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ARRT Kettering > Patient Care (Kettering Audio) > Flashcards

Patient Care (Kettering Audio) Flashcards

1
Q

“Mr. Jones do you mind if I do a portable chest x-ray on you tonight?” and the patient acknowledges that.

A

Oral/Informed Consent

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2
Q

“Mr. Jones step up here on the board so I that I can do a chest x-ray on you.” and the patient follows your orders.

A

Implied Consent

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3
Q

When does an examination require a written consent?

A

when the exam becomes invasive

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4
Q

When you break the skin, inject iodine, and there is a chance of a reaction:

A

invasive consent

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5
Q

Parental Contrast Procedures require:

A

written consent

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6
Q

A technologist should prior to an exam if a patient asks a question:

A

answer all questions clearly
take time with the patient to answer questions
they can ask me 17 questions and offer up the time for 16 of them answered.

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7
Q

As a technologist we NEVER:

A

give out the diagnosis

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8
Q

For minors below the age of 18 or an elderly grandma who can no longer think on their own:

A

IS NOT HIPAA violation. But every single person outside of that is HIPAA

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9
Q

As a technologist you should never:

A

make a patient do an exam against his or her will. They have the right to refuse an exam.

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10
Q

What does HIPAA stand for?

A

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

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11
Q

“But its my own spouse”

A

HIPAA Violation

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12
Q

“But its cousin Fred”

A

HIPAA Violation

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13
Q

“But its my brother”

A

HIPAA Violation

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14
Q

You overhear two coworkers discussing confidentiality in the hall, who are you going to report that violation to:

A

ARRT Ethics Committee

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15
Q

Bill of Rights (AHA) American Hospital Association:

A

The patient has the right to:
considerate and respectful care
receive from his physician any information necessary to give informed consent
Refuse treatment

(look for the work NOT) it will not be correct.

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16
Q

the right to refuse medical treatment including a radiographic procedure

A

Autonomy

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17
Q

DNR: (extent of care)

A

Do not resuscitate

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18
Q

Living will is also known as:

A

health care proxy

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19
Q

we dont just say the patient hurt their hand we say.

A

the patient had trauma to the third metacarpal

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20
Q

responsible for determining the patient’s chief complaint or the single most important issue

A

physician

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21
Q

A patient has the following ordered, put n the number what order should be done in:

IVU
BE
KUB
UGI

A

KUB
IVU
BE
UGI

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22
Q

A patient can only take off half a day and they have to have multiple exams preformed on the same day rules:

A
  1. non-contrast studies come first
  2. Iodinated contrast studies secondly
    *always do the BE before the UGI first.
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23
Q

Prioritizing patient waiting time. The following patients require priority scheduling:

A
  1. ER Patients
  2. Any type of NPO/Dietary Restrictions
  3. Routine Patients
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24
Q

Who do we take orders from?

A
  1. Pa (who is being covered by the physician license)
  2. Nurse Practitioner (who is being covered by the physician license)
  3. Physician
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25
Q

You walk out into a busy waiting room and you say “Mr. Jones, three people stand up, the system is backed up, they are tired waiting. What do you do as the technologist?

A

Mr. Jones “what is your DOB, how old are you?”
*right exam right patient

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26
Q

The radiographer maintains the responsibility for proper patient identification, what is used to identify inpatients?

A

Wrist band
Bed name plate

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27
Q

What proper patient identification is used for outpatients?

A

questioning the patient, confirmation of birth date, account number or social security numbers are personal modifiers.

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28
Q

We get an order that says “leg” “arm”, or a patient has pain in the left leg and the order says right leg, who do you take the exam back to?

A

The Ordering Physician

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29
Q

Anytime you have a question about the order what do you do?

A

take the order to the ordering physician

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30
Q

defamation by printed or written words inaccuracies or misstatements

A

Libel

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31
Q

Do not say “the patient was drunk”, do not say “the patient was intoxicated”, what you do say is:

A

the patient smelled of alcohol
the patient appeared intoxicated

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32
Q

You will never hear a radiologist say “there are no fractures”, what they say is:

A

“no fracture identified”

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33
Q

If you say there is no fractured identified on an order and later find out there was a fracture that was missed:

A

Libel Statement

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34
Q

Which of the following statements are libel statements:
“the patient was drunk”
“the patient was intoxicated”
“the patient smelled of alcohol”
“the patient appeared drunk”
“there are no fractures”
“no fractures identified”

A

the patient was drunk, the patient was intoxicated, there are no fractures.

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35
Q

The threat of touching in an injurious manner:

A

Assault

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36
Q

“the patient lay still before I beat you up”
“patient lay still before I beat you with the cassette”

A

Assault

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37
Q

The patient feels threatened by which the tone we say it:

A

Assault

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38
Q

The patient feels threatened by the tone of the voice:

A

Assault

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39
Q

The tone of the voice, they feel threatened by the commands:

A

Assault

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40
Q

Unlawful Touching:

A

Battery

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41
Q

If you perform an exam on a patient who never was scheduled for that specific exam:

A

Battery

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42
Q

If you perform the wrong part on the patient, requisition for a right knee, yet you mistakenly do a left knee:

A

Battery

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43
Q

Make a patient get an exam against his or her will:

A

Battery

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44
Q

An unjustifiable detention of a person against his/her own will.

A

False Imprisonment

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45
Q

Who is the only person that can order a restraint device?

A

Physician

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46
Q

The only person that can allow restraint devices to be used are the:

A

Physicians (NEVER technologist)

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47
Q

The neglect or omission of reasonable care and caution:

A

Negligence

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48
Q

Something I failed to do:

A

Negligance

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49
Q

Something I actually did:

A

Malpractice

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50
Q

Defamation by written or printed words.

