Practice Chapters 16-20 Flashcards

1
Q

16.1 Which of the following is a congestion-avoidance mechanism?

A. LMI
B. WRED
C. QPM
D. QoS

A

B. Dropping packets as they arrive is called tail drop. Selective dropping of packets during the time queues are filling up is called congestion avoidance (CA). Cisco uses weighted random early detection (WRED) as a CA scheme to monitor the buffer depth and performs early discards (drops) on random packets when the minimum defined queue threshold is exceeded.

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2
Q

16.2 Which three features are properties and one-way requirements for voice traffic? (Choose three.)

A. Bursty voice traffic
B. Smooth voice traffic
C. Latency should be below 400ms
D. Latency should be below 150ms
E. Bandwidth is roughly between 30 and 128Kbps
F. Bandwidth is roughly between 0.5 and 20 Mbps

A

B, D, E. Voice traffic is real-time traffic requiring consistent, predictable bandwidth and packet arrival times. One-way requirements include latency < 150 ms, jitter <30 ms, and loss < 1%. Bandwidth needs to be 30 to 128 Kbps.

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3
Q

16.3 Which statement about QoS trust boundaries or domains is true?

A. The trust boundary is always a router.
B. PCs, printers and tablets are usually part of a trusted domain.
C. An IP phone is a common trust boundary.
D. Routing will not work unless the service provider and the enterprise network are one
single trust domain.

A

C. A trust boundary is where packets are classified and marked. IP phones and the boundary between the ISP and enterprise network are common examples of trust boundaries.

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4
Q

16.4 Which advanced classification tool can be used to classify data applications?

A. NBAR
B. MPLS
C. APIC-EM
D. ToS

A

A. NBAR is a layer 4 to layer 7, deep-packet inspection classifier. NBAR is more CPU intensive than marking and uses the existing markings, addresses, or ACLs.

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5
Q

16.5 The DSCP field constitutes how many fields in the IP header?

A. 3 bits
B. 4 bits
C. 6 bits
D. 8 bits

A

C. DSCP is a set of 6-bit values that are used to describe the meaning of the layer 3 IPv4 ToS field. While IP precedence is the old way to mark ToS, DSCP is the new way and is backward compatible with IP precedence.

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6
Q

16.6 Which option is a layer 2 QoS marking?

A. EXP
B. QoS group
C. DSCP
D. CoS

A

D. Class of service (CoS) is a term used to describe designated fields in a frame or packet header. How devices treat packets in your network depends on the field values. CoS is usually used with Ethernet frames and contains 3 bits.

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7
Q

16.7 Which QoS mechanism will drop traffic if a session uses more than the allotted bandwidth?

A. Congestion management
B. Shaping
C. Policing
D. Marking

A

C. When traffic exceeds the allocated rate, the policer can take one of two actions: It can either drop traffic or re-mark it to another class of service. The new class usually has a higher drop probability.

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8
Q

17.1 How is an EUI-64 format interface ID created from a 48-bit MAC address?

A. By appending 0xFF to the MAC address
B. By prefixing the MAC address with 0xFFEE
C. By prefixing the MAC address with 0xFF and appending 0xFF to it
D. By inserting 0xFFFE between the upper 3 bytes and the lower 3 bytes of the MAC address

A

D. The modified EUI-64 format interface identifier is derived from the 48-bit link-layer (MAC) address by inserting the hexadecimal number FFFE between the upper 3 bytes (OUI field) and the lower 3 bytes (serial number) of the link-layer address.

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9
Q

17.2 Which option is a valid IPv6 address?

A. 2001:0000:130F::099a::12a
B. 2002:7654:A1AD:61:81AF:CCC1
C. FEC0:ABCD:WXYZ:0067::2A4
D. 2004:1:25A4:886F::1

A

D. An IPv6 address is represented as eight groups of four hexadecimal digits, each group representing 16 bits (two octets). The groups are separated by colons (:). Option A has two double colons, B doesn’t have 8 fields, and option C has invalid hex characters.

