Process Safety Flashcards

Concepts in chemical process safety techniques, practices, heuristics, and parameters

1
Q

Which of the following is not measure of effectiveness safety program?

A

HAZOP

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2
Q

HAZOP

A

HAZARD AND OPERABILITY STUDY

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3
Q

HAZAN

A

HAZARD ANALYSIS

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4
Q

OSHA

A

OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HAZARD ADMINISTRATION

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5
Q

LOC

A

LIMITING OXYGEN CONCETRATION

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6
Q

BLEVE

A

BOILING-LIQUID EXPANDING-VAPOR EXPLOSION

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7
Q

MIE

A

MINIMUM IGNITION ENERGY

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8
Q

PHA

A

PROCESS HAZARD ANALYSIS

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9
Q

PPE

A

PERSONAL PROTECTIVE EQUIPMENT

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10
Q

JSA

A

JOB SAFETY ANALYSIS

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11
Q

ED

A

EFFECTIVE DOSE

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12
Q

VCE

A

Vapor Cloud Explosion

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13
Q

DTE

A

Differential Thermal Analysis

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14
Q

CEI

A

Chemical Exposure Index

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15
Q

FEI

A

Fire and Explosion Index

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16
Q

HIRA

A

Hazard Identification and Risk Analysis

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17
Q

FTA

A

Fault Tree Analysis

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18
Q

QRA

A

Quantitative Risk Assessment

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19
Q

TRA

A

Transportation Risk Analysis

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20
Q

How toxicants enters into organism?

Ingestion
Injection
Inhalation
All of the above

A

All of the above

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21
Q

Lowest value on response vs dose curve is called…

A

Thresold Limit Value

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22
Q

Identification, Evaluation and Control are the phases of ____.

A

Industrial Hygiene

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23
Q

Fire is rapid ____ of ignited fuel

A

Exothermic oxidation

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24
Q

____ is a rapid increase in volume and release of energy in an extreme manner, usually with the generation of high temperatures and the release of gases

A

Explosion

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25
Q

____ is the lowest temperature that the vapours of a material will ignite when exposed to an ignition source

A

Fire point

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26
Q

An explosion occurring within a vessel or a building, known as

A

Confined Explosion

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27
Q

Which of the following Causes of overpressure…..:

Ambient heat
Valve failures
Both 1 & 2
None of above

A

Both 1 & 2

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28
Q

For material handling which is wrong statement………

A

Environmental risk assessments should not be available

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29
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring the workers are provided with safe working environment?

A

OSHA

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30
Q

Hazard evaluation consist of the elements….

Safety Review/Audit/Inspection
HAZAN
HAZOP
All of the above

A

All of the above

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31
Q

PHA stands for

A

Process Hazard Analysis

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32
Q

Which of the following is not guide word of HAZOP?

A

NAND

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33
Q

HAZAN study includes:
- Estimate how often an incident will occur.
- steps can be taken to either eliminate risks or reduce risk to an acceptable level.
- It is centered around the hazard analysis and functional based safety process
- All of the above

A

All of the above

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34
Q

Process of adding inert gas to combustible mixture to reduce concentration of oxygen below limiting oxygen concentration (LOC)

A

inerting

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35
Q

Vessels can be pressure-purged by adding inert gas ____.

A

Under atmospheric pressure

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36
Q

The ____________ process determines whether exposure to a chemical can increase the incidence of adverse health effect.

A

Hazard identification

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37
Q

Hazard is defined as the probability of

A

suffering harm or loss

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38
Q

____ occurs when a tank containing a liquid held above its atmospheric pressure boiling point ruptures, resulting in the explosive vaporization of a large fraction of the tank contents.

A

Boiling-Liquid Expanding-Vapor Explosion

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39
Q

For ____ the reaction front propagates at a speed less than the speed of sound

A

deflagration

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40
Q

Static electricity is generated when

A

mists or sprays pass through orifices

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41
Q

The MIE depends on the:
- specific chemical or mixture
- the concentration
- pressure and temperature
- all of above

A

all of above

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42
Q

An explosion resulting from the sudden failure of a vessel containing high-pressure nonreactive gas

A

Mechanical explosion

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43
Q

The essential elements for ____ are fuel, an oxidizer, and an ignition source

A

Fire triangle

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44
Q

What is toxicity equivalence factor?

