clinical psychology Flashcards

1
Q

tell me about the three components of Freud’s theory.

A

Id. immediate needs (sex-death, instincts), the now
ego, six months, tries to gratify the id in a realistic way
superego, blocks the id works with the ego, to satisfy in ways that are socially acceptable.

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2
Q

what does the ego do

A

works between the id -I want it now and the superego, restraint-conscious

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3
Q

where do defence mechanisms arise from

A

inabilitiy of the ego to balance the id and superego

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4
Q

explain the following defence mechanisms?

A

Repression is the basis of all other defense mechanisms, is involuntary, and involves keeping undesirable thoughts and urges out of conscious awareness.

Denial is an immature defense mechanism that involves refusing to acknowledge distressing aspects of reality. Methods of denial include ignoring, distorting, and rejecting reality.

Reaction formation involves defending against an unacceptable impulse by expressing its opposite(actually I’m happy)

projection involves attributing an unacceptable impulse to another person, ( no you are angry)

sublimation involves channeling an unacceptable impulse into a socially desirable (and often admirable) endeavor. (channel my anger

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5
Q

what is the main goals of psychoanalytic theory

A

make unconscious conscious
work through uncomfortable material
healthy ego.

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6
Q

Whats up with jung?

A

-behavior is driven by both positive and negative forces
-personality continues to develop throughout the lifespan -behavior is affected by the past and the future.

unconscious aspect of the psyche into the personal and collective unconscious:

-The collective unconscious contains archetypes, which are universal thoughts and images that predispose people to act in similar ways in certain circumstances. They’re expressed in myths, symbols, and dreams and include the persona, shadow, hero, and anima and animus.

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7
Q

What is Jungs process of therapy called

A
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8
Q

what is the big differences between humanistic and existential therapies.

A

-Humanistic therapies emphasize acceptance and growth and help clients become more fully-functioning and self-actualizing.

-existential therapies emphasize freedom and responsibility and “help clients confront the anxieties that arise from the awareness of one’s existential condition

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9
Q

what are the three core conditions or rogers and what do they aim for?

A

self-actualization

empathy, unconditional positive regard, and congruence

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10
Q

Tell me about Gestalt therapy?

A

people are motivated to maintain a state of homeostasis

disrupted by unfulfilled physical and psychological needs

people seek to obtain something from the environment to satisfy their unfulfilled needs in order to restore homeostasis.

Neurosis (maladjustment) occurs when there’s a persistent disturbance in the boundary between the person and the environment that interferes with the person’s ability to fulfill needs.

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11
Q

what are examples of boundary disturbances in gestalt theory?

A

Introjection occurs when people adopt the beliefs, standards, and values of others without evaluation or awareness

projection occurs when people attribute undesirable aspects of themselves to other people.

Retroflection occurs when people do to themselves what they’d like to do to others;

deflection occurs when people avoid contact with the environment; and confluence occurs when people blur the distinction between themselves and others.

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12
Q

what are some techniques of Gestalt?

A

dream work
empty chair

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13
Q

existential what is the difference between neurotic and normal anxiety?

A

normal vs dissproportionate

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14
Q

what are yaloms four challenges?

A

death, isolation, meaningless, freedom

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15
Q

reality therapy 5 needs

A

love and belonging, power, fun, freedom, and survival

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16
Q

reality success vs failure identity

A

you fulfill your needs in a good way or a bad way.
the goal is success

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17
Q

what are the parts of positive psychology?

A

past, hope, flow in the present

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18
Q

flow occurs best when?

A

challenge and skill are high

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19
Q

What is personal construct theory

A

well we develop personal constructs with the goal being to develop healthy constructs(bipolar meanings) to interpret and grown in our reality.

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20
Q

Jung referred to the process of developing a unique and unified personality as:

A. differentiation.

B. self-actualization.

C. individuation.

D. introjection.

A

C. individuation.

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21
Q

A practitioner of positive psychology is most likely to say that which of the following is a primary antecedent of flow?

A. self-compassion

B. emotion regulation

C. congruence between self and ideal self

D. a balance between challenge and skill

A

D. a balance between challenge and skill

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22
Q

As described by Carl Rogers, incongruence between self-concept and experience is caused by which of the following?

A. conditions of worth

B. a chronic boundary disturbance

C. “bad choices”

D. feelings of inferiority

A

A. conditions of worth

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23
Q

A practitioner of Freudian psychoanalysis is most likely to interpret the artistic endeavors of his client as a diversion of the client’s unacceptable aggressive urges and a manifestation of which of the following?

A. displacement

B. sublimation

C. projection

D. reaction formation

A

B. sublimation

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24
Q

For Gestalt therapists, __________ is a boundary disturbance that involves uncritically accepting the values, standards, and beliefs of other people.

A. projection

B. deflection

C. introjection

D. retroflection

A

C. introjection

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25
Q

Practitioners of Glasser’s reality therapy view the primary motivator of behavior to be which of the following?

A. unconscious instinctual drives

B. basic needs

C. self-actualization

D. striving for superiority

A

B. basic needs

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26
Q

Tell me about interpersonal therapy?

A

Interpersonal factors that contribute to a client’s current symptoms.
-medical model
-originally depression
-relief and improved functioning
3 stages
1. diagnosis and factors associated with problem.
e.g. depression
a. interpersonal role disputes
b. interpersonal role transitions
c. interpersonal deficits
d. grief

  1. middle phase, treatment-encouragement of affect, role-playing, communication analysis, and decision analysis
  2. final phase, termination and relapse
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27
Q

SFT tell me about

A

solutions to problems
-scaling
-miracle questions
-exception to the rule
-

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28
Q

Tell me about transtheoretical model?

A

-pre-contemplation, no plan within 6 months

-contemplation, a plan within 6 months

-preparation, preparing within a month

-action, doing it

-maintenance, have done it for 6 months

-termination, decisional balance, self-efficacy, and temptation.