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10
Q

17.3 Which three statements about IPv6 prefixes are true? (Choose three.)

A. FF00:/8 is used for IPv6 multicast.
B. FE80::/10 is used for link-local unicast.
C. FC00::/7 is used in private networks.
D. 2001::1/127 is used for loopback addresses.
E. FE80::/8 is used for link-local unicast.
F. FEC0::/10 is used for IPv6 broadcast.

A

A, B, C. This question is easier to answer if you just take out the wrong options. First, the loopback is only ::1, so that makes option D wrong. Link local is FE80::/10, not /8, and there are no broadcasts.

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11
Q

17.4 What are three approaches that are used when migrating from an IPv4 addressing scheme
to an IPv6 scheme? (Choose three.)

A. Enable dual-stack routing.
B. Configure IPv6 directly.
C. Configure IPv4 tunnels between IPv6 islands.
D. Use proxying and translation to translate IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets.
E. Use DHCPv6 to map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses.

A

A, C, D. Several methods are used in terms of migration, including tunneling, translators, and dual-stack. Tunnels are used to carry one protocol inside another, while translators simply translate IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets. Dual-stack uses a combination of both native IPv4 and IPv6. With dual-stack, devices are able to run IPv4 and IPv6 together, and if IPv6 communication is possible, that is the preferred protocol. Hosts can simultaneously reach IPv4 and IPv6 content.

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12
Q

17.5 Which two statements about IPv6 router advertisement messages are true? (Choose two.)

A. They use ICMPv6 type 134.
B. The advertised prefix length must be 64 bits.
C. The advertised prefix length must be 48 bits.
D. They are sourced from the configured IPv6 interface address.
E. Their destination is always the link-local address of the neighboring node.

A

A, B. ICMPv6 router advertisements use type 134 and must be at least 64 bits in length.

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13
Q

17.6 Which of the following is true when describing an IPv6 anycast address? (Choose three.)

A. One-to-many communication model
B. One-to-nearest communication model
C. Any-to-many communication model
D. A unique IPv6 address for each device in the group
E. The same address for multiple devices in the group
F. Delivery of packets to the group interface that is closest to the sending device

A

B, E, F. Anycast addresses identify multiple interfaces, which is somewhat similar to multicast addresses; however, the big difference is that the anycast packet is only delivered to one address, the first one it finds defined in terms of routing distance. This address can also be called one-to-one-of-many, or one-to-nearest.

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14
Q

17.7 You want to ping the loopback address of your IPv6 local host. What will you type?

A. ping 127.0.0.1
B. ping 0.0.0.0
C. ping ::1
D. trace 0.0.::1

A

C. The loopback address with IPv4 is 127.0.0.1. With IPv6, that address is ::1.

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15
Q

17.8 What are three features of the IPv6 protocol? (Choose three.)

A. Optional IPsec
B. Autoconfiguration
C. No broadcasts
D. Complicated header
E. Plug-and-play
F. Checksums

A

B, C, E. An important feature of IPv6 is that it allows the plug-and-play option to the network devices by allowing them to configure themselves independently. It is possible to plug a node into an IPv6 network without requiring any human intervention. IPv6 does not implement traditional IP broadcasts.

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16
Q

17.9 Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.)

A. Global addresses start with 2000::/3.
B. Link-local addresses start with FE00:/12.
C. Link-local addresses start with FF00::/10.
D. There is only one loopback address and it is ::1.
E. If a global address is assigned to an interface, then that is the only allowable address for the interface.

A

A, D. The loopback address is ::1, link-local starts with FE80::/10, site-local addresses start with FEC0::/10, global addresses start with 2000::/3, and multicast addresses start with FF00::/8.