A

Ratio of the toxicity of a chemical to that of another structurally related chemical (or index compound) chosen as a reference

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45
Q

OSHA ensures that employees have been provided with _________

A

PPE

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46
Q

ED stands for

A

Effective dose

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47
Q

Eco-toxicology is based on ______ of chemicals.

A

Toxicological

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48
Q

OSHA is part of the ___________ department of labour.

A

US

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49
Q

toxicants enter organism through:

Ingestion
Injection
Dermal absorption
all of above

A

all of above

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50
Q

During the ………………phase, the various types of existing control measures and their effectiveness are also studied.

A

Evaluation

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51
Q

The unit-specific technical requirements are designed to ……

A

Prevent the release of HW

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52
Q

What are the steps involved in evaluation of toxicity?

A

hazard identification and dose-response evaluation

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53
Q

___________ establishes the relationship between the contaminant/s of concern and the receptor

A

Toxicity assessment

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54
Q

Which of the following is not characteristics of hazardous waste?

A

Leakage

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55
Q

Results from long-term exposure to lower doses of a chemical is known as ________

A

Chronic toxicity

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56
Q

Which of the following chemical is
responsible for acute lung disease from Bhopal gas tragedy?

A

Methylisocyanate

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57
Q

Heavy metals like Arsenic, Cadmium and Cyanide effects _________

A

Nervous system

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58
Q

______ represents a contact between a chemical agent and an object.

A

Exposure

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59
Q

Under the OSH Act, employers are responsible for providing a

A

Safe workplace

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60
Q

OSHA was created to _________

A

To reduce hazards

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61
Q

How is sensitivity analysed in risk estimation?

A

By critical assumptions

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62
Q

An incident can be called hazardous only when?

A

Stressor has the potential to cause harm to humans and ecological systems

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63
Q

What is the main purpose of hazard identification?

A

To characterize adverse effect of toxins

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64
Q

Doses are expressed on a _________ basis.

A

Body-weight

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65
Q

Major application of dose-response curve is to obtain ______

A

Threshold

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66
Q

Which of the following valve is known as a safety valve?

A

Pressure relief valve

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67
Q

When did Seveso accident occur?

A

1976

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68
Q

A waste to be called toxic, acute oral LD50 concentration should be _______ mg/kg

A

2500

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69
Q

What is chronic toxicity?

A

Effects due to long term exposure

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70
Q

The gauge pressure during normal service, usually 10% below the MAWP known as

A

Operating pressure

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71
Q

Pressure relief systems are required for which of the following reasons:
- to protect personnel from the dangers of overpressurizing equipment
- to minimize chemical losses during pressure upsets
- both 1 & 2
- None

A

both 1 & 2

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72
Q

Why does site history have to be considered for hazard identification?

A

To know the probable source and causes of contamination on site

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73
Q

Hazard identification mainly focus on

A

Chemical source and concentration

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74
Q

Estimation of short-term and long term exposure are usually in terms of

A

Doses by exposure rate

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75
Q

Which of the following risk assessment tool is used for the determination of spatial distribution of contaminants at the site?

A

Exposure assessment

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76
Q

What is the final stage of risk assessment?

A

Risk characterisation

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77
Q

The toxicological end point for dose-response relationship should be _________

A

Definitive

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78
Q

For existing chemicals, we should always consider ________ exposure assessment based on modelling, to derive an environmental concentration.

A

Reasonable worst case

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79
Q

What is the main goal of risk management?

A

Calculate probability of adverse effect on individual and population

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80
Q

Elements of safe chemical storage program consist of:

Inventory of Chemicals
Labeling of Chemicals
Segregating Incompatibles
All of the above

A

All of the above

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81
Q

The FAR reports the number of fatalities based on 1000 employees working their entire lifetime. The employees are assumed to work a total of 50 years.

A

FAR

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82
Q

The last step of accident process

A

Termination

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83
Q

LD50 in a toxicity test stands for ______

A

a dose that will kill 50% of an exposed population

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84
Q

which of the following incorrect?