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29
Q

Tell me about motivational interviewing?

A

exploring ambivalence
-based on bandura and rogers
-originally for substance users

-change talk, sustain talk, discord talk

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30
Q

is MI effective

A

yes as a standalone
equal for in person or tele
-better when combined

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31
Q

Tell me about brief psychodynamic therapy?

A
  1. change can occur during a brief therapeutic process
  2. therapy should have limited goals that are identified and agreed upon by the client and therapist during the initial sessions of therapy.
  3. only certain types of clients (e.g., clients who can benefit from insight-oriented therapy and are able to form a therapeutic alliance).
  4. practitioners adopt an active role
  5. emphasize the development of positive (versus negative) transference and may rely more on exploration or education than on interpretation.
  6. Sixth, due to the brevity of therapy, practitioners address loss, separation, and other concerns related to termination of therapy early in treatment.
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32
Q

Which of the following is not one of the four problem areas that are targeted by practitioners of interpersonal psychotherapy when working with clients who are depressed?

A. grief

B. role disputes

C. intimacy

D. role transitions

A

C. intimacy

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33
Q

A 58-year-old man comes to therapy at the insistence of his wife who is threatening to leave him if he doesn’t stop drinking. The man says he’s been drinking alcohol since he was in his late 20s, has tried stopping when family members have asked him to, but doesn’t see why his drinking bothers other people so much. He says he doesn’t really want to stop and has only come to therapy to make his wife happy. According to Prochaska and DiClemente’s transtheoretical model, this man is in which stage of change?

A. denial

B. acceptance

C. precontemplation

D. contemplation

A

C. precontemplation

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34
Q

During her initial therapy session, a client with an alcohol use disorder tells her therapist that drinking helps her relax and makes it easier for her to talk to people. The therapist, a practitioner of motivational interviewing, will most likely view the client’s statement as:

A. change talk.

B. sustain talk.

C. discord.

D. introjection.

A

B. sustain talk.

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35
Q

According to the transtheoretical model, factors that contribute to a person’s motivation to change an undesirable behavior include all of the following except:

A. self-efficacy.

B. temptation.

C. insight.

D. decisional balance.

A

C. insight.

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36
Q

Motivational interviewing incorporates concepts and procedures from which of the following?

A. Jung’s analytical psychotherapy

B. Adler’s individual psychology

C. Skinner’s operant conditioning

D. Rogers’s person-centered therapy

A

D. Rogers’s person-centered therapy

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37
Q

A solution-focused therapist would most likely ask a client the “miracle question” to:

A. evaluate the client’s progress in therapy.

B. help the client identify treatment goals.

C. identify the client’s strengths and resources.

D. identify the causes of the client’s presenting problem.

A

B. help the client identify treatment goals.

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38
Q

Where does family systems finds its roots in

A

general systems theory
cybernetics theory

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39
Q

tell me about negative and positive feedback loops

A

Negative reinforces the system
positive allows for change and movement.

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40
Q

What is an example of double-blind communication?

A

you receive two opposite complementary messages and can’t comment on it, linked to schizophrenia.

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41
Q

o.k., tell me about symmetrical vs complementary interactions.

A

symmetrical is one member mirrors the other, which can cause problems as you both race to reach dominance.

complementary, one goes alpha, and the other complements it by going beta.

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42
Q

extended family systems theory is also known as ?

A

Bowen’s extended family systems therapy is also known as intergenerational and transgenerational family therapy

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43
Q

what are the big parts of Bowen’s theory

A

-emotional triangles
-differentiation
-genograms
-multigenerational transfusion process
-family projection process (immature parents project their immaturity onto their parents)

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44
Q

Minuchin structural family therapy tell me about it?

A

based on structure, boundaries, systems, and subsystems.

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45
Q

Minchin had four coalitions described.

A
  1. Stable coalition occurs when one parent and a child form an alliance against the other parent.
  2. An unstable coalition is also known as triangulation and occurs when each parent demands that the child side with him or her.
  3. A detouring-attack coalition occurs when parents avoid the conflict between them by blaming the child for their problems.
  4. A detouring-support coalition occurs when parents avoid their own conflict by overprotecting the child.
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46
Q

what are the stages of structural family therapy

A
  1. joining
  2. evaluating
  3. intervening
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47
Q

Tell me about strategic family therapy?

A

-power and control in relationships are core features of family functioning
-“a symptom is a strategy that is adaptive to a current social situation for controlling a relationship when all other strategies have failed.

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48
Q

What does the initial session of strategic family therapy consist of?

A

-brief social stage, the therapist welcomes the family and observes the family’s interactions.
-problem stage, in which the therapist elicits each family member’s view of the family problem and its causes.
-interactional stage, family members discuss their different views of the family’s problem, and the therapist observes how family members interact when addressing the problem.
-Finally goal-setting stage.

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49
Q

What are some strategies for strategic family systems?

A

Paradoxical directives help family members realize that they have control over problematic behavior or use the resistance of family members to help them change in the desired way.

-Prescribing the symptom involves instructing family members to engage in the problematic behavior, often in an exaggerated way.

-Restraining involves encouraging family members not to change or warning them not to change too quickly.

-ordeal is an unpleasant task that a family member is asked to perform whenever he or she engages in the undesirable behavior.

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50
Q

Tell me about milan systemic family therapy?

A

the system supports the status quo
a bad system that is rigid, and negative is made with dirty games.

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51
Q

What are some strategies of systemic family therapy?

A

primary goal of therapy is to alter the family rules and communication patterns that are maintaining problematic behavior.

-hypothesizing
-neutrality
-circular questioning
-positive connotation
-family rituals

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52
Q

Tell me about conjoint family therapy?