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17
Q

17.10 A host sends a router solicitation (RS) on the data link. What destination address is sent with this request?

A. FF02::A
B. FF02::9
C. FF02::2
D. FF02::1
E. FF02::5

A

C. A router solicitation is sent out using the all-routers multicast address of FF02::2. The router can send a router advertisement to all hosts using the FF02::1 multicast address.

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18
Q

18.1 You need to verify the IPv6 ARP cache on a router and see that the state of an entry is REACH. What does REACH mean?

A. The router is reaching out to get the address.
B. The entry is incomplete.
C. The entry has reached the end of life and will be discarded from the table.
D. A positive confirmation has been received by the neighbor and the path to it is functioning correctly.

A

D. Positive confirmation has been received confirming that the path to the neighbor is functioning correctly. REACH is good!

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19
Q

18.2 What’s the most common cause of interface errors?

A. Speed mismatch
B. Duplex mismatch
C. Buffer overflows
D. Collisions between a dedicated switch port and an NIC

A

B. The most common cause of interface errors is a mismatched duplex mode between two ends of an Ethernet link. If they have mismatched duplex settings, you’ll receive a legion of errors, which cause ugly slow performance issues, intermittent connectivity, and massive collisions—even total loss of communication!

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20
Q

18.3 Which command will verify the DTP status on a switch interface?

A. sh dtp status
B. sh dtp status interface interface
C. sh interface interface dtp
D. sh dtp interface interface

A

D. You can verify the DTP status of an interface with the sh dtp interface interface command.

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21
Q

18.4 What mode will not allow DTP frames generated from a switch port?

A. Nonegotiate
B. Trunk
C. Access
D. Auto

A

A. No DTP frames are generated from the interface. Nonegotiate can be used only if the neighbor interface is manually set as trunk or access.

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22
Q

18.5 The following output was generated by which command?
IPv6 Address Age Link-layer Addr State Interface
FE80::21A:6DFF:FE64:9B3 0 001a.6c46.9b09 DELAY Fa0/1
2001:DB8:3C4D:2:21A:6DFF:FE64:9B3 0 001a.6c46.9b09 REACH Fa0/1

A. show ip arp
B. show ipv6 arp
C. show ip neighbors
D. show ipv6 neighbors

A

D. The command show ipv6 neighbors provides the ARP cache on a router.

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23
Q

18.6 Which of the following states tells you that an interface has not communicated within the
neighbor-reachable time frame?

A. REACH
B. STALE
C. TIMEOUT
D. CLEARED

A

B. The state is STALE when the interface has not communicated within the neighbor-reachable time frame. The next time the neighbor communicates, the state will change back to REACH.

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24
Q

18.7 You receive a call from a user who says that they can’t log in to a remote server, which only runs IPv6. Based on the output, what could the problem be?
C:\Users\Todd Lammle>ipconfig
Connection-specific DNS Suffix . : localdomain
IPv6 Address. . . . . . . . . . . : 2001:db8:3c4d:3:ac3b:2ef:1823:8938
Temporary IPv6 Address. . . . . . : 2001:db8:3c4d:3:2f33:44dd:211:1c3d
Link-local IPv6 Address . . . . . : fe80::ac3b:2ef:1823:8938%11
IPv4 Address. . . . . . . . . . . : 10.1.1.10
Subnet Mask . . . . . . . . . . . : 255.255.255.0
Default Gateway . . . . . . . . . : 10.1.1.1

A. The global address is in the wrong subnet.
B. The IPv6 default gateway hasn’t been configured or received from the router.
C. The link-local address hasn’t been resolved, so the host cannot communicate to the router.
D. There are two IPv6 global addresses configured. One must be removed from the configuration.

A

B. There is no IPv6 default gateway, which will be the link-local address of the router interface, sent to the host as a router advertisement. Until this host receives the router address, the host will communicate with IPv6 only on the local subnet.