The relief valve is primarily for liquid service.
The safety valve is for gas service.
The safety relief valve is used for liquid and gas service.
None of above

A

None of above

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85
Q

The pressure difference between the relief set pressure and the relief reseating pressure. It is expressed as a percentage of the set pressure

A

Blowdown

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86
Q

What is the most common approach used to assess skin exposure to a contaminant?

A

using pad or dosimeters to determine the amount of contaminant deposited on the skin

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87
Q

The father of occupational medicine who said a doctor should always ask a patient of what trade are you is said to be

A

Dr. Ramazzini

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88
Q

Who had a large influence on American OHS regulation in the early part of the 20th century, and who also wrote exploring the dangerous trades

A

dr. Alice Hamilton

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89
Q

In what year did the US federal government first pass a workers compensation act for some civil employees

A

1908

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90
Q

In what year was the first American state workers compensation act passed

A

1911

91
Q

this American federal act was the first know legal adoption of standards for allowable concentrations of chemicals in workplace air

A

Walsh-healey Public Contract Act

92
Q

The most well known OEls are established by

A

ACGIH

93
Q

The ACGIH TLVs

A

are science based

94
Q

If three of the following are said to be exposure limits for chemical X, which one is likely to be the ceiling limit

A

1000ppm

95
Q

The definition of the ACGIH TLV_STELs refer to certain health effects that must be avoided. these do not include

A

carcinogenicity

96
Q

Which organization is widely recognized around the world as setting exposure limits for ionizing radiation

A

International commission on Radiological Protection (ICRP)

97
Q

Which is not an agent ACGIH sets standards for

A

ionizing radiation

98
Q

Which is not one of the main forms in which chemicals are present in the workplace

A

fibers

99
Q

Chemicals cause two main kinds of health effects

A

local effects and poisoning

100
Q

Who said it is the dose only that makes a thing not a poison

A

Paracelsus

101
Q

a dose response curve illustrating acute toxicity usually has

A

a s-shaped or sigmoidal curve

102
Q

If the dose response curves of three chemicals are shown on the same graph, the one which intersects the x-axis (dose) at the lowest dose

A

the most poisonous

103
Q

the most common type of LD 50 test involves

A

an oral dose

104
Q

For any given chemical, a high LD 50 value generally means

A

low toxicity

105
Q

Which statement about ingestion as a route of entry into the workers body by workplace chemicals is incorrect

A

ingestion is usually a significant way in which chemicals gain entry into the body

106
Q

the two main categories of skin irritation caused by chemicals are

A

inflammation and corrosion

107
Q

An example of a workplace chemical that can damage the kidneys specifically is

A

lead salts

108
Q

Which is not a chemical known to specifically damage the kidney

A

vinyl chloride

109
Q

Which is not one of the four main types of skin exposures

A

radiological

110
Q

What violations are most commonly cited by OSHA?

A

Fall protection

111
Q

What is the leading cause of death on construction sites?

A

Falls

112
Q

Which of the following is not a chemical-related health hazard?

A

Reactivity

113
Q

A container holding a hazardous material must include which of the following as of June 15, 2014:

A. Identity of the hazardous chemical only
B. Identity of the hazardous chemical, instructions on how to use
C. Identify of the hazardous chemical, names of employees authorized to use
D. None of the above

A

None of the above

114
Q

If you transfer chemicals from a labeled container to a portable container, you don’t need to comply with standard hazardous material labeling requirements when:

A. You hand the container off to someone else
B. You leave the work area before using the materials
C. You don’t use the materials before the end of your work shift
D. None of the above

A

None of the above

115
Q

Rubber insulating gloves need to be tested:

A

Before first use and then every 6 months

116
Q

Which of the following organizations coordinates the collection of chemical inventories for the Process Industries

A

EH&S

117
Q

Most of common hazardous classes include:

Corrosive acids
Oxidizer
Cryogens
All

A

ALL

118
Q

Each chemical family is to be separated by

A

Non-combustible partition

119
Q

Which of the following should not be stored near organic acids

A

Oxidizing mineral acids

120
Q

Which of the following to be referred during storage of specific chemicals

A Material Safety Data Sheet
B Steam Table
C Chemical and Physical Properties
D Chemical Storage Guides