A

Libel

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51
Q

Defamation by spoken words

A

Slander

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52
Q

An intentional or unintentional act resulting in injury to a patient

A

Tort

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53
Q

There is an order for a 5 view lumbar spine, you roll the patient in, you preform the 5 view lumbar spine, walk out of the room to take the cassette to walk station. You walk back into the room to see that the patient was on the table and is now lying on the floor:

A

Intentional Tort because you never leave the patient unattended.

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54
Q

If you did the 5 view lumbar spine, transferred the patient over to the stretcher and come back in and see that you did not put the rails up and see the patient was lying on the floor:

A

Intentional Tort because you can not leave patient’s on beds with the rails not properly secured.

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55
Q

When you transfer the patient back over the stretcher, properly secure the rails, and you come back in and the patient is on the ground (the patient decided to crawl over the rails)

A

Unintentional Tort

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56
Q

“Let the master answer”

A

Respondeat Superior

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57
Q

An employer can be held liable for the actions of an employee

A

Respondeat superior

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58
Q

“The thing speaks for itself”

A

Res ipsa loquitur

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59
Q

Requires the defendant (the individual being sued) to prove his or her innocence

A

Res ipsa loquitur

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60
Q

Pig-O-Stat, sand bags, sponges, tape used properly:

A

all immobilization devices used by the technologist 24/7 36/5

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61
Q

Devices used to reduce patient dose because of motion and repeats

A

Immobilization Devices

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62
Q

Tape used improperly or incorrectly:

A

illegal restraint

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63
Q

The patient had his or her hands taped against his or her will.

A

Illegal Restraint Device

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64
Q

Presentation of material is considered an example of what mode of communication?

A

Verbal/Written Communication

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65
Q

Attitudes are considered an example of what mode of communication?

A

Verbal/Written

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66
Q

Voice tone and volume are considered an example of what mode of communication?

A

Verbal/Written

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67
Q

Effective listening is an example of what mode of communication?

A

Verbal/Written

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68
Q

Eye contact is considered an example of what mode of communication

A

Non-verbal

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69
Q

Touching is considered an example fo what mode of communication?

A

Non-verbal

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70
Q

Facial Expression is considered what mode of communication?

A

Non-Verbal

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71
Q

the sum of verbal and non-verbal communication

A

Meta communication

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72
Q

A sensitivity to the needs of others that allows you to meet those needs in a constructive manner?

A

Empathy

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73
Q

“Patient I sure do understand”
“Patient I sure am sorry”
“Patient I understand because I understand what you are going through”

A

Empathy

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74
Q

The grieving process involves five steps:

A
  1. Denial
  2. Anger
  3. Bargaining
  4. Depression
  5. Acceptance
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75
Q

use reflective answers and give support without being unrealistic

A

Denial

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76
Q

answers to patient questions should be of a “matter of fact” nature

A

Anger

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77
Q

directions given the patient should be clear and simple

A

Bargaining

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78
Q

responses should be quiet and supportive

A

Depression

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79
Q

Show a willingness to listen to the patient as they communicate the nature of their loss

A

Acceptance

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80
Q

Cropping of masking off anatomy

A

Only mask to the edge of the collimated field, DO NOT crop ANATOMY

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81
Q

What should we as technologists not manipulate?

A

exposure indicator

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82
Q

Processessing algorithm

A

Look up tables, applies the appropriate histogram to anatomy

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83
Q

Interacting with others such as the elderly (Age)

A

speak up with elderly patients/slow down

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84
Q

Explanation of medical terms:

A

we should allow patients to ask us questions prior to the examination
Pre-post examination
NEVER give out the diagnosis

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85
Q

As a male technologist, walk out into the waiting room and call the patients name, immediately I see that the patient is female and muslim, what should the technologist do?

A

Should not do: Get her in a private setting and ask her questions she is uncomfortable with, “can you take your top off” “is there any chance you might be pregnant”
Should do: recognize that she has values and beliefs, get a coworker/colleague because she is more comfortable with her.

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86
Q

As a technologist I do not speak spanish and that is all my patient speaks. How would you best handle this?

A

Get a colleague or coworker

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87
Q

What is the patient prep for an Upper GI?

A

NPO 8 hours prior to
NPO after midnight old school

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88
Q

What is the patient prep for an IVU, Scheduled BE?

A

Cleanse the bowel
Start an enema cleansing bowel prep
Fleeks kit, Easy Prep
24 hours prior to, light liquids only, NPO 8 hours prior to.

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89
Q

A patient presents and you preform a BE and you want to know if it is ok to send the patient with these post-instructions.Is is ok to tell the patient to:
a. drink plenty of fluids after they had the BE (yes)
b. tell the patient that if they haven’t had a BM in 24 hours to contact the physician (yes)
c. Is is ok to tell the patient that they will see barium when they use the bathroom (yes)
d. Is is ok to tell the patient to use a laxative (NO) because you can throw off their PA balance.

A

KNOW, a technologist is never to prescribe anything such as a laxative.

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90
Q

Does CT use radiation?

A

Yes

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91
Q

Does MRI use radiaiton?

A

NO

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92
Q

Does ultrasound use radiation?

A

NO

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93
Q

Does Radiation Therapy use radiation?

A

YES

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94
Q

If a patient is going to be having an MRI:

A

Ask them if they were ever exposed to metal

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95
Q

If a patient is going to have a pelvic ultrasound it requires:

A

a full bladder

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96
Q

MRI patients must be questioned regarding:

A
  1. internal metal
  2. electronic or magnetically activated implants or devices
  3. Only MRI sage equipment in Room.
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97
Q

PET stands for:

A

Positron Emission Tomography

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98
Q

Uses an x-ray beam to produce images of the breast:

A

Mammography

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99
Q

Patient Prep for mammography?