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25
Q

18.8. Your host cannot reach remote networks. Based on the output, what’s the problem?
C:\Users\Server1>ipconfig
Windows IP Configuration
Ethernet adapter Local Area Connection:
Connection-specific DNS Suffix . : localdomain
Link-local IPv6 Address . . . . . : fe80::7723:76a2:e73c:2acb%11
IPv4 Address. . . . . . . . . . . : 172.16.20.254
Subnet Mask . . . . . . . . . . . : 255.255.255.0
Default Gateway . . . . . . . . . : 172.16.2.1

A. The link-local IPv6 address is wrong.
B. The IPv6 global address is missing.
C. There is no DNS server configuration.
D. The IPv4 default gateway address is misconfigured.

A

D. This host is using IPv4 to communicate on the network, and without an IPv6 global address, the host will be able to communicate to only remote networks with IPv4. The IPv4 address and default gateway are not configured into the same subnet.

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26
Q

18.9 Which two commands will show you if you have a native VLAN mismatch?

A. show interface native vlan
B. show interface trunk
C. show interface interface switchport
D. show switchport interface

A

B, C. The commands show interface trunk and show interface interface switchport will show you statistics of ports, which includes native VLAN information.

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27
Q

18.10 You connect two new Cisco 3560 switches together and expect them to use DTP and create
a trunk. But, when you check statistics, you find that they are access ports and didn’t negotiate. Why didn’t DTP work on these Cisco switches?

A. The ports on each side of the link are set to auto trunking.
B. The ports on each side of the link are set to on.
C. The ports on each side of the link are set to dynamic.
D. The ports on each side of the link are set to desirable.

A

A. Most Cisco switches ship with a default port mode of auto, meaning that they will automatically trunk if they connect to a port that is on or desirable. Remember that not all switches are shipped as mode auto, but many are, and you need to set one side to either on
or desirable in order to trunk between switches.

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28
Q

18.11. What command can used to verify the IP address on a Mac?

A. ipconfig
B. ifconfig
C. iptables
D. Get-NetIPAddress
E. show ip int brief

A

B. ifconfig

29
Q

19.1. Which encryption type does enterprise WPA3 use?
A. AES-CCMP
B. GCMP-256
C. PSK
D. TKIP/MIC

A

B. WPA3 Enterprise uses GCMP-256 for encryption, WPA2 uses AES-CCMP for encryption, and WPA uses TKIP.

30
Q

19.2 What is the frequency range of the IEEE 802.11b standard?

A. 2.4Gbps
B. 5Gbps
C. 2.4GHz
D. 5GHz

A

C. The IEEE 802.11b and IEEE 802.11g standards both run in the 2.4 GHz RF range.

31
Q

19.3 What is the frequency range of the IEEE 802.11a standard?

A. 2.4Gbps
B. 5Gbps
C. 2.4GHz
D. 5GHz

A

D. The IEEE 802.11a standard runs in the 5 GHz RF range.

32
Q

19.4 What is the frequency range of the IEEE 802.11g standard?

A. 2.4Gbps
B. 5Gbps
C. 2.4GHz
D. 5GHz

A

C. The IEEE 802.11b and IEEE 802.11g standards both run in the 2.4 GHz RF range.

33
Q

19.5 You’ve finished physically installing an access point on the ceiling of your office. At a minimum,
which parameter must be configured on the access point in order to allow a wireless client to operate on it?

A. AES
B. PSK
C. SSID
D. TKIP
E. WEP
F. 802.11i

A

C. The minimum parameter configured on an AP for a simple WLAN installation is the SSID, although you should set the channel and authentication method as well.