A

Satir, family systems seek a state of balance, with family problems arising when balance is maintained by unrealistic expectations, inappropriate rules and roles, and dysfunctional communication.
-really focussed on congruence

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53
Q
A
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54
Q

According to conjoint what are 4 dysfunctional styles?

A

-Placating involves agreeing with or capitulating to others due to fear, dependency, and a desire to be loved and accepted.
-Blaming involves accusing, judging, and bullying others to avoid taking responsibility and to hide feelings of vulnerability and worthlessness.
-Computing involves taking an overly intellectual and rational (super-reasonable) approach to avoid becoming emotionally engaged with others.
-Distracting involves changing the subject and making inappropriate jokes to distract attention and avoid conflict.

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55
Q

What is narrative family therapy all about?

A

replace problem-saturated stories with alternative stories that support more satisfying and preferred outcomes.

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56
Q

In narrative family therapy explain externalizing questions, open space questions?

A

externalizing is obvious
open space questions are exceptions to the rule

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57
Q

Tell me about emotionally focused therapy

A

integrates principles of attachment theory, humanistic-experiential approaches, and systems theory. It was originally developed as a treatment for couples but has also been applied to families and individuals

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58
Q

Yalom identifies 11 factors for group therapy which is the most important

A

group cohesiveness

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59
Q

What are the assumptions of EFT

A

(a) emotions are essential to the organization of attachment behaviors and influence how people experience themselves and their partners in intimate relationships
(b) the attachment needs of partners are essentially healthy and adaptive but problems arise when needs are enacted in the context of attachment-related insecurities
(c) relationship distress is maintained by the ways in which interactions between partners are organized and by the dominant emotional experiences of each partner

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60
Q

tell me about the effectiveness of couples for EMDR?

A

that couples in the combined EFT and EMDR group experienced the greatest improvement in marital satisfaction and attachment security

while those in the EMDR only group had the greatest reduction in posttraumatic symptoms.

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61
Q

Tell me about Yalom stages of therapy?

A
  1. initial orientation, hesitant participation, search for meaning, and dependency stage, group members are concerned with clarifying the nature and purpose of the group and depend on the leader for structure, acceptance, and answers to their questions. Interactions between members often focus on describing symptoms and previous treatments and involve giving and seeking advice.
  2. conflict, dominance, and rebellion stage. In this stage, members compete for power and control and attempt to establish a pecking order. Members tend to be critical of each other, and some may become hostile and resentful toward the therapist as they become aware that they’re not going to become the therapist’s “favorite child.”
  3. cohesiveness stage. In this stage, conflict between group members decreases, and cohesiveness increases as members begin to trust each other and the therapist
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62
Q

What is functional family therapy?

A

Functional Family Therapy: Functional family therapy (FFT) is an evidence-based treatment for at-risk adolescents, those who have conduct disorder and/or a substance use disorder

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63
Q

What are the stages of functional family therapy?

A
  1. engagement and motivation stage, emphasis is on forming a therapeutic alliance with family members and helping family members reduce feelings of hopelessness and negativity, increase positive expectations for change, and develop a family-focused understanding of its presenting problems. Techniques used during this stage include joining and reframing.
  2. behavior change stage begins. During this stage, immediate and long-term behavioral goals are identified and an individualized treatment plan for the family is implemented. Techniques used during this stage include training in parenting, communication, problem-solving, and coping skills.
  3. generalization stage, the focus is on linking family members to community resources and helping them generalize their acquired skills to new problems and situations and identify ways to avoid relapse.
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64
Q

Tell me about multisystemic family therapy?

A

developed for adolescent offenders at risk for out-of-home placement and their families, but it has subsequently been adapted for adolescents with other serious clinical problems including psychiatric disturbances, substance abuse, and childhood maltreatment

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65
Q

Whenever the parents of 12-year-old Raymond argue, each parent tries to get Raymond to side with him or her. A structural family therapist would identify this as an example of which of the following?

A. stable coalition

B. detouring

C. unstable coalition

D. reframing

A

C. unstable coalition

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66
Q

Anna, age 21, has just received a diagnosis of bulimia nervosa. Her therapist is a practitioner of strategic family therapy and, to reduce Anna’s binge-eating, he tells her that, on each day that she binges, she must set her alarm for 4 a.m. and get up and do 30 minutes of abdominal exercises. This intervention is an example of which of the following?

A. prescribing the symptom

B. an ordeal

C. reframing

D. an enactment

A

B. an ordeal

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67
Q

Emotionally focused therapy (EFT) was originally developed as an intervention for:

A. at-risk adolescents and their families.

B. individuals with bipolar disorder.

C. single parents.

D. distressed couples.

A

D. distressed couples.

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68
Q

As described by cybernetic theory, a negative feedback loop:

A. helps a system maintain or restore a state of stability.

B. causes a disruption in a system’s status quo.

C. always produces disastrous consequences for the system.

D. is characterized by complementary communication patterns.

A

A. helps a system maintain or restore a state of stability.

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69
Q

Yalom and Leszcz’s (2005) third formative stage of group therapy is characterized by which of the following?

