-2cm. Isolated= no big deal. Multiple lesions with smooth borders may mean Neurofibromatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Miliaria Rubra

A

Scattered vesicles on an erythematous base, usually on the face and trunk, result from obstruction of the sweat ducts; disappears within weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Erythema Toxicum

A

May appear at 2-3 days of life. Rash that consists of erythematous macules with central pinpoint vesicles scattered diffusely over the entire body. Look like flea bites. Unknown etiology and should disappear in 1 week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Pustular Melanosis

A

More common in African American infants. Appears at birth. Rash of vesiculopustules over a brown macular base. May last for months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Milia

A

Pin sized smooth white raised areas without surrounding erythema on the nose, chin, and forehead resulting from retention of sebum in the openings of the sebaceous glands. Appears within the first few weeks and disappears over several weeks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Lanugo

A

Fine, downy growth of hair that covers the entire body, especially the shoulders and back. Sheds within the first few weeks. More prominent in premature infants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Jaundice

A

You should know what this is. You should also know that if it appears within the first 24 hours it may mean hemolytic disease of the newborn. If it persists beyond 2-3 weeks it may mean biliary obstruction of liver disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Salmon Patch

A

also called a stork bite or capillary hemangioma. May appear on the nape of the neck, eyelids, forehead, or upper lip. They are distended capillaries and not nevi and should disappear in a week.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Anterior Fontanelle

A

at birth it measures 4-6cm in diameter and usually closes between 4 and 26 months(90% twixt 7-19 months)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Posterior Fontanelle

A

usually measures 1-2cm and closes by 2 months. Enlarged posterior fontanelle may mean congenital hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Molding

A

Overlap of the sutures at birth. Due to passage of the head in vaginal birth. disappears in 2 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Caput Succedaneum

A

Swelling in the occipital region from vaccuum effect of amniotic sac rupture. CROSSES the suture lines. resolves in 1-2 days

41
Q

Cephalohematoma

A

scalp swelling caused by subperiosteal hemorrhage from trauma at birth. This does NOT cross over the suture and resolves in 3 weeks. May have calcified rim with a soft center

42
Q

dolichocephaly

A

Premature infants head that has a long occipitofrontal diameter with a narrow bitemporal diameter. Resolves in 1-2 years

43
Q

Plagiocephaly

A

asymmetrical shape of the head when an infant lays on one side too much. Can resolve spontaneously or it signify torticollis-injury to the SCM, or lack of stimulation of the infant

44
Q

Craniosynositis

A

Premature closure of the cranial sutures-abnormally shaped skull

45
Q

Sagittal suture synositis

A

Narrow head from lack of growth of the parietal bones

46
Q

Craniotabes

A

upon palpation of the infant skull, the bones may feel soft. In this condition they will feel “springy”. Signify increased ICP with hydrocephaly, metabolic disturbances like rickets, and congenital syphilis

47
Q

Chvosteks sign

A

Palpate the infants face. + sign is cosistent facial contraction and it may mean hypocalcemic tetany, tetanus, or tetany due to hyperventilation

48
Q

Strabismus

A

Convergent or divergent persisting beyond 3 months, or persistent strabismus of any type may indicate ocular motor weakness.

49
Q

Visual Milestones in infancy

A

Birth- Blinks, may regard face 1 month- Fixes on object 1.5-2 months- Coordinated eye movements 3 months- Eyes converge, baby reaches 12 months- Acuity around 20/50

50
Q

Optic Blink Reflex

A

Blinking in response to bright light and to the quick movement of an object toward the eyes

51
Q

Red Relfex

A

Red color from the retina reflected when viewing the infants eyes through the opthalmascope from 10 inches away

52
Q

Cloudy Cornea

A

Due to congenital glaucoma. obscures the normal red reflex

53
Q

White Retinal Reflex

A

Leukokoria-could be caused by cataract, retinal detachment, chorioretinitis, or retinoblastoma

54
Q

True/False: Small retinal Hemorrhages can be normal in some newborns.

A

True. But extensive retinal hemorrhages may mean severe anoxia, subdural hematoma, subarachnoid hemorrhage, trauma

55
Q

True/False: Retinal pigment changes are common and normal during the ocular development of a newborn?

A

False: pigment changes occur with things like congenital toxoplasmosis, cytomegalovirus, rubella

56
Q

Assess the position of the ears in a newborn

A

An imaginary line from the inner/outer canthi of the eyes should cross the auricle or pinna. If not the kid has low set ears. May indicate congenital defects like renal disease

57
Q

Acoustic blink reflex

A

blinking of the infants eyes in response to a sharp sound.

58
Q

Signs that an infant is able to hear

A

0-2 months- startle in response to loud noise, calms to soothing voice/music. 2-3 months- change in body movements in response to a sound, change in expression to familiar sounds. 3-4 months- Turning eyes and head to sound. 6-7 months- turns to listen to voices and conversation.

59
Q

What is the most important component of assessing the newborn nose?