A

Chemical Storage Guide

121
Q

Acetic acid is both –

A Corrosive acid and combustible liquid
B Corrosive base and combustible liquid
C Cryogen and combustible gas
D Oxidizer and combustible liquid

A

Corrosive acid and combustible liquid

122
Q

Flammable and combustible liquids are to stored in

A Bins
B Flammable storage cabinets
C Barrels
D Cans

A

Flammable storage cabinets

123
Q

Inerting is the process of adding an inert gas to a combustible mixture to reduce the

A concentration of oxygen below the _____________
B Oxygen concentration
C Least Oxygen Concentration
D Limiting Oxygen Concentration

A

Least Oxygen Concentration

124
Q

Flammable materials are charged only after the _______

A Cleaning
B Washing
C Oxidizing
D Inerting

A

Inerting

125
Q

The _____________ purging process adds purge gas into a vessel at one opening and withdraws the mixed gas from the vessel to the atmosphere (or scrubber) from

A Sweep-through
B Vacuum
C Pressure
D Siphon

A

Sweep-through

126
Q

For industrial operations where flammable vapors may be present, any charge accumulation exceeding 0.1 mJ is considered dangerous.

A 1 mJ
B 10 mJ
C 0.1 mJ
D 20 mJ

A

0.1 mJ

127
Q

When charged liquid droplets or solid particles settle on an isolated object, the object is charged then it is a

A Contact and frictional charging
B Double-layer charging
C Induction charging
D Charging by transport

A

Charging by transport

128
Q

__________ is applicable only to materials that are electrically conductive

A Contact and frictional charging
B Double-layer charging
C Induction charging
D Charging by transport

A

Induction charging

129
Q

Spark Discharge is a discharge between two __________

A Metallic objects
B Non-metallic objects
C Metallic and non-metallic objects
D Insulators

A

Metallic objects

130
Q

A _________ is a discharge from a grounded conductor when it approaches a charged insulator that is backed by a conductor

A Spark discharge
B Propagating brush discharge
C Conical pile discharge
D Lightning discharge

A

Propagating brush discharge

131
Q

The purpose of ventilation is to dilute the _______ with air to prevent explosion and to confine the ______ mixtures.

A Toxic vapors; flammable
B Hazardous flammable; Explosive vapors
C Explosive vapors; hazardous flammable
D Flammable; Toxic vapors

A

Explosive vapors; hazardous flammable

132
Q

Each chemical family should be separated from all other chemical families by an approved non-combustible partition or by a distance of ______ feet.

A Ten
B Twenty
C Thirty
D Fourty

A

Twenty

133
Q

While storing of chemicals in store rooms the care must be taken for the leaks, spills and _____

A Weeps
B Holes
C Drips
D None of the above

A

Drips

134
Q

Prevent chemicals from running down sink, floor, or _____________

A Storm water drains
B Holes
C Channels
D None of the above

A

Storm water drains

135
Q

An inerting system is required to maintain an inert atmosphere in the _______ above the liquid.

A Vacuum space
B Confined space
C Vapour space
D None of the above

A

Vapour space

136
Q

vacuum purging is a common procedure for which of the following

A Storage vessels
B Crystallizers
C Distillation columns
D Reactors

A

Reactors

137
Q

vessel is pressurized with pure nitrogen, the number of moles of oxygen ________ during pressurization, whereas the mole fraction _________.

A Increases; decreases
B Decreases; increases
C Remains constant; decreases
D Increases; increases

A

Remains constant; decrease

138
Q

The _________ process adds purge gas into a vessel at one opening and withdraws the mixed gas from the vessel to the atmosphere (or scrubber) from another opening.

A Siphon purging
B Vauum purging
C Pressure purging
D sweep-through purging

A

sweep-through purging

139
Q

In _________ Purging results are defined by assuming perfect mixing within the vessel, constant temperature, and constant pressure.

A sweep-through purging
B Vacuum purging
C Pressure purging
D Siphon purging

A

sweep-through purging

140
Q

The _______ process requires large quantities of nitrogen

A Vacuum purging
B sweep-through purging
C Pressure purging
D Siphon purging

A

sweep-through purging

141
Q

The _________ process starts by filling the vessel with liquid - water or any
liquid Compatible with the product.