A

ensure the patient is not wearing any powders or lotions on the breasts or underarm deoderant

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100
Q

uses ultrasonic waves directed into tissues to visualize deep structures of the body

A

Sonography

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101
Q

uses radio-frequencies and a magnetic field to produce sectional images of the body

A

MRI (magnetic resonance imaging)

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102
Q

uses an x-ray beam to record predetermined planes in the body

A

Computed Tomography (CT)

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103
Q

introduces radioactive substances into the body for diagnostic as well as therapeutic purposes

A

Nuclear medicine

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104
Q

Uses dual energy x-ray absorption (DEXA or DXA) to detect osteoporosis by measuring the density of bone. Do not perform the study if the patient has had a recent barium contrast or nuclear medicine examination

A

Bone densitometry (BD)

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105
Q

Patient Prep for a CT exam?

A

based on the exam being preformed, if the exam is utilizing contrast media the patient must be NPO after midnight. Thorough patient history must be taken.

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106
Q

MRI Patient Prep:

A

If the exam is utilizing contrast media NPO after midnight. Thorough patient history. All metal must be removed and to make sure that there is no metal in the body.

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107
Q

Sonography Patient Prep:

A

drink plenty of water

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108
Q

What is the relationship between the wheelchair and x-ray table when transferring?

A

Parallel, 45-degrees

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109
Q

When transferring the patient from the wheelchair to the x-ray table:

A

place strong arm closest to the table when transferring. Do not ask the patient if they are right or left handed. Evaluate if there is a cast on the arm, CVA that caused paralysis on one side of the arm. Place strong arm closest to the table when transferring.

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110
Q

Rules of Body Mechanics:

A
  1. provide a wide and stable base of support and maintain alignment
  2. Standing with feet apart and one foot slightly in front of the other.
  3. keep load well balance and close to the body when lifting.
  4. keep back straight and avoid twisting the trunk
  5. Work at a comfortable height
  6. better to PUSH a heavy object
  7. better to PULL the patient onto stretcher or table.
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111
Q

Is it better to Push/Pull a heavy object? example: wheelchair, stretcher

A

Push

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112
Q

Is it better to Push/Pull a patient?

A

Pull

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113
Q

The method of moving the patient with spinal injury, metastatic disease, fracture and subluxation:

A

Log Rolling

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114
Q

Which of the following pathologies could the log rolling technique be used?

A

subluxation fracture
subluxation

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115
Q

The log rolling technique requires:

A

3-5 people
Two on each side and one at the head (team leader)
Support the hips and shoulders to work in unison

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116
Q

Which person for the log rolling technique calls the shots and when to roll the patient in unison?

A

The person at the head of the the patient.

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117
Q

What is the Pulmonary Artery (Swan Ganz) catheter used for?

A

Diagnosis of the right and left ventricular failure and pulmonary disorders
Monitor effects of specific medications

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118
Q

Where can you find the tip of the Swan Ganz cathetor?

A

Tip of the pulmonary artery

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119
Q

Nasal Cannula

A

Delivers Oxygen to the Nostrils

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120
Q

Nasal Cannula flow:

A

low flow device
1-6 L/MINUTE (21% to 60% oxygen)

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121
Q

Used on patients that do not tolerate a nasal cannula

A

Oxygen mask

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122
Q

Non-rebreather mask flow:

A

15 L/MINUTE
60-90% oxygen to the patient

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123
Q

Oxygen Mask flow:

A

greater than 5 L/MINUTE

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124
Q

Oxygen Tent

A

Commonly used on pediatric patients

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125
Q

Oxygen is delivered at a higher concentration than room air

A

Oxygen Tent

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126
Q

Feeding tube is also called a:

A

Nasogastric Tube

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127
Q

Used for feeding or for gastric suction

A

Nasogastric Tube

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128
Q

When a tube is left in the tracheotomy opening:

A

TracheOSTOMY

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129
Q

Surgical opening cut in the trachea to create an artificial airway

A

TracheOTOMY

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130
Q

A urinary catheter, does it go below or above the site of insertion?

A

Below

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131
Q

An IV, does it go below or above the site of insertion?

A

Above

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132
Q

A closed chest drainage tube, does it go below or above the site of insertion?

A

Below

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133
Q

Used to remove free air or fluid from the pleural cavity

A

Closed Chest Drainage

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134
Q

Pleural Effusion:

A

fluid in the pleural cavity

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135
Q

Pneumotorax

A

air in the pleural cavity

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136
Q

Hemothorax

A

Blood in the pleural cavity

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137
Q

Pyothorax

A

pus in the pleural cavity

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138
Q

Used for the drainage and collection of urine

A

Urinary Catheter

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139
Q

What is the minimum height of a bag of barium when performing a BE?

A

45 cm (18 inches)

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140
Q

What is the minimum height of a bottle of contrast for a cystogram?

A

Minimum of 18 inches (45 cm)

1inch= 2.5 cm

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141
Q

What is the maximum height of a bag of barium when performing a BE?

A

24 inches (60 cm)

1 inch = 2.5 cm

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142
Q

What is the maximum height of a bottle of contrast for a cystogram?

A

24 inches (60 cm)

1 inch=2.5 cm

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143
Q

Always maintain a solution bottle/bag/IV bag:

A

18 inches minimum (45 cm) to 24 inches maximum (60cm) above the level of the vein

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144
Q

Device used to measure patient’s blood pressure:

A

sphygomomanometer

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145
Q

Used for auscultation (listening) to the heart, lung, or abdominal sounds:

A

Stethoscope

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146
Q

Pulse rate and oxygen saturation percentage:

A

Pulse oximeter

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147
Q

Pulse normal value for an adult:

A

60-100 beats/minute

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148
Q

Pulse Normal Value for Children:

A

90-100 beats/minute

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149
Q

Pulse normal value for infant:

A

80-120 beats/minute

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150
Q

Most common for pulse palpation site for a patient in cardiac arrest:

A

carotid artery

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151
Q

Pulse palpation site for skull:

A

temporal artery

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152
Q

Pulse palpation site for neck:

A

carotid artery

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153
Q

Pulse palpation site for grion:

A

femoral artery

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154
Q

Pulse palpation site for lower extremity:

A

dorsal pedis artery

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155
Q

Where can you find the dorsal pedis artery?