A. hostility toward the therapist.

B. advice giving and seeking.

C. the development of group cohesion.

D. concerns and anxiety about termination.

A

C. the development of group cohesion.

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70
Q

For practitioners of narrative family therapy, a unique outcome is best described as:

A. the dominant narrative.

B. a positive connotation.

C. an enactment.

D. an exceptional circumstance.

A

D. an exceptional circumstance.

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71
Q

A primary goal of Satir’s conjoint family therapy is to:

A. foster congruent communication between family members.

B. increase the differentiation of each family member.

C. create clear boundaries between family members.

D. heighten and restructure the emotional experiences of family members.

A

A. foster congruent communication between family members.

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72
Q

A family therapist describes a patient’s depression and anxiety as loneliness. The technique being used by this therapist is referred to as:

A. prescribing the symptom.

B. a therapeutic double-bind.

C. positioning.

D. reframing.

A

D. reframing.

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73
Q

As defined by Bowen, the intrapersonal aspect of differentiation refers to a person’s ability to separate:

A. needs from desires.

B. the past from the present.

C. thinking from feeling.

D. him/herself from others.

A

C. thinking from feeling.

its c not d because its intrapersonal not interpersonal

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74
Q

Milan systemic family therapists use circular questions to help family members:

A. recognize differences in perceptions that may be contributing to family problems.

B. externalize the current problem so that it can be perceived more objectively.

C. identify times when the family problem was not present.

D. identify and reflect on internal (unconscious) causes of problematic behaviors.

A

A. recognize differences in perceptions that may be contributing to family problems.

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75
Q

Knox’s (2015) research on the effects of combining EMDR and EFT as a treatment for couples affected by war trauma found that:

A. the combined treatment was more effective than EFT alone or EMDR alone for improving marital satisfaction and attachment security and for reducing symptoms of PTSD.

B. the combined treatment was more effective than EFT alone or EMDR alone for improving marital satisfaction and attachment security, but EMDR alone was most effective for reducing the symptoms of PTSD.

C. the combined treatment was more effective than EFT alone or EMDR alone for reducing symptoms of PTSD, but EFT alone was most effective for improving marital satisfaction and attachment security.

D. the combined treatment was no more effective than EFT alone or EMDR alone for reducing symptoms of PTSD or improving marital satisfaction and attachment security.

A

B. the combined treatment was more effective than EFT alone or EMDR alone for improving marital satisfaction and attachment security, but EMDR alone was most effective for reducing the symptoms of PTSD.

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76
Q

Tell me about CBT

A

mind emotion body, automatic thoughts, schema’s core beliefs. cognitive distortions.

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77
Q

Explain the following cognitive distortions

Arbitrary inference?
Selective abstraction?
dichotomous thinking?
personalization?
emotional state?

A

-Arbitrary inference involves drawing negative conclusions without any supporting evidence.
-Selective abstraction involves paying attention to and exaggerating a minor negative detail of a situation while ignoring other aspects of the situation.
-Dichotomous thinking is the tendency to classify events as representing one of two extremes – for example, as a success or a failure.
-Personalization involves concluding that one’s actions caused an external event without evidence for that conclusion.
-emotional reasoning is reliance on one’s emotional state to draw conclusions about oneself, others, and situations.

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78
Q

Explain CBT terms
-Socratic dialogue
-Collaborative empiricism

A

socratic is yoda shit
collaborative is goal setting experiments.

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79
Q

Explain REBT

A

REBT is focused on irrational thoughts that affect thinking.

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80
Q

Explain the ABCDE model of REBT

A

A is an activating event,
B is the client’s irrational belief about that event, C is the emotional or behavioral consequence of that belief,
D is the therapist’s use of techniques that dispute the client’s irrational belief
E is the effect of these techniques

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81
Q

tell me about the cognitive approach called
Self-instructional training?

A

developed to teach problem-solving skills to children with high levels of impulsivity.

Consists of stages.

cognitive modeling stage, children observe a model perform a task while the model verbalizes instructions aloud.

Overt external guidance stage, children perform the same task while the model verbalizes the instructions.

Overt self-guidance stage in which children perform the task while verbalizing the instructions aloud themselves.

Faded overt guidance stage in which children perform the task while whispering the instructions.

Covert self-instruction stage, children perform the task while repeating the instructions subvocally.

82
Q

What is stress inoculation training?

A

clients to deal better with ongoing and future stressful situations by teaching them effective coping skills

83
Q

What are the three phases of stress inoculation training?

A
  1. conceptualization/education phase, clients are provided with information about stress and its effects and are encouraged to view stressful situations as “problems-to-be-solved”
  2. skills acquisition and consolidation phase, clients learn a variety of cognitive and behavioral coping skills which may include relaxation, self-instruction, and problem-solving.
  3. application and follow-through phase, clients use newly acquired coping skills, first in imagined and role-playing situations and then in real life situations.
84
Q

Tell me about ACT

A

Acceptance and commitment therapy (ACT) is based on the assumptions that “psychological pain is both universal and normal and is part of what makes us human

psychological inflexibility causes psychological problems and is characterized by a “rigid dominance of psychological reactions over chosen values and contingencies in guiding action.

clean pain and dirty pain.

85
Q

What is the goal of ACT?

A

increase psychological flexibility, which involves addressing six core processes that foster acceptance, mindfulness, commitment, and behavior change and counter the processes that contribute to psychological inflexibility:

86
Q

What are the six core processes of ACT?

A
  1. Experiential acceptance counters experiential avoidance and is “the active and aware embrace of private experiences without unnecessary attempts to change their frequency or form”
  2. Cognitive defusion counters cognitive fusion and is the ability to distance oneself from one’s thoughts and feelings and view them as experiences rather than reality.
  3. Being present counters attentional rigidity to the past and future and involves being in contact with whatever is happening in the present moment.
  4. Awareness of self-as-context counters attachment to the conceptualized self. It’s the ability to view oneself as the context in which one’s thoughts and feelings occur rather than as the thoughts and feelings themselves.
  5. Values-based actions counter unclear, compliant, or avoidant motives and depend on the ability to use one’s freely chosen values to guide one’s behaviors.
  6. committed action counters inaction, impulsivity, and avoidant persistence and refers to a commitment to continue to act in ways consistent with one’s values in the future, even when faced with obstacles.
87
Q

What is the effectiveness of MBI

mindfulness based interventions

A

they are effective for treating both psychological disorders and physical/medical conditions but are more effective for psychological disorders, and they afffect the emotional and congnitive reactivity.

88
Q

What are the three stages of CBT for suicide?

A

emotional reactivity, cognitive flexibility, relapse prevention.