A Vacuum purging
B sweep-through purging
C Pressure purging
D Siphon purging

A

Siphon purging

142
Q

In ____ purging the oxygen concentration is decreased to low concentrations with only a small added expense for the additional sweep through purging.

A Vacuum purging
B sweep-through purging
C Siphon purging
D Pressure purging

A

Siphon purging

143
Q

During equipment design for unavoidable ________ design features are added to continuously and reliably inert the atmosphere around the regions where static sparks are likely.

A Static build-up
B Pressure build-up
C Inert build-up
D Temperature rise

A

Static build-up

144
Q

Static charge build-up is a result of physically separating a _____ from a good conductor or another poor conductor.

A Poor insulator
B Poor conductor
C Pure metal
D Pure insulator

A

Poor conductor

145
Q

Probability of the event that might occur X Severity of the event if it occurs

(A) Accident
(B) Hazard
(C) Risk
(D) None of the above

A

(C) Risk

146
Q

Industrial safety management if that branch of management which is concerned with ______ hazards from the industries.

(A) Reducing
(B) Controlling
(C) Eliminating
(D) All of the above

A

(D) All of the above

147
Q

The following is indirect cost of accident

(A) Money paid for treatment of worker
(B) Compensation paid to worker
(C) Cost of lost time of injured worker
(D) All of the above

A

(C) Cost of lost time of injured worker

148
Q

The following is(are) physical hazard agent(s)

(A) Falls
(B) Electricity
(C) Inhalation
(D) All of the above

A

(D) All of the above

149
Q

Check list for Job Safety Analysis (JSA) consists of

(A) Work area, material, machine, tools
(B) Men, machine, material, tools
(C) Men, machine, work area, tools
(D) Men, work area. Material, tools

A

(A) Work area, material, machine, tools

150
Q

A safety programme consists of

(A) Three E’s
(B) Four E’s
(C) Five E’s
(D) Six E’s

A

(B) Four E’s

151
Q

For household wiring and small units, the following should be used for safety measure

(A) MCB
(B) ACB
(C) OCB
(D) MCCB

A

(A) MCB

152
Q

Which of the following colour is used for radiation hazard?

(A) Red
(B) Orange
(C) Green
(D) Purple

A

(D) Purple

153
Q

Decibel (db) is a unit used to measure

(A) Light
(B) Sound
(C) Frequency
(D) None of the above

A

(B) Sound

154
Q

The following is (are) are generally provided with limit switch to prevent motion beyond preset limit

(A) Hoists
(B) Conveyors
(C) Machine tables
(D) All of the above

A

(D) All of the above

155
Q

The following is (are) used as safety device(s) in machines

(A) Fail safe
(B) Safety interlocks
(C) Limit switches
(D) All of the above

A

(D) All of the above

156
Q

Class-A fire consists of fire due to

(A) Wood
(B) Oil
(C) Transformer
(D) Chemical

A

(A) Wood

157
Q

Water is used to extinguish

(A) Class-A fires
(B) Class-B fires
(C) Class-C fires
(D) All of the above

A

(A) Class-A fires

158
Q

The following class of fire occur in electrical equipment

(A) Class-A fires
(B) Class-B fires
(C) Class-C fires
(D) All of the above

A

(C) Class-C fires

159
Q

The following extinguisher is suitable for cotton or other textile fire

(A) Water
(B) Soda acid
(C) Foam
(D) Dry chemicals

A

(D) Dry chemicals

160
Q

_____ is best suited to extinguishing oil or flammable liquid fire.

(A) Soda acid
(B) Vaporizing liquid
(C) Foam
(D) Dry chemical

A

(C) Foam

161
Q

I have a right to know about chemicals I work with or around

 A. True
 B. False

A

True

162
Q

I can learn about the hazards of specific chemicals by

 A. Asking a co-worker
 B. Reading the Material Safety Data Sheet
 C. Reading science magazines
 D. Talking to friends about it

A

Reading the Material Safety Data Sheet

163
Q

Labels on chemical containers

 A. Tell me basic safety and use information
 B. Are not required
 C. Provide all the information I need
 D. Come in many colors