A

lower extermity

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156
Q

Where can you find the femoral artery?

A

Groin

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157
Q

Where can you find the radial artery?

A

Upper Extremity

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158
Q

Where can you find the carotid artery?

A

NeckWhere

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159
Q

can you find the temporal artery?

A

Skull

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160
Q

What is the most common site to take the pulse if the patient is conscious?

A

Wrist (radial artery)

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161
Q

What is the most common site to take the pulse if the patient is unconscious?

A

Neck (carotid artery)

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162
Q

fast heart rate, greater than 100 beats per minute:

A

Tachycardia

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163
Q

slow heart rate, less than 60 beats per minute:

A

Bradycardia

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164
Q

represents the pressure created during the contraction of the left ventricle

A

Systolic

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165
Q

represents the pressure within the vascular system with the heart at rest:

A

Diastolic

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166
Q

Blood pressure equation:

A

Systolic/Diastolic

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167
Q

Blood pressure of 120/80, which is the diastolic?

A

80

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168
Q

Blood pressure of 120/80, which is the systolic?

A

120

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169
Q

Which one is relaxation of the heart?

A

Diastolic

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170
Q

What is the contraction of the heart?

A

Systolic

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171
Q

High arterial pressure:

A

Hypertension

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172
Q

Above 140 mmHg systolic:

A

hypertension

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173
Q

Above 90 mmHg diastolic:

A

Hypertension

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174
Q

low arterial blood pressure

A

Hypotension

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175
Q

Below 95 mmHg systolic

A

hypotension

176
Q

Below 60 mmHg diastolic:

A

Hypotension

177
Q

Adult normal blood pressure:

A

systolic:110-140 mmHg
diastolic: 60-80 mmHg

178
Q

Children normal blood pressure:

A

systolic: 70-112 mmHg
diastolic: 26-70 mmHg

179
Q

Infant normal blood pressure:

A

systolic: 60-105 mmHg
diastolic: 22-60 mmHg

180
Q

Normal range for an adult respiratory rate:

A

12-20 breaths per minute

181
Q

Normal range for children respiratory rate:

A

30-60 breaths per minute

182
Q

Normal respirations are:

A

normal, quiet, effortless, and uniform

183
Q

Apnea

A

cessation of breathing (no breathing)

184
Q

Bradypnea

A

slow breathing

185
Q

Tachypnea

A

Rapid breathing

186
Q

When more than normal effort is required to breathe, the patient may be described as:

A

dyspneic or having dyspnea

187
Q

Eupnea:

A

normal breathing

188
Q

How do you remove clothes from a stroke victim/traumatic injury/shoulder dislocation/shoulder seperation. How do you properly take the shirt off and put it back on?

A

Take off: take good arm out first and then slide it off the stroke/injured side
Put on: put stroke/injured side first/

189
Q

A patient presents on an immobilization device such as a spine board/c-collar:

A

a technologist never removes patient from the immobilization device without a physicians order to do so

190
Q

Horizontal Lateral/cross-table lateral/c-spine:

A

Never move the patient on the immobilization device without the physician order

191
Q

The patient fell under your watch who do you report that to?

A

immediate supervisor

192
Q

You get a needle stick in the performance of your job report to:

A

immediate supervisor

193
Q

When you overhear the coworker discussing patient confidentiality who do you report that to?

A

ARRT Ethics Comittee

194
Q

The problem you are having is with the supervisor themselves who do you report that to?

A

directly to their supervisor

195
Q

Results from cervical trauma and affects the body from the neck down:

A

Quadroplegia

196
Q

results from trauma to lower portion of the spinal column and affect the lower half of the body

A

Paraplegia

197
Q

usually results from a stroke and its effects are limited to one side of the body

A

Hemiplegia

198
Q

What do you do if abnormal vital signs are recognized?

A
  1. stop the procedure
  2. stabilize
  3. call for help
199
Q

doctors can call cervical collars and what helps?

A

orthotics or orthoses, log roll

200
Q

Signs of a Stroke?

A
  1. Facial Drooping
  2. Arm Weakness
  3. Speech Slurring
  4. Time to Call

(FAST)

201
Q

When moving patients from one location to another, what is required?

A

Wheeled transport

202
Q

Before transferring a patient:

A
  1. check the safety of the equipment
  2. provide clear instructions to the patient
  3. Get help if needed
203
Q

A technologist should always document:

A

factual information, not opinions

204
Q

Incident reports should be:

A

completed fully and provided to the supervisor

205
Q

When a moving a fracture of a long bone:

A

always support both joints (proximal and distal) and move the extremity as a complete unit

206
Q

The height of the vertebral body has been comprimised?

A

Compressed Fracture

207
Q

The best way to identify compression fractures:

A

any lateral view of the spine

208
Q

Two or more pieces of bone:

A

Comminuted Fracture

209
Q

Cuts 90 degrees off the long axis, is what fracture?

A

Transverse Fracture

210
Q

the skin is not broken by this fracture

A

Closed Fracture

211
Q

The broken bone(s) break through the skin:

A

Open Fracture

212
Q

Bones are not anatomically aligned:

A

Displaced fracture

213
Q

Bone is fractured but there is still normal alignment:

A

displaced fracture

214
Q

What fracture breaks the skin?