34
Q

19.6 Which encryption type does WPA2 use?

A. AES-CCMP
B. PPK via IV
C. PSK
D. TKIP/MIC

A

A. WPA3 Enterprise uses GCMP-256 for encryption, WPA2 uses AES-CCMP for encryption, and WPA uses TKIP.

35
Q

19.7 How many non-overlapping channels are available with 802.11b?

A. 3
B. 12
C. 23
D. 40

A

A. The IEEE 802.11b standard provides three non-overlapping channels.

36
Q

19.8 Which of the following is has built-in resistance to dictionary attacks?

A. WPA
B. WPA2
C. WPA3
D. AES
E. TKIP

A

C. WPA3 is resistant to offline dictionary attacks where an attacker attempts to determine a network password by trying possible passwords without further network interaction

37
Q

19.9 What’s the maximum data rate for the 802.11a standard?

A. 6Mbps
B. 11Mbps
C. 22Mbps
D. 54Mbps

A

D. The IEEE 802.11a standard provides a maximum data rate of up to 54 Mbps.

38
Q

19.10 What’s the maximum data rate for the 802.11g standard?

A. 6Mbps
B. 11Mbps
C. 22Mbps
D. 54Mbps

A

D. The IEEE 802.11g standard provides a maximum data rate of up to 54 Mbps.

39
Q

19.11 What’s the maximum data rate for the 802.11b standard?

A. 6Mbps
B. 11Mbps
C. 22Mbps
D. 54Mbps

A

B. The IEEE 802.11b standard provides a maximum data rate of up to 11 Mbps.

40
Q

19.12 WPA3 replaced the default open authentication with which of the following enhancements?

A. AES
B. OWL
C. OWE
D. TKIP

A

C. The 802.11 “open” authentication support has been replaced with Opportunistic Wireless Encryption (OWE) enhancement, which is an enhancement, not a mandatory certified setting.

41
Q

19.13 A wireless client can’t connect to an 802.11b/g BSS with a b/g wireless card. And the client section of the access point doesn’t list any active WLAN clients. What’s a possible reason for this?

A. The incorrect channel is configured on the client.
B. The client’s IP address is on the wrong subnet.
C. The client has an incorrect pre-shared key.
D. The SSID is configured incorrectly on the client.

A

D. Although this question is cryptic at best, the only possible answer is option D. If the SSID is not being broadcast (which we must assume in this question), the client must be configured with the correct SSID in order to associate to the AP.

42
Q

19.14 Which two features did WPA add to address the inherent weaknesses found in WEP? (Choose two.)

A. A stronger encryption algorithm
B. Key mixing using temporal keys
C. Shared key authentication
D. A shorter initialization vector
E. Per frame sequence counter

A

B, E. WPA uses Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP), which includes both broadcast key rotation (dynamic keys that change) and sequencing of frames.

43
Q

19.15 Which two wireless encryption methods are based on the RC4 encryption algorithm? (Choose two.)

A. WEP
B. CCKM
C. AES
D. TKIP
E. CCMP

A

A, D. Both WEP and TKIP (WPA) use the RC4 algorithm. It is advised to use WPA2, which uses the AES encryption, or WPA3 when it is available to you.

44
Q

19.16 Two workers have established wireless communication directly between their wireless
laptops. What type of wireless topology has been created by these two employees?

A. BSS
B. SSID
C. IBSS
D. ESS

A

C. Two wireless hosts directly connected wirelessly is no different than two hosts connecting with a crossover cable. They are both ad hoc networks, but in wireless, we call this an Independent Basic Service Set (IBSS).

45
Q

19.17 Which two of the following describe the wireless security standard that WPA defines? (Choose two.)

A. It specifies the use of dynamic encryption keys that change throughout the users connection time.
B. It requires that all devices must use the same encryption key.
C. It can use PSK authentication.
D. Static keys must be used.

A

A, C. WPA, although using the same RC4 encryption that WEP uses, provides enhancements to the WEP protocol by using dynamic keys that change constantly as well as providing a Pre-Shared Key method of authentication.

46
Q

19.18 Which wireless LAN design ensures that a mobile wireless client will not lose connectivity
when moving from one access point to another?