A

Tell me basic safety and use information

164
Q

If I use chemicals at work I must

 A. Be very careful
 B. Never work alone
 C. Wear a respirator
 D. Be specifically trained and authorized

A

Be specifically trained and authorized

165
Q

Material Safety Data Sheets provide information about

 A. Hazards about a specific chemical
 B. Emergency information
 C. Information on chemical reactions
 D. All of the above

A

All of the above

166
Q

The correct Personal Protective Equipment can

 A. Be used when I want to
 B. Protect me from Chemical hazards
 C. Cause skin irritation
 D. Make me work slower

A

Protect me from Chemical hazards

167
Q

On the multi-colored chemical label, Blue represents

 A. Fire Hazard
 B. Health Hazard
 C. Reactivity Hazard
 D. Personal Protective Equipment

A

Health Hazard

168
Q

On the multi-colored chemical label, Red represents

 A. Fire Hazard
 B. Health Hazard
 C. Reactivity Hazard
 D. Personal Protective Equipment

A

Fire Hazard

169
Q

On the multi-colored chemical label, White represents

 A. Fire Hazard
 B. Health Hazard
 C. Reactivity Hazard
 D. Special Hazards

A

Special Hazards

170
Q

On the multi-colored chemical label, Yellow represents

 A. Fire Hazard
 B. Health Hazard
 C. Reactivity Hazard
 D. Personal Protective Equipment

A

Reactivity Hazard

171
Q

Flammable chemicals are stored

 A. Where ever it is easy to get to
 B. In special flammable storage lockers
 C. Near water sources
 D. In glass containers

A

In special flammable storage lockers

172
Q

Spills of Chemicals should be

 A. Cleaned up by trained employees
 B. Reported immediately
 C. Prevented by using seal containers
 D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

173
Q

How many workers were killed on the job in 2012?

A. 46
B. 462
C. 4,628
D. 46,280

A

4,628

174
Q

The following symbol is used when something in your workplace is a: Image includes: (4 overlapping circles)

A. Chemical Weapon
B. Biohazard
B. Toxic Substance
C. Radiation Danger

A

BIOHAZARD: A biohazard is a biological material that poses significant health risks to humans or animals.

175
Q

If you wanted to convey the most severe type of hazard, which word would you use?

A. Warning
B. Notice
C. Danger
D. Caution

A

Danger

176
Q

If you transfer chemicals from a labeled container to a portable container, you don’t need to comply with standard hazardous material labeling requirements when:

A. You hand the container off to someone else
B. You leave the work area before using the materials
C. You don’t use the materials before the end of your work shift
D. None of the above

A

D. None of the above

177
Q

Ammonia becomes an immediate danger to your life and health when it is present at the following level or greater:

A. 10 ppm
B. 30 ppm
C. 300 ppm
D. 1000 ppm

A

300 ppm

178
Q

You should wear eye, head, and face protection if you are working with
which of the following tools?

A. Portable abrasive wheel tools
B. Electric tools
C. Pneumatic tools
D. Liquid fuel tools

A

Pneumatic tools

179
Q

Which of these is not a power tool safety precaution?

A. Never carry a tool by the cord or hose.
B. Never yank the cord or the hose to disconnect it from the receptacle.
C. Keep tools plugged in when not in use, before servicing, and when changing accessories such as blades, bits and cutters.
D. Keep cords and hoses away from heat, oil, and sharp edges.

A

Keep tools plugged in when not in use, before servicing, and when changing accessories such as blades, bits and cutters.

180
Q

Which of the following is not true about powder-actuated tools?

A. If a powder-actuated tool misfires, you should try to fire it again immediately.
B. They are so dangerous they can only be powered by specially trained employees.
C. They should never be loaded unless they are being used immediately.
D. They require two separate motions for firing – one to bring to tool into position and another to pull the trigger.

A

If a powder-actuated tool misfires, you should try to fire it again immediately.

181
Q

Hydraulic jacks exposed to freezing temperatures must:

A. Be filled with adequate antifreeze liquid
B. Be warmed up before use
C. Be tagged and immediately removed from service
D. None of the above

A

Be filled with adequate antifreeze liquid

182
Q

If you are working near a flammable substance, you should always use iron or steel hand tools.