A

compound

215
Q

a dislocation of a joint space (any joint)

A

subluxation

216
Q

a fracture that effects children

A

bending fracture

217
Q

A fracture most commonly of the head of the fourth of fifth metacarpal (deviation of metacarpal):

A

Boxers Fracture

218
Q

Fracture of the base of the fifth metatarsal in the foot (dancing injury)

A

Jones Fracture

219
Q

Chunk of a chip of the bone that gets pulled away from the body? (island of bone)

A

Evulsion Fracture

220
Q

A transverse fracture fracture of the distal radius with an dissociated ownership of the styloid and is characterized by:

A

Collies fracture

221
Q

If you fall and your hand gets bent backward:

A

Collies fracture

222
Q

Posterior displacement of the hand in relationship of the radius and ulna:

A

Collies fracture

223
Q

Hand gets bent up under you (anterior displacement of the hand) more forward in relationship to the radius and ulna:

A

Smiths Fracture

224
Q

Tangential:

A

To skim the surface

225
Q

zygomatic arches are done __________:

A

tangentially (skim the surface)

226
Q

Houston Settagas Sunrise is done:

A

tangential projection of the patella (skim the surface)

227
Q

Popletial:

A

The area behind the knee

228
Q

Retrograde:

A

to go against the grain/flow

229
Q

Which of the following examinations are preformed in a retrograde manner?

A

BE
ERCP

230
Q

The identification of spondylotisthesus:

A

PICTURE

231
Q

The worst allergic reaction is:

A

Anaphylactic shock because the body releases histamines

232
Q

Why would a patient have anaphylactic shock?

A

Injection of Iodinated Contrast media
Latex

233
Q

When we inject contrast media there is always a chance of:

A

Anaphylactic Shock

234
Q

Whenever you inject contrast you never:

A

leave the patient on the table unattended

235
Q

The body produces:

A

histamines

236
Q

What pharmacology drug do you give the patient if they are going through anaphylactic shock?

A

the injection of epinephrine (anti-histamine)

237
Q

The order for CPR:

A

CAB (compression, airway, and breathing)

238
Q

The rate for compression for an adult (8 year old to adult)

A

100/minute

239
Q

Rate for compression for a child (1 year to 8 year):

A

100-120/min

240
Q

Rate of compression for an infant: (under 1 year):

A

100-120/min

241
Q

Compression to Ventilation Ratio for an adult (8 year to adult):

A

30:2 for both one and two rescuers

242
Q

Compression to Ventilation Ratio for a child with one rescuer (1 to 8 year):

A

30:2 (1 rescuer)

243
Q

Compression to ventilation ratio for a child for two rescuers (1 to 8 year):

A

15:2 two rescuers

244
Q

Compression to ventilation ratio for an Infant under 1 year for one rescuer:

A

30:2

245
Q

Compression to ventilation ratio for two rescuers for a infant (under 1 year old):

A

15:2

246
Q

The key to delivering high quality CPR:

A
  1. 100-120 compressions per minute
  2. allow complete chest recoil after each compression
  3. minimiz interruptions in chest compressions
  4. Avoid excessive ventilation *give just enough breath to see the chest rise
  5. Rotate compressors every 2 minutes
247
Q

How do you operate an AED?

A

turn it on

248
Q

In CPR the breathing rate for an adult (8 year or older):

A

10-12 breaths/min or every 5-6 seconds

249
Q

In CPR the breathing rate for a child:

A

every 2-3 seconds

250
Q

The CPR breathing rate for an infant (under 1 year):

A

every 2-3 seconds

251
Q

When a patient presents on a spine board, as a technologist protocol is:

A

a horizontal beam lateral
properly cleared by the attending physician

252
Q

When moving a fracture of a long bone:

A

both joint spaces

253
Q

caused by loss of oxygen to the brain

A

syncope (fainting)

254
Q

The most common medical emergency encountered by technologists:

A

syncope

255
Q

High blood sugar, characterized by flushed dry skin, and mucous membranes, air hunger, and fruity smelling breath, excessive thirst and urination.

A

Hyperglycemia (diabetic ketoacidosis) (Kussmaul breathing)

256
Q

Low blood sugar

A

Hypoglycemia

257
Q

High blood sugar

A

Hyperglycemia

258
Q

sweating, clammy, cold skin

A

Hyperglycemia

259
Q

flushed, dry skin and mucous membranes, air hunger and fruity smelling breath, excessive thirst and urination

A

Hyperglycemia

260
Q

sweating, clammy cold skin, nervousness and irritability blurred vision.

A

Hypoglycemia

261
Q

When a patient presents and has a seizure under watch. What is the technologists primary responsibility?

A
  1. Keep the patient safe
  2. Help the patient to floor if standing
    -do not pull them on the table just keep them from falling
  3. Place padding under patient’s head
  4. Remove any hazardous objects to prevent the patient from hurting themselves
262
Q

Petite mal (non-convulsive) seizure:

A

seizure may not be apparent to the radiographer

263
Q

A sudden “horse cry” from the patient followed by forceful contractions of the abdominal and chest muscles

A

Grand Mal (tonic-clonic) (major motor seizure)

264
Q

Bright red blood (oxygen in it)

A

Arterial blood

265
Q

Strong pulsating volume of blood exiting a wound site

A

Arterial blood

266
Q

Darker blood (oosing)

A

Venous

267
Q

Arterial blood (bright red blood) apply pressure:

A

on the site of any open wound or between the site and the heart

268
Q

(Darker blood) Venous blood apply pressure:

A

on the site of any open wound and away from the site and the heart

269
Q

Faint or lightheaded feeling of patient’s that have been recumbent for an extended period of time and are then suddenly moved into an upright position. What should you do?

A

Orthostatic Hypotension, Trendelenburg (elevate the feet).

270
Q

A technologist sets the patient up on the side of the bed and the patient says “they feel faint or dizzy”, what should you do?

A

Trendelenburg Position (the feet elevated to get the blood back up to the brain)

271
Q

The patient feels faint or lightheaded because they have been lying down for awhile, what should you do?

A

Trendelenburg Position (elevate feet to get the blood back up to the brain)

272
Q

Epitaxis or Epistaxis

A

bleeding from the nose/nosebleed

273
Q

A breathing disorder characterized by wheezing and difficulty breathing (dyspnea):

A

Asthma

274
Q

May be triggered by anxiety or allergies?