89
Q

What are the six stages of a safety plan

A

(1) recognizing the warning signs of an imminent suicidal crisis,
(2) using internal coping strategies (e.g., going for a walk, reading a book),
(3) utilizing social contacts as a means of distraction or support,
(4) contacting family or friends who may help resolve the crisis,
(5) contacting mental health professionals or agencies, and
(6) reducing access to lethal means.

90
Q

what is the primary goal of MBCT

A

primary goal of MBCT is to “enable clients to become self-aware, so they can learn to de-centre from distressing thoughts, feelings, bodily sensations and behaviours

91
Q

Which of the following is not one of the six processes addressed by acceptance and commitment therapy?

A. cognitive defusion

B. corrective detachment

C. experiential acceptance

D. committed action

A

B. corrective detachment

92
Q

According to Beck, negative beliefs about oneself, the world, and the future are characteristic of:

A. depression.

B. psychosis.

C. hypochondriasis.

D. paranoia.

A

A. depression.

93
Q

A 21-year-old therapy client says, “no matter what I do, I feel like I’m still unattractive, so I must be unattractive.” Her cognitive behavior therapist will most likely view the client’s statement as a manifestation of:

A. emotional reasoning.

B. arbitrary inference.

C. personalization.

D. overgeneralization.

A

A. emotional reasoning.

94
Q

Stanley and Brown’s (2012) safety planning intervention (SPI) includes all of the following except:

A. recognizing warning signs.

B. using internal coping strategies.

C. signing a no-harm contract.

D. using social contacts for distraction or support.

A

C. signing a no-harm contract.

95
Q

As described in Ellis’s A-B-C-D-E model, B represents:

A. behavioral and emotional reactions to an activating event.

B. barriers to rational thought.

C. belief perseverance.

D. beliefs about an activating event.

A

D. beliefs about an activating event.

96
Q

Dawn tends to jump to the conclusion that people she meets don’t like her even when there’s no evidence to support that conclusion. This is an example of which of the following cognitive distortions?

A. personalization

B. emotional reasoning

C. arbitrary inference

D. selective abstraction

A

C. arbitrary inference

97
Q

Meichenbaum’s stress inoculation training consists of three phases, the first of which is:

A. commitment.

B. preparation.

C. conceptualization.

D. cognitive modeling.

A

C. conceptualization.

98
Q

R/CID Model has five stages what are they?
Racial/Cultural Identity Development

A

conformity
dissonance
resistance, and immersion
introspection
integrative awareness

  1. Conformity( i believe I suck, whites are better): neutral or negative attitudes toward members of their own minority group and other minority groups and positive attitudes toward members of the majority group. They accept negative stereotypes of their own group and consider the values and standards of the majority group to be superior. These individuals prefer a therapist from the majority group and view a therapist’s attempts to help them explore their cultural identity as threatening.
  2. Dissonance(questioning): As the result of exposure to information or events that contradict their worldview, people in this stage question their attitudes toward members of their own minority group, other minority groups, and the majority group. They’re aware of the effects of racism and are interested in learning about their own culture. They may prefer a therapist from the majority group but want the therapist to be familiar with their culture, and they’re interested in exploring their cultural identity.
  3. Resistance and Immersion:(hate the white man) People in this stage have positive attitudes toward members of their own minority group, conflicting attitudes toward members of other minority groups, and negative attitudes toward members of the majority group. These individuals are unlikely to seek therapy because of their suspiciousness of mental health services. When they do seek therapy, they’re likely to attribute their psychological problems to racism and prefer a therapist from their own minority group.
  4. Introspection: (o.k. whats the deal) During this stage, people question their unequivocal allegiance to their own group and are concerned about the biases that affect their judgments of members of other groups. They’ve become comfortable with their cultural identity but are also concerned about their autonomy and individuality. These individuals may prefer a therapist from their own minority group but are willing to consider a therapist from another group who understands their worldview, and they’re interested in exploring their new sense of identity.
  5. Integrative Awareness: (comfortable, smart, and secure) People in the integrative awareness stage are aware of the positive and negative aspects of all cultural groups. They’re secure in their cultural identity and are committed to eliminating all forms of oppression and becoming more multicultural. Their preference for a therapist is based on similarity of worldview, and they’re most interested in strategies aimed at community and societal change.
99
Q

What are the stages of Cross’s Black Racial Identity Development Model

A

pre-encounter
encounter
immersion-emersion
internalization
internalization-commitment

  1. Pre-Encounter: People in the pre-encounter stage idealize and prefer White culture.
  2. Encounter: People in this stage question their views of White and Black cultures as the result of exposure to events that cause them to become aware of the impact of racism on their lives.
  3. Immersion-Emersion: People in this stage reject White culture and idealize and become immersed in their own culture.
  4. Internalization: During this stage, defensiveness and emotional intensity related to race decrease. People in this stage have a positive Black identity and tolerate or respect racial and cultural differences.
  5. Internalization-Commitment: People in this stage have internalized a Black identity and are committed to social activism to reduce all forms of oppression.

later moved to 4 stages
Pre-Encounter
encounter
immersion/emersion
internalization/commitment

100
Q

Tell me about the Multidimensional Model of Racial Identity:

A

person’s racial identity may vary across time and situations.

101
Q

Tell me about the 4 dimensions of the multidimensional model of racial identity?

A

Racial salience, how important race is depends on context.

Racial centrality, how important is race to you overall

Racial regard-how you think
private-how do you think feel about yourself, and other

public-how do you think others think about you.

racial ideology-is the idea of how races should live.