A. Using adapters and access points manufactured by the same company
B. Overlapping the wireless cell coverage by at least 15%
C. Configuring all access points to use the same channel
D. Utilizing MAC address filtering to allow the client MAC address to authenticate with the surrounding APs

A

B. To create an Extended Service Set (ESS), you need to overlap the wireless BSA from each AP by at least 15 percent in order to not have a gap in coverage so users do not lose their connection when roaming between APs.

47
Q

19.19 You’re connecting your access point and it’s set to root. What does extended service set ID mean?

A. That you have more than one access point and they are in the same SSID connected by a distribution system
B. That you have more than one access point and they are in separate SSIDs connected by a distribution system
C. That you have multiple access points, but they are placed physically in different buildings
D. That you have multiple access points, but one is a repeater access point

A

A. Extended service set ID means that you have more than one access point and they all are set to the same SSID and all are connected together in the same VLAN or distribution system so users can roam.

48
Q

19.20. What are three basic parameters to configure on a wireless access point? (Choose three.)

A. Authentication method
B. RF Channel
C. RTS/CTS
D. SSID
E. Microwave interference resistance

A

A, B, D. The three basic parameters to configure when setting up an access point are the SSID, the RF channel, and the authentication method.

49
Q

20.1 What command is used to check the IP address on Windows 10 using CMD?

A. ifconfig
B. ipconfig
C. iwconfig
D. Get-NetIpAddress
E. iptables

A

B. Windows 10 CMD uses ipconfig to display IP information. Get-NetIPAddress is a
PowerShell command and won’t work in the cmd prompt.

50
Q

20.2. What’s required to use the Service Port on a WLC? (Choose three.)

A. The service port interface must be connected to a switch.
B. The switchport must be configured to be a trunk
C. You must add static routes to the WLC.
D. The switchport must be configured to an access port.
E. The service port interface must be configured with a subnet IP in the same subnet as the management port.

A

A, C, D. The three things the SP needs are as follows: (1) the switch port must be a access port because VLAN tagging is not supported, (2) you need to add static routes to the network from which you are managing the WLC, and (3) the SP interface must be connected to a switch.

51
Q

20.3 What DNS record do you need to create for APs to automatically discover the WLC?

A. CISCO-WLC-CONTROLLER
B. WLC-CONTROLLER
C. CISCO-AP-CONTROLLER
D. CISCO-DISCOVER-CONTROLLER
E. CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTROLLER

A

E. For the DNS method, you need to create an A record for CISCO-CAPWAPCONTROLLER that points to the WLC management IP.

52
Q

20.4 What’s the default QoS queue for a WLAN?

A. Gold
B. Platinum
C. Bronze
D. Silver
E. Diamond

A

D. WLANs default to silver queue, which effectively means no QoS is being utilized.

53
Q

20.5 What’s the QoS queue intended for video?

A. Gold
B. Platinum
C. Bronze
D. Silver
E. Diamond

A

A. WLC’s gold queue is also known as the video queue.

54
Q

20.6 You’ve been informed people are intermittently not able to connect to your office’s WLAN. After some troubleshooting, you find that the VLAN is running out of IP addresses. What’s the recommended solution?

A. Create a new WLAN and have half the employees connect to it instead.
B. Adjust the subnet mask to be larger value.
C. Create an additional dynamic interface and use an interface group with the WLAN.
D. Configure session timeout so idle connections will be dropped.
E. Add more access points to the area.

A

C. The best solution is to use the interface group to extend the amount of IP addresses available to the WLAN. Creating a new WLAN would be a burden to the employees and would only confuse them. Adding more APs won’t help the issue since we need more IP
addresses, and the session timeout won’t free up IP addresses.

55
Q

20.7. What are three requirements of enabling a LAG on the WLC? (Choose three.)

A. LACP must be configured on the directly connected switch.
B. The WLC must be rebooted.
C. All distributed system interfaces must be added to the LAG.
D. No more than two interfaces can be in the LAG.
E. The switch must use channel-group # mode on.