A

Asthma

275
Q

Asthma can be controlled by:

A

bronchodilator (inhaler) we can assist patients with inhalers

276
Q

How do you address or approach a fire when it presents itself?

A
  1. evacuate the immediate area
  2. report the fire and precise location
  3. close all the doors
  4. shut off the main oxygen valves
  5. shut off all electrical equipment
  6. prepare patients for further evacuation
277
Q

RACE represents:

A

Rescue
Alarm
Contain
Extinguish

278
Q

PASS represents:

A

Pull, aim, squeeze, sweep

279
Q

Medical Asepsis:

A

clean technique, wash hands, spray the table down between patients, change the pillow case

280
Q

complete removal of all organisms and spores

A

Surgical Asepsis

281
Q

Surgical cases use:

A

Surgical Aseptic Technique

282
Q

An example of sterile asepsis:

A

urinary catheterization

283
Q

The soiling or making inferior by contact or mixture

A

Contamination

284
Q

Microorganisms capable of producing a disease

A

Pathogens

285
Q

An inanimate object that has made contact with an infectious organism (food, water, gloves, equipment, etc.)

A

Fomite

286
Q

Typically an arthropod (mosquito, flea, tick, etc.)

A

Vectors

287
Q

Hospital acquired infection

A

Nosocomial infection

288
Q

Physician caused infection:

A

Iatrogenic infection

289
Q

infection by an unknown cause

A

Idiopathic

290
Q

What is the single most common nosocomial infection:

A

UTI from urinary catheter usage

291
Q

What is the single most important way to break the chain/cycle of infection?

A

Hand washing

292
Q

Drag and Drop in order of evens the cycle/chain of infection:

A
  1. Infectious agent (pathogen)
  2. Reservoir
  3. Portal of exit
  4. Mode of transmission
  5. Portal of entry
  6. Susceptible host
293
Q

An organism that is capable of producing disease:

A

Pathogenic Organism (bacterial, viral, or fungal)

294
Q

An environment in which pathogenic organisms can live and multiply (can be a human, plant, animal, water, food, etc):

A

Reservoir of Infection or Source of Infection

295
Q

Example staphylococci and streptococcic infections:

A

Direct contact, airborne, inhaled

296
Q

Examples are radiographic tables, radiographer’s hands, and calipers

A

Indirect, fomite, vehicle borne

297
Q

contact by means of fomites (vehicle born):

A

Indirect Contact

298
Q

objects that have come in contact with pathogenic organisms

A

Fomites

299
Q

Mosquito , vectors, and malaria are examples of:

A

Indirect Contact

300
Q

Droplet, or dust:

A

airborne contaminations

301
Q

You should wash your hands:

A

pre/post every exam

302
Q

On routine hand washing should last:

A

15-20 seconds or 20 seconds

303
Q

When scrubbing for sterile procedures the hand washing time requirement is:

A

5 minutes

304
Q

Dirty needles should:

A

never be recapped by hand

305
Q

When you are scrubbed in the cardiac cath lab:

A

5 minutes
Keep hands above the level of forearm

306
Q

Never inject air from a syringe because of:

A

air embolism
always remove the air from a syringe before injecting

307
Q

What do you do with a dirty needle?

A

NEVER recap the needle
always throw the needle away in the sharps container

308
Q

The back of the gown is considered:

A

dirty

309
Q

Operators dressed in sterile gowns pass one another:

A

back to back

(never front to back)

310
Q

Sterile gloves should be kept:

A

above the waist

(Air below the level of the waist is considered dirty)

311
Q

Bleach to water ratio:

A

1:10 ratio

312
Q

Bleach is typically:

A

mixed with water in a 1:10 ratio

313
Q

A common disinfectant used in the radiology department

A

Bleach

314
Q

The most effective method of preventing the spread of infections is:

A

Handwashing

315
Q

How do you properly open a sterile tray?

A

The first move is away from you.

316
Q

Steam Sterilization

A

Autoclaving

317
Q

can be used in commercial sterilization

A

ionizing radiaiton

318
Q

Boiling water:

A

12 minutes

319
Q

Disposal of Linen:

A

separate disposal of contaminated versus soiled items

320
Q

Linen disposal steps:

A
  1. Bags need to be water-proof and impermeable
  2. If the bag for contaminated materials becomes contaminated, it should be placed in a second bag labeled “contaminated”
  3. Make sure the containers are appropriate and clearly marked
321
Q

Needle disposal:

A
  1. Needles are to be disposed of intact and never recapped
  2. Needle end should be placed in the sharps container first
  3. Container needs to be puncture-proof
322
Q

Disposal of Patient Supplies:

A
  1. contents of the urinals and bedpans should be flushed away immediately unless they are being save for diagnostic specimen
  2. Pour liquids to be discarded directly into drains or toilets without spilling or splashing
  3. Urinals and bedpans should be rinsed out and sent to the appropriate place for re-sterilization
  4. Specimens to be sent to the laboratory should be placed in a solid container with a secure cap and the appropriate patient information
323
Q

Blood and Body Fluid disposal:

A

.

324
Q

Gloves, gowns, and restricted patient placement:

A

contact

325
Q

the area around the patient that is contaminated:

A

3 feet or 1 meter

326
Q

Anyone who comes in contact with the patient or close to the patient needs:

A

mask, gown, and gloves

327
Q

Which of the following is effective for disinfection?