102
Q

Explain Helms’s White Racial Identity Development (WRID) Model

A

it has two phases
-abandonment of racism
-defining a nonracist White identity

102
Q

Explain Helms’s White Racial Identity Development (WRID) Model phases

A
  1. contact-limited contact—oblivious
  2. disintegration, they become aware of their own contradiction, e.g. black people are o.k. but not in my neighborhood. —-suppression and ambivalence
  3. reintegration, resolve this by believing whites are superior and minorities are at fault for their problems.
  4. Pseudo-Independence, this happens when an event makes them question their world view.
    —reshaping reality and selective perception
  5. Immersion-Emersion, people accept privilege. —hypervigilance and reshaping.
  6. Autonomy: they are chill
102
Q

explain Troiden’s Model of Homosexual Identity Development?

A

its a stage theory of development 4 stages.
sensitization
identity confusion
identity assumption
identity commitment

103
Q

What are the 4 types of racial ideology

A

nationalist ideology
oppressed minority ideology
assimilationist ideology
humanist ideology

104
Q

What are the 4 stages of homosexual development explain?

A
  1. Sensitization: This stage occurs during childhood and is characterized by feeling different from same-sex peers.
  2. Identity Confusion: This stage begins in middle or late adolescence when individuals start to feel sexually attracted to individuals of the same sex and suspect that they’re gay or lesbian.
  3. Identity Assumption: The transition to identity assumption occurs when the person begins to accept a gay or lesbian identity, which is usually between 19 and 21 years of age for males and between 21 and 23 years of age for females.
  4. Identity Commitment: People in this stage have internalized a gay or lesbian identity,
105
Q

What are Vernaglia’s Multidimensional Model of Heterosexual Identity Development 5 stages?

A

Unexplored commitment is characterized by a sexual identity that reflects “microsocial (e.g., familial) and macrosocial (e.g., societal) mandates for acceptable gender roles and sexual

Active exploration involves “purposeful exploration,

Diffusion is characterized by an absence of active exploration and commitment. People experiencing diffusion may be confused about many aspects of identity, not just sexual identity.

Deepening and commitment entails moving toward “greater commitment

Synthesis is marked by integration of one’s sexual identity with other identities (e.g., gender, race/ethnicity).

106
Q

People who are members of a minority group and are in the ________ stage of Atkinson, Morten, and Sue’s R/CID Model question the inflexibility of their positive attitudes toward their own minority group and negative attitudes toward the majority group.

A. dissonance

B. integrative awareness

C. disintegration

D. introspection

A

d. introspection

107
Q

Atkinson, Morten, and Sue’s R/CID Model predicts that African-American clients are most likely to prefer a White therapist and to be uninterested in exploring their cultural identity when they’re in which of the following stages?

A. pre-encounter

B. conformity

C. dissonance

D. disintegration

A

b. conformity

108
Q

A White therapist is likely to be most effective when working with clients from racial and cultural minority groups when she is in which of the following of Helms’s identity statuses?

A. integrative awareness

B. reintegration

C. autonomy

D. pseudo-independence

A

c. autonomy

109
Q

Like many other models of homosexual identity development, Troiden’s (1988) model proposes that the initial stage of development involves:

A. feeling different from same-sex peers.

B. feeling sexually attracted to members of the same sex.

C. denying one’s same-sex feelings.

D. realizing that one’s feelings can be described as “homosexual.”

A

a. feeling different from same sex peers

110
Q

Which of the following is not one of the five stages of Cross’s (1971) original Nigrescence Model of Identity Development?

A. pre-encounter

B. immersion-emersion

C. dissonance

D. internalization

A

c. dissonance

111
Q

Helm’s White Racial Identity Development Model proposes that each identity status is associated with a different information processing strategy. For example, the __________ status is associated with a strategy that involves selective perception and negative outgroup distortion.

A. disintegration

B. reintegration

C. pre-encounter

D. contact

A

b. reintegration

112
Q

tell me what a worldview is?

A

It is a view or mindset of the world that is largely culturally dependent.

113
Q

Tell me about internal locus(IC) of control and external locus(IR) of responsibility and the combinations

High IC high IR
High IC low IR
low IC High IR
Low IC low IR

A

a) People with an internal locus of control and internal locus of responsibility (IC-IR) believe they are in control of their own outcomes and are responsible for their own successes and failures.
(b) People with an internal locus of control and external locus of responsibility (IC-ER) believe they could determine their own outcomes if given the chance but that others are responsible for keeping them from doing so.
(c) People with an external locus of control and external locus of responsibility (EC-ER) believe they have little or no control over their outcomes and are not responsible for them.
(d) People with an external locus of control and internal locus of responsibility (EC-IR) believe they have little control over their outcomes but tend to take responsibility for their own failures.

114
Q

What is Acculturation?

A

Assimilation to a dominant culture.

115
Q

What are the 4 major strategies of acculturation?

A

(a) integration strategy retain their own minority culture and adopt the majority culture.
(b) People who adopt an assimilation(the borg) strategy reject their own minority culture and adopt the majority culture.
(c) separation strategy retain their own minority culture and reject the majority culture.
(d) marginalization strategy reject their own minority culture and the majority culture.

116
Q

What is acculturative stress?

A

the stress related to life events that are related to acculturation.
integration the best
marginalization the worse

117
Q

Tell me about cultural fit and cultural distance

A

fit is how close your culture is to theirs
distance is how far away your culture is to theirs.

118
Q

tell me about healthy vs functional cultural paranoia

A

functional means your paranoid.
functional means your paranoid because of your experiences.

119
Q

tell me about microaggressions
Microassault
microinsults
microinvalidations

A

microassault-racial slur
microinsult-insult
invalidations you invalidate the experience because of their race.

120
Q

Tell me about internalize racism and colorism

A

Internalized racism is also known as internalized racial oppression and occurs when a person accepts society’s negative beliefs and stereotypes related to his or her own racial group.

Colorism is a form of internalized racism and is also known as color consciousness. It refers to “discrimination within a racial group based primarily on skin hue or color and may also include other physical characteristics such as hair texture and eye color

121
Q

White privilege tell me about it on the macro and micro level.