A

B, C, E. LAGs on a WLC are fairly restrictive. All interfaces must be part of the bundle, channel-group # mode on must be used because LACP or PAGP isn’t supported, and the WLC must be rebooted for the LAG to be enabled.

56
Q

20.8 What are three drawbacks to using autonomous APs? (Choose three.)

A. They require central management.
B. They are independently configured.
C. AAPs don’t see the full picture of the wireless network.
D. Security policies are harder to maintain.
E. CAPWAP is supported.

A

B, C, D. Autonomous access points (AAPs) are less desirable than lightweight because they are managed independently, which means that security policies must be manually adjusted. Since there is no central controller, AAPs can’t see the bigger picture when making decisions, and CAPWAP isn’t supported on AAPs since there’s no controller to tunnel to.

57
Q

20.9 Where can TACACS+ be used on a WLC?

A. WLAN configuration
B. Management users
C. Interface configuration
D. Port configuration

A

B. TACACS+ is better suited for device administration, so it’s used to control management user access to the WLC.

58
Q

20.10 Which port does TACACS+ use for accounting?

A. UDP 49
B. UDP 1645
C. UDP 1812
D. UDP 1813
E. TCP 49

A

E. TACACS+ uses port TCP 49 for all operations.

59
Q

20.11 Which port does RADIUS use for authentication on modern servers?

A. UDP 1645
B. TCP 1645
C. UDP 1812
D. TCP 1812
E. UDP 1700

A

C. RADIUS uses UDP 1812 for authentication.

60
Q

20.12 Which port does RADIUS use for authentication on legacy servers?

A. UDP 1645
B. TCP 1645
C. UDP 1812
D. TCP 1812
E. UDP 1700

A

A. RADIUS uses UDP 1645 for authentication on legacy servers.

61
Q

20.13 What is the purpose of the virtual interface?

A. Management
B. Redirecting clients to the WLC.
C. Registering APs
D. Terminating CAPWAP
E. Routing

A

B. The virtual interface is used to redirect client traffic to the WLC.

62
Q

20.14 Which IP address is recommended for the virtual interface?

A. 1.1.1.1
B. 2.2.2.2
C. 192.168.0.1
D. 192.0.2.1
E. 10.10.10.10

A

D. The recommended IP used to be 1.1.1.1 but is now 192.0.2.1.

63
Q

20.15 What’s the command used to verify the IP address on a Mac?

A. ipconfig
B. ifconfig
C. iptables
D. Get-NetIPAddress
E. show ip int brief

A

B. Macs are based on Unix and use the ifconfig command to display IP address info.

64
Q

20.16. Telnet is enabled by default on the WLC?

A. True
B. False
C. Depends on version

A

B. Telnet is disabled by default on the WLC and is not recommended.

65
Q

20.17. A dynamic interface is similar to what kind of interface found on a Cisco switch?

A. Ethernet
B. Loopback
C. Switched virtual interface
D. Tunnel
E. Port-channel

A

C. A dynamic interface is similar to a SVI on a switch because it’s a virtual interface that terminates a VLAN.

66
Q

20.18. What is the DHCP Option 43 hex value for a single WLC with the IP address 192.168.123.100?

A. F104C0A87B64
B. F102C0A87B64
C. F102C0A99B70
D. F104C0A99B70
E. F10211BBCC88

A

B. The hex value is F102 because it’s single controller, and 192.168.123.100 converts to A87B64.

67
Q

20.19 What’s the default AP mode?

A. Local
B. Monitor
C. FlexConnect
D. Sniffer
E. SE-Connect

A

A. APs use Local mode by default. This uses a CAPWAP to tunnel traffic to the controller.

68
Q

20.20 Which AP modes serve wireless traffic? (Choose two.)

A. Local
B. Monitor
C. FlexConnect
D. Sniffer
E. SE-Connect

A

A, C. The two AP modes listed that can serve wireless traffic are Local and FlexConnect.