A

Moist Heat

328
Q

particulate mask and restricted patient placement:

A

Droplet

329
Q

Used with diseases that are spread by droplet contact as the patient coughs or sneezes:

A

Airborne, particulate masks are required

330
Q

Used to prevent infection transmitted by direct or indirect contact with fecal material:

A

Enteric Precautions

331
Q

Gloves and gowns are required:

A

Enteric precautions

332
Q

Used for tuberculosis patients with a positive sputum culture:

A

Acid-Fast Bacilli (AFB) N95 masks, and gloves, gowns (gross contamination)

333
Q

When we talk about reverse (Neutropenic) isolation:

A

the patient is being protected by the technologist

334
Q

For strict isolation:

A

the clean tech manages the equipment and the IR, dirty tech manages the patient and patient linen

335
Q

Used for patients with diseases transported by airborne or contact route

A

Strict

336
Q

Protective isolation (neutropenic) precautions clean tech/dirty tech:

A

clean tech handles the patient and patient linen
dirty tech handles the IR and equipment

337
Q

Used whenever there is a chance of coming in contact with a patient’s blood or body fluids

A

Universal Blood and Body Fluid Precautions

338
Q

Chemical may be harmful in the body by any route such as:

A
  1. Skin or mucous membrane absorption
  2. Swallowing
  3. Inhalation
339
Q

Using Chemicals:

A
  1. To be used only if the container is clearly labeled
  2. The label should be read several times to be sure it is being handled/used appropriately
  3. Use only as directed
  4. Store according to directions
  5. Personal protective apparel (PPE) should be worn as directed.
340
Q

As regarding to chemicals do not:

A
  1. Do not mix chemicals unless compatibility verification can be made
  2. Do not pour chemicals down the drain
341
Q

If chemical contact is made with the eyes:

A

rinse immediately for a minimum of 15 minutes

342
Q

Chemical spills should be cleaned up:

A

according to proper procedure

343
Q

If a chemical spill happens:

A

Notify the supervisor, may require a follow up procedure and incident report

344
Q

The primary route of exposure for chemotherapy agents is:

A

through direct skin contact and inhalation of aerosolized drugs

345
Q

Used to minimize exposure of chemotherapy agents:

A

PPE, gown, gloves, mask, eye, and face protection are used.

346
Q

All needles and syringes should be discarded:

A

in containers (intact) that are puncture resistant, leak proof, have a lid that seals securely and must be properly labeled (cytotoxic waste)

347
Q

MSDS (Safety Data Sheet)

A

.

348
Q

The single best indication/predictor of whether or not the patient on the table will have a reaction of a contrast media?

A

previously documented reaction

349
Q

Once a technologist injects iodinated contrast medium into the patient:

A

NEVER leave the patient unattended on the table

350
Q

Prior to the injection of any contrast medium:

A

take a pulse and a pressure prior
take a pulse and a pressure during the injection and more than one time
take a pulse and a pressure before you send them to the house one last time

351
Q

What percentage of patient’s experience a severe of life-threatening reaction to contrast media?

A

5%

352
Q

About what percent of patients experience some reaction to contrast media?

A

5%

353
Q

Patients with known previous contrast reactions can:

A

be pre-medicated to prevent the impact of the contrast

354
Q

Pressure injector in CT, fast, all at once:

A

Bolus

355
Q

Injection method in which a large or concentrated volume of a contrast media or drug is rapidly administered into an existing IV line, which as a piggyback connector or heparin lock connected to the patient:

A

Bolus Injection

356
Q

What is the most dangerous kind of injection?

A

Bolus

357
Q

During Bolus Injection what should you do?

A

watch the patient carefully, signs of respiratory or cardiac arrest must be reported immediately and the administration stopped

358
Q

IV Drip

A

contrast administered by gravity such as a a PC pump, cystogram

359
Q

Contrast administered by gravity

A

IV drip

360
Q

Example of infusion administration of contrast:

A

cystogram
IV tubing attached to a Foley Catheter

361
Q

Ampule

A

holds a single dose

362
Q

Vial

A

holds multiple doses

363
Q

The antecubital vien

A

single most common site to inject venous catheters or needles

364
Q

Procedural Technique of venipuncture and intravenous injection:

A

Insert the needle into the vein at a 15-degree angle, and gently advance the needle into the vein. When there is back flow of blood into the tubing the needle is positioned properly.

365
Q

The second most common site to inject venous catheters or needles:

A

Basilic vein (back of the hand)

366
Q

Two types of negative contrast medium:

A

Room Air and C02 gas crystals

367
Q

Dark black, very little rates of attenuation, negative contrast:

A

radiolucent

368
Q

The single most common contrast medium used in radiology:

A

Room Air (patient take a deep breath in and hold it please do not breathe)

369
Q

White, Bright, barium, gastrografin gastroview, oil based:

A

Radiopaque

370
Q

related to the concentration of an osmotic solution and has a relationship to the patient risk of reaction

A

Osmolarity

371
Q

The thickness of contrast media

A

Viscocity

372
Q

How do we reduce viscosity of contrast media?

A

warm it

373
Q

In a single contrast study the kV range to select is:

A

120-125 kVp

374
Q

dissociates into two (anion and cation) molecules in water or blood:

A

Ionic contrast media

375
Q

designed to reduce the frequency of adverse reactions resulting from iodinated contrast administration

A

Non-ionic contrast

376
Q

Limits the production of ions within the blood stream when the contrast is administered.

A

Non-ionic contrast

377
Q

Does not disassociate into anion and cations

A

Non-ionic contrast

378
Q

Will have no effect on an iodine allergy reaction

A

Non-ionic contrast

379
Q

Isovue, omnipaque, optiray

A

Non-ionic contrast

380
Q

Slowly absorbed within the body, not commonly used:

A

Oil based contrast

381
Q

Kilovoltage used for an exam that utilizes iodinated contrast media is typically limited to a value of:

A

80 or less in order to prevent over penetration of the contrast

382
Q

Why is barium combined with a molecule?

A

Barium sulfate reduces the toxicity

383
Q

Non-Ionic or Ionic. Which one has Iodine?

A

Both

384
Q

Used in cases in which a perforated bowel may exist:

A

Gastrografin (water soluble, Iodine based positive contrast)

385
Q

May be administered orally or through a nasogastric tube:

A

Gastrografin

386
Q

Be (barium enema) (single contrast study):

A

barium only, kV 100-125 kVp

387
Q

kV range for a double contrast study? ACBE

A

90-100 kVp

388
Q

PA and lateral chest x-ray routinely done in the department:

A

110-125 kVp

389
Q

What contrast medium should be used when dealing with a preforation?