A

Patency of the nasal passages. Occlude one nostril then the other. If you occlude both simultaneously, you are an idiot.

60
Q

Shrill or high pitched cry:

A

increased ICP. Or kids born to narcotic-addicted mothers.

61
Q

Hoarse cry

A

Hypocalcemic tetany or congenital hypothyroidism

62
Q

Continuous inspiratory and expiratory stridor

A

upper airway obstruction or delay in development of the laryngeal cartilage

63
Q

Absence of cry

A

severe illness, vocal cord paralysis, or profound brain damage

64
Q

Epstein’s Pearls

A

tiny white or yellow rounded mucous retention cysts located along the posterior midline of the hard palate. Disappear within months

65
Q

Apnea

A

Cessation of breathing for more than 20 seconds. May be accompanied by bradycardia

66
Q

Peripheral pulses in neonates

A

Brachial, ante cubital fossa, femoral and temporal

67
Q

Most common dysrhythmia in infants

A

Paroxysmal SVT or paroxysmal atrial tach. Can occur at any age or in utero.

68
Q

Closing ductus murmur

A

In newborns- transient, soft, ejection murmur at ULSB

69
Q

Peripheral pulmonary murmur

A

Soft ejectile murmur(systolic) ULSB radiating to axillae

70
Q

Premature thelarche

A

Breast development that occurs twixt 6 months and 2 years

71
Q

True/False: the clavicle may be fractured at birth.

A

TRUE

72
Q

Ortolani test

A

tests for a posteriorly dislocated hip. Abduct both hips. Listen for the “clunk”. A palpable movement of the femoral head back in= positive Ortolani.

73
Q

Barlow

A

Tests the ability to sublux an intact but unstable hip.

74
Q

Galeazzi or Alice test

A

Test done at 3 months to assess for femoral shortening. Baby supine, knees bent with feet flat on table-are the knees in line or not?

75
Q

True/False: True deformities of the feet do not not return to the neutral position with manipulation.

A

True. Inward deviation of the feet is common position in utero. The clinician should be able to align them into the neutral position, unless it is a deformity.

76
Q

Talipes Equinovarus

A

Club foot. Most common severe congenital foot deformity.

77
Q

Assess CN I

A

Difficult to assess.

78
Q

Assess CN II

A

hold the baby and look him/her in the eye and look for facial response and tracking

79
Q

CN III

A

Response to light, blink reflex

80
Q

EOM’s

A

III, IV, VI- observe the baby tracking a light or a zit on your face.

81
Q

CNV

A

Motor- rooting reflex, sucking reflex

82
Q

CN VII

A

Observe baby crying, smiling. Not symmetry of face and forehead.

83
Q

CN VIII

A

Acoustic blink reflex

84
Q

CN IX, X

A

swallowing? gag reflex

85
Q

CN XI

A

observe symmetry of shoulders

86
Q

CN XII

A

sucking swallowing, tongue thrusting, pinch the nostrils and observe reflex opening of the mouth

87
Q

Anal Reflex

A

Present at birth and should be assessed for spinal cord patency

88
Q

Grasp reflex

A

baby will flex all fingers when something is placed in the palm. birth to 3/4months

89
Q

Plantar grasp reflex

A

toes should curl when the sole of the foot is touched at the base of the toes. Birth to 6/8months. Persistence may suugest pyramidal tract issue.

90
Q

Moro reflex

A

hold baby supine ad lower abruptly. arms should abduct, hands open and legs flex. birth to 4 months. Persistence may suggest cerebral palsy

91
Q

Asymmetric tonic neck reflex

A

baby supine, turn head to one side, arms and legs on the side where the head is turned should extend the opposite side should flex. Birth to 2 months. persistence may suggest cerebral palsy or asymmetric CNS issue

92
Q

Positive support reflex

A

hold the baby up and let legs extend and feet touch the table, kid should partially stand. birth or 2 months to 6 months. Lack of this= hypotonia, spasticity= neurologic disease or palsy

93
Q

Rooting reflex

A

Stroke perioral skin, mouth should open and baby will turn toward stimulus. absence may indicate general CNS issue

94
Q

Trunk Incurvation(Galant’s Reflex)

A

hold baby prone and stoke one side of the back 1 cm from midline from shoulder to butt-spine should curve towards the stimulated side. Birth to 3/4 months. Absence may mean spinal cord injury

95
Q

Placing and stepping reflex

A

pretend walking reflex. variable age to disappear. absence may mean paralysis, also babies born breech may not have placing reflex.

96
Q

Landau reflex

A

hold baby prone with one hand. The head should lift up and spine will straighten. Persistence may indicate delayed development

97
Q

Parachute reflex

A

suspend the baby prone and slowly lower the head, arms and legs will extend in a protective fashion. 4-6 months and does not disappear. Delay may indicate delays in voluntary motor development.

98
Q

Development Quotient

A

developmental age divided by chronological age times 100. Normal is greater than 85 possibly delayed is 70-85 delayed is less than 70