A

macro level, White privilege is systemic and consists of the benefits, rights, and immunities that Whites have within institutions

At the micro level, White privilege is primarily intrapsychic and interpersonal and includes a sense of entitlement and social validation of Whiteness.

122
Q

in terms of therapy tell me about a emic vs etic approach

A

Emic perspectives focus on the unique cultural experiences and meanings of the participants, while etic perspectives aim to identify universal patterns and similarities across cultures. The choice between these perspectives will depend on the research question and the goals of the study.

123
Q

tell me about autoplastic vs alloplastic interventions

A

auto get client to adapt to circumstances
allo get client to remove themselves from circumstances.
—adapt to school, or remove oneself from school.

124
Q

What is Cultural Encapsulation?

A

Can’t work with minorities because you are not sensitive to their culture.

125
Q

Tight vs loose cultures?

A

Iran has lots of rules
Israel is losing fewer rules.

126
Q

What is the integration paradox?

A

Higher-status immigrants (i.e., those who are highly educated and economically successful) are more likely than lower-status immigrants to report experiencing discrimination and disrespect and, as a result, are less likely to identify with and have positive attitudes toward mainstream society

127
Q

What is the immigrant paradox?

A

recent immigrants tend to have better physical health, mental health, and educational outcomes compared to more established immigrants and nonimmigrants

128
Q

Explain high vs low context communication?

A

White are move high verbal less context

129
Q

What is diagnostic overshadowing?

A

Focused more on the diagnosis and not contributing or extraneous variables.

130
Q

What is own race bias?

A

tendency to recognize members of your own race more than others.
e.g. all blacks look the same.

131
Q

What is Minority Stress Theory?

A

minorities have worse mental health outcomes because they are more stressed out.

132
Q

How is Credibility and Gift Giving important when working with non-western clients?

A

Credibility refers to the client’s perception of the therapist as trustworthy and is determined by the therapist’s ascribed and achieved status: Ascribed status is the position or role assigned to the therapist by the client’s culture. For example, age and gender are characteristics that contribute to a therapist’s credibility in some cultures. Achieved status is the therapist’s expertise

Gift giving refers to the direct benefits that a client perceives he/she receives from therapy. These include providing the client with reassurance and a sense of hope, normalizing the client’s feelings, and using interventions that reduce the client’s depression or anxiety.

133
Q

What are Culturally adapted interventions ?

A

systematic modification of an evidence-based treatment (EBT) or intervention protocol to consider language, culture, and context in such a way that it is compatible with the client’s cultural patterns, meaning, and values

134
Q

What is Culturally Competent Psychotherapy?

A

cultural awareness, knowledge, and skills necessary to provide effective professional services to members of diverse populations

135
Q

What do we need to know when working with african americans from a cultural perspective

A

consider the client’s cultural identity, level of acculturation, and worldview

prefer an egalitarian therapist-client relationship and a time-limited, problem-solving approach.

136
Q

What do we need to know when working with indians?

A

A collaborative, problem-solving, client-centered approach that avoids highly directive techniques and incorporates American Indian values and traditional healers is usually preferred

137
Q

What do we need to know when working with Latino clients?

A

-problems may present as psychosomatic
-patriarchal, and machismo
-initially formal than personal
-prefer cbt, solution, family, group therapy
-stories, proverbs.

-

138
Q

What do we need to know when working with asian clients?

A

-respect holistic
-hierarchal and patriarchal
-family over individual
-holistic, formal
-avoidance and lack of eye contact a signs of respect
-cbt, goal-oriented
-expect the therapist to be knowledgeable expert

139
Q

What do I need to know when working with
LGBTQ

A

men are twice as likely to have mental health disorders as apposed to straight men.
-use services at a higher rate.
-recognize same sex milestones
disclosure related to major depressive disorder.

140
Q

What do I need to know when working with older adults?

A

-more concerned with physical pain than distress.
-may respond slower to treatment than younger adults.
-CBT and reminiscence therapy great for depresion.
-

141
Q

According to Sue (2006), White middle-class Americans are most likely to have which of the following worldviews?

A. EC-IR

B. EC-ER

C. IC-ER

D. IC-IR

A

D. IC-IR

142
Q

During a discussion on race, a White graduate student says to an African American student that she “doesn’t see color” and that “we’re all part of the human race.” As described by Sue et al. (2007), these comments are examples of which of the following?

A. microassault

B. microinvalidation

C. microinjustice

D. microinsult

A

B. microinvalidation

143
Q

Peggy McIntosh (1998) listed the statement “I can easily buy posters, postcards, picture books, greeting cards, dolls, toys, and children’s magazines featuring people of my race” to illustrate which of the following?

A. internalized racism

B. colorism

C. White supremacy

D. White privilege

A

D. White privilege

144
Q

Etic is to __________ as emic is to __________.

A. intrinsic; extrinsic

B. extrinsic; intrinsic

C. culture-specific; universal

D. universal; culture-specific

A

D. universal; culture-specific

145
Q

When working with Asian and Asian American clients, it’s important to keep in mind that they are likely to:

A. prefer an insight-oriented, nondirective approach.

B. prefer an egalitarian therapist-client relationship.

C. express resistance by being silent and avoiding eye contact.

D. express emotional distress as physical symptoms.

A

D. express emotional distress as physical symptoms.

146
Q

Hall (1976) classified __________ styles as high- or low-context.

A. cognitive

B. communication

C. socioemotional

D. acculturation

A

B. communication

147
Q

When working with African American therapy clients, it’s important to keep in mind that they are likely to prefer:

A. an insight-oriented, nondirective approach.

B. an egalitarian therapist-client relationship.

C. a therapist who adopts the role of knowledgeable expert.

D. a therapist who adopts the role of coach or mentor.

A

B. an egalitarian therapist-client relationship.

148
Q

The integration paradox refers to the tendency of:

A. higher-status immigrants (i.e., those with higher levels of education and economic success) to be more likely than lower-status immigrants to report experiencing discrimination.