A

Gastrografin
Gastroview
Water-soluable

(NOT BARIUM)

390
Q

Use of contrast agents on who can be particularly hazardous?

A

elderly

391
Q

Patients with impaired ____________ must be adequately assessed before an iodinated contrast is administered because these patients are at risk for increased disease.

A

renal or liver function

392
Q

Normal Creatinine:

A

0.7-1.3 mg/dL

393
Q

Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) normal value:

A

8-25 mg/dL

394
Q

Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR):

A

90-120 mL/min/1.73 m^2

395
Q

Estimated glomuler filtration rate (eGFR):

A

best test to measure kidney function and determine the stage of kidney disease.

396
Q

It is calculated from the results of Creatinine test, body size, age, and gender.

A

eGFR

397
Q

As a technologist if you inject contrast media and see extravasation by looking at the:

A

hematoma under the skin

398
Q

How do you manage an extravasation?

A

remove the needle, apply warm compress and elevating the effecting extremity. Immediate attention is needed to prevent tissue necrosis if the extravasation involves a corrosive drug and a cold compress should be applied at the site.

399
Q

Accidental infiltration of a vesicant- (contrast media) into the interstitial tissues at the site of injection. Pain swelling, redness.

A

Extravasation

400
Q

When fluid infuses the tissue surrounding the venipuncture site.

A

Infiltration

401
Q

A general term used to describe a failure of circulation in which blood pressure is inadequate to support oxygen perfusion of vital tissues and is unable to remove the by-products of metabolism.

A

Shock

402
Q

Results from external hemorrhage, lacerations, or plasma loss due to burns:

A

Hypovolemic Shock

403
Q

Patients that suffer head or spinal trauma resulting in a failure of arterial resistance.

A

Neurogenic Shock

404
Q

Results from massive infection

A

Septic Shock

405
Q

Results from cardiac failure

A

Cardiogenic Shock

406
Q

Results from being injected with a foreign protein, bee stings, iodinated media:

A

Allergic or Anaphylaxis Shock

407
Q

Medical term for hives:

A

Uticaria

408
Q

Not life threatening but their presence may be an indicator of a more severe reaction.

A

Hives

409
Q

When a patient presents on the table and inject contrast medium, what happens to the pulse when a patient presents with anaphylactic shock.

A

Increase in pulse rate
Drop in the blood pressure

410
Q

Examples of mild reactions:

A

nausea and vomiting, hives, itching, sneezing, extravasation, vasovagal response, such as fear, exhibited by weakness, dizziness, sweating, and a feeling of passing out

411
Q

Tech response to a mild reaction?

A
  1. monitor and comfort the patient, provide a warm towel for extravasation
  2. if vomiting occurs roll the patient on their side and provide a emesis basin.
  3. Document the patient’s reaction
412
Q

Moderate reaction examples:

A

excessive hives, tachycardia (rapid heart rate), giant hives, excessive vomitting.

413
Q

Tech response for a moderate reaction:

A
  1. call for medical assistance
  2. prepare for administration of antihistamine medication
  3. Monitor and comfort the patient
  4. Document the patient’s reaction
414
Q

Any reaction that involves a life threatening situation:

A

Severe reactions

415
Q

All of the following are examples of mild reactions except:

A

cyanosis (blue around the lips and gums)

416
Q

very low blood pressure, cardiac or respiratory arrest, loss of consciousness, convulsions, laryngeal edema, cyanosis, difficulty in breathing, and profound shock:

A

Severe reactions

417
Q

Tech response to a severe reaction:

A
  1. call for immediate assistance
  2. remove any physical items that may be in the way of the medical staff
  3. prepare for administration of antihistamine medication and if needed assist in proving cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
418
Q

Decadron (decamethosone)

A

pharmacology drug given for an allergic reaction

419
Q

What is a good antihistamine for a good contrast reaction or allergic reaction?

A

Decadron (dexamethosone)

420
Q

The pharmacology drug for siezures?

A

Dilantin

421
Q

Generic name for decadron?

A

dexamethosone

422
Q

Generic name for benadryl?

A

Dyphenhydramine

423
Q

Lasix:

A

drug for edema

424
Q

Epinenphrine:

A

Cardiac Arrest, Anaphylaxic Shock (administered IV)

425
Q

Nirtroglycerin:

A

Chest Pain (angina)

426
Q

A patient is having a potential heart attack what do you do?

A

give them nitroglycerine, administered sublingal (under the tongue)

427
Q

For someone who presents for a BE, a colonic spasm, what type of drug would you give them?

A

Glucagon

428
Q

A patient who is hypoglycemic what do you do?

A

eat a candy bar

429
Q

A patient who has hyperglecemia?

A

given insulin,metformin (generic),glucophage

430
Q

When do you give glucogon?

A

before a barium enema

431
Q

Drugs given for shock?

A

Levophed
Intropin
Dobutrex

432
Q

Blood thinners, blood clots, Cumatin, heparin, warfarin, once you inject on a patient. You need look at the chart to know if they are on blood thinners becuase?

A

It would be harder to stop the bleed, pull the needle

433
Q

A patient presents their known documented reactor, what type of drugs are given prior to the reaction of?

A

Ducadron (dexamethosone) or Benadryl (diphenhydramine)
not both or not together
some type of steroid (prednisone)

434
Q

The technologist injected a contrast medium, they have a reaction on your table, your job is to?

A

document in the patient chart

435
Q

What is checked 48 hours prior to the procedure and after contrast media?

A

BUN

436
Q

Which emergency medication may not be found in the crash cart?

A

Glucagon

437
Q

Arrhythmia Medications:

A

Pronesty
Isoptin
Corarone
Adenocard
Xylocane

ARRT Kettering (15 decks)

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