A. True
B. False

A

False

183
Q

OSHA requires that electric tools:

A. Have a three wire cord with ground and be grounded
B. Be double insulated
C. Be powered by a low-voltage transformer
D. Any of the above

A

Any of the above

184
Q

You should not use a wedge if it has:

A. Pointed head
B. Triangular head
C. Mushroomed head
D. Flat head

A

Mushroomed head

185
Q

The Occupational Safety & Health Administration requires employers to have Hearing Conservation Plans if the average 8-hour noise exposure is more than:

A. 1000 decibels
B. 500 deceibles
C. 105 decibels
D. 85 decibels

A

85 decibels

186
Q

A normal conversation registers at about:

A. 0 to 10 decibels
B. 10 to 20 decibels
C. 30 to 40 decibels
D. 50 to 60 decibels

A

50 to 60 decibels

187
Q

Exposure to high levels of noise can lead to which of the following:

A. High blood pressure
B. Gastrointestinal problems
C. Chronic fatigue.
D. All of the above

A

All of the above

188
Q

The most effective way to prevent hearing loss at work is to:

A. Monitor your hearing loss over time with a routine hearing test
B. Always wear ear protection everywhere you go
C. Monitor noise levels through engineering and administrative controls to minimize overexposure
D. None of the above

A

Monitor noise levels through engineering and administrative controls to minimize overexposure

189
Q

How many points of contact should you maintain with a ladder at all times?

A. At least two
B. At least three
C. One
D. Four

A

At least three

190
Q

How often should ladders be inspected?

A. Before each use
B. Once a week
C. Once a month
D. Every 6 months

A

Before each use

191
Q

OSHA prohibits working on a scaffold in the presence of winds above:

A. 10 mph
B. 20 mph
C. 30 mph
D. 40 mph

A

40 mph

192
Q

Ladders should be angled so that the its base is one foot out from the wall for each ____ feet of a ladder’s height.

A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 10

A

4

193
Q

If you fall, you should always try and break your fall with your hands.

A. True
B. False

A

False

194
Q

OSHA restricts ladders from being higher than:

A. 20 feet
B. 15 feet
C. 12 feet
D. 10 feet

A

20 feet

195
Q

If you are driving a forklift and it begins to tip over, you should

A. Jump out immediately
B. Stay in the vehicle with your seatbelt unfastened
C. Stay in the vehicle with your seatbelt fastened
D. Stand up with a tight grip on the steering wheel

A

Stay in the vehicle with your seatbelt fastened

196
Q

A forklift or industrial truck is unattended if the operator is:

A. More than 25 feet away from the vehicle
B. More than 18 feet away from the vehicle
C. More than 8 feet away from the vehicle
D. More than 3 feet away from the vehicle

A

More than 25 feet away from the vehicle

197
Q

Which of the following information is not found on a forklift nameplate?

A. Fuel type
B. Load capacity
C. Names of licensed operators
D. Weight of the forklift

A

Names of licensed operators

198
Q

While carrying a load downhill on a forklift, you should:

A. Zig-zag down the hill slowly
B. Drive forward with the fork pointing downhill
C. Drive in reverse with the fork pointing uphill
D. None of the above

A

Drive forward with the fork pointing downhill

199
Q

While lowering a load with a forklift, you should not do which of the following?

A. Tilt the mast backward to stabilize the load
B. Stop the truck and put the mast to vertical position
C. Move the truck 8 to 12 feet away from the stack
D. Lower the load so that its lowest point is 6 to 8 inches from the ground

A

Move the truck 8 to 12 feet away from the stack

200
Q

What is OSHA’s maximum capacity for a manlift?

A. 500 lbs, 2 people
B. 500 lbs, 3 people
C. 400 lbs, 2 people
D. 200 lbs, 1 person

A

500 lbs, 2 people

201
Q

On which of the following types of surfaces should a Class B fire extinguisher not be used?

A. Paint
B. Grease
C. Oil
D. Plastic

A

Plastic

202
Q

On which of the following types of surfaces should a Class A fire extinguisher not be used?

A. Cloth
B. Wood
C. Paper
D. Electrical equipment

A

Electrical equipment

203
Q

Which type of fire extinguishing system is most commonly used to protect areas containing valuable equipment such as data processing rooms, telecommunications switches, and process control rooms?

A. Fixed extinguishing systems
B. Portable extinguishing systems
C. Hose extinguishing systems
D. It’s up to the discretion the employer

A

Fixed extinguishing systems

204
Q

Which class of fire extinguishers should you use on electrically energized fires?

A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D

A

Class C

205
Q

The acronym “PASS” used for fire extinguisher operation stands for:

A. Pick up, Aim, Squeeze, Squirt
B. Push, Alarm, Swirl, Sweep
C. Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
D. Pull, Aim, Swirl, Swat

A

Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep

206
Q

If you need to wear glasses with your eye or face protection, which of the following options is acceptable:

A. Wearing prescription spectacles with side shields and protective lenses that meet safety requirements and also correct your vision
B. Wearing goggles that fit comfortably over your glasses
C. Wearing goggles that have corrective lenses mounted behind the protective lenses
D. All of the above

A

All of the above

207
Q

Which helmet provides electrical protection from high-voltage conductors?

A. Class A helmets
B. Class B helmets
C. Class C helmets
D. Class D helmets

A

Class B helmets

208
Q

Which of the following helmets should you not use around electrical hazards?

A. Class A helmets
B. Class B helmets
C. Class C helmets
D. Class D helmets

A

Class C helmets

209
Q

Rubber insulating gloves need to be tested:

A. Before first use and then every 6 months
B. Before first use and then once/week
C. Before first use and then once/month
D. Before first use only

A

Before first use and then every 6 months

210
Q

Which of the following conditions is least likely to prevent you from wearing a respirator?

A. Having sideburns
B. Wearing glasses.
C. Having a beard.
D. Wearing contact lenses

A

Wearing contact lenses

211
Q

Portable space heaters can be a danger in the workplace, and therefore, must:

A. Be approved by the Plan Administrator
B. Have tip-over protection that shuts off the heater if it tips over
C. Have adequate clearance between the heater and any combustibles
D. All of the above

A

All of the above

212
Q

The most dangerous place to use electrical equipment is:

A. Near a ladder
B. Outdoors
C. Near water
D. Near other electrical equipment

A

Near water

213
Q

The safest ladder to use around electricity is:

A. Wood
B. Aluminum
C. A smaller step stool
D. Fiberglass

A

Fiberglass

214
Q

Flexible cords may not be be used for which of the following:

A. Wiring of cranes and hoists
B. Elevator cables
C. To prevent transmission of noise or vibration
D. As a substitute for permanent wiring

A

As a substitute for permanent wiring

215
Q

The effects that an electrical shock has on your body can depend on:

A. Its current
B. The presence of moisture in the environment
C. Its duration
D. All of the above

A

All of the above

216
Q

Process Safety Incidents generally are a result of an unplanned or uncontrolled release of hazardous material.

a) True
b) False
c) Sometimes, but not always
d) True, unless it disperses to atmosphere

A

a) True

217
Q

Continuous improvement in tackling personnel safety issues automatically ensures that process safety issues are addressed

a) Yes
b) No
c) Sometimes

A

b) No

218
Q

A safe plant is the one in which

a) Integrity is established at the design stage
b) Technical integrity is maintained throughout the life cycle of the asset
c) Operating integrity is maintained all the time
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

219
Q

At PDO the risk profile of our operations has

Increased over time
Remained the same
Declined over time
None of the above

A

Increased over time

220
Q

Who is responsible for managing process safety and asset integrity

Operations and Maintenance Staff
Projects and Engineering Staff
Contracts and Procurement Staff
All of us either directly or indirectly

A

All of us either directly or indirectly

221
Q

If you bypass an ESD function for preventive maintenance but have not properly defined mitigations you have

฀ Removed a hardware barrier
฀ Weakened the hardware barrier
฀ Removed a human barrier
฀ None of the above

A

Removed a hardware barrier

222
Q

If you see any leaks or spills what should you do

Walk past as it is not your job to report it.
Report the leak immediately
Report only if the leak seems to be getting worse
Report only if the leak is big

A

Report the leak immediately

223
Q

OSHA

A

OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HAZARD ADMINISTRATION