B. recent immigrants to outperform more established immigrants and nonimmigrants in terms of health and educational outcomes.

C. more egalitarian and more developed countries to have greater gender segregation across occupations.

D. people with limited knowledge or skills in a particular domain to overestimate their competence in that domain.

A

A. higher-status immigrants (i.e., those with higher levels of education and economic success) to be more likely than lower-status immigrants to report experiencing discrimination.

149
Q

As described by Berry’s (1990) acculturation model, __________ occurs when members of a minority culture retain their own culture and reject the majority culture.

A. separation

B. marginalization

C. assimilation

D. integration

A

A. separation

150
Q

Caplan model has three types of prevention what are they?

A

Primary, secondary, tertiary.

151
Q

Tell me about primary, secondary, and tertiary prevention.

A

Primary reduce new cases, aimed at a group, e.g. education about drugs.

secondary kinda like primary but targeting a specific vulnerable population

tertiary reduce the severity and duration of the disorder, e.g. rehab, relapse therapy.

152
Q

gordons model of prevention has three types what are they?

A

universal, selective, indicated prevention.

153
Q

Tell me about gordon’s model of prevention in terms of universal, selective, indicated prevention.

A

universal-, aimed at the entire population

selective- aimed at individuals who have been identified.

indicated-are for those individuals who are known to be high risk.

154
Q

Caplan has 4 types of mental health consultation what are they and tell me about them?

A

client centrered—————-a client

consultee-centred————-a group of clients, e.g. brain injury
to improve the consultee’s knowledge, skills, confidence, and/or objectivity

program centred————work with admin with recommendations in developing, administering, evaluating program.

consultee-centred——— improve professional functioning of administrators so they can better develop administer, evaluate programs.

155
Q

Where is interprofessional collaboration (IPC) most beneficial?

A

elderly patients

156
Q

Explain efficacy and effectiveness research

A

efficacy is correlation research on experimental effect

effectiveness is the ability to generalize outcomes to the general public.

157
Q

Eysencck drew conclusions about intelligence and personality what are they?

A

intelligence 80 percent heredity

personality focussed on extroversion, neuroticism, psychoticism

158
Q

Eysenck said pyschotherapy sucks is he wrong?

A

yes his study did these bad things.

  1. no control group
  2. no randomization
  3. different measurement criteria.
159
Q

smith glass and miller had what conclusion about psychotherapy?

A

effedt size is .85, average person who received therapy was better off than 80 percent of the population.

160
Q

howard and colleagues came op with what conclusions about benefits of therapy in the dosage , think dose model

A

50 percent better in 6-8 sessions
75 —26 sessions
86 —52 sessions

161
Q

what is the phase model explain?

A
  1. remoralization phase first few sessions increased hope
  2. remediation phase 16 sessions a reduction in symptoms
  3. rehabilitation phase unlearning bad habits and learning new ones.
162
Q

what are common factors in psychotherapy?

A

30 percent patient contributions
12 alliance
8 treatment method
7 therapist characteristics
40 percent unknown

163
Q

what is the most important factor in psychotherapy

A

working alliance–theraputic alliance

164
Q

is client-therapist matching effective?

A

yes but not for blacks, for quitting tretment and hispanics only had better treatment outcomes

165
Q

does the personality of a therpist affect treatment>

A

outcomes no, perceptions yes

166
Q

of the five big peronality traits which ones produced the biggest relationships

A

openeness, conscientiousness

167
Q

Who is most likely to receive mental health

A

women more than men
18-44, 45-64, 65 and older

168
Q

in terms of mental health why don’t college kids get some?

A

attitudinal barriers.

169
Q

in terms of utilization lgbtq vs non whats up?

A

Lgbtq uses it more.

170
Q

How about ethnicity in terms of mental health?

A

two or more racial groups highest.
white next.
lowest for asians.

for inpatient two or more groups highest
and natives lowest.

171
Q

What is the medical cost offset of therapy?

A

you save 20 percent.

172
Q

what is cost-benefit analysis?

A

how much does the intervention cost and how much is it gonna benefit us in monetary gains.

173
Q

What is cost-effectiveness analysis?

A

similar to cost-benefit, but not monetary e.g. less times going to hospital, don’t drop out of program etc.

174
Q

What is cost-utility analysis?

A

cost- and benefit to quality of life outcomes

175
Q

what are the effects of age, gender, and socioeconomic status on psychotherapy outcomes?

A

nothing.

176
Q

how about biases in psycological research what the hell is
alpha bias
beta bias
androcentrism.

A

alpha you overestimate gender differences

beta you underestimate gender differences

androcentrism male behaviors are the norm and female are devations

177
Q

What is weird

A

western
european
industrialized
rich
democratic

emphasize five five personality traits not necessarily indicative of no European.

178
Q

is routine ouctome monitoring effective (ROM)

A

Yes it is but is underutilized such as time, inaccurate information.

179
Q

What is transdiagnostic treatment?

A

It’s the idea that the same treatment can be applied to multiple disorders due to the commonalities in treatment.

180
Q

What are the main bariers of telehealth

A

internet connectivity, therauputic alliance.

181
Q

compare telehealth to regular therapy in terms of efficacy for
anxiety
ptsd
major depressive disorder

A

anxiety same
ptsd same
depression same

bullimia nervousa not so much, lower rates of absitance, more depression and cognitive problems.
might be due to inability to monitor.

182
Q

What is stepped care?

A

you deliver the least intrusive care possible and only step it up as necessary.

183
Q

what are the 4 steps of stepped care?

A
  1. assessment and monitoring, watch and wait good for minor depression.
  2. interventions require minimal practitioner involvement? e.g. psychoeducational, treatment options.
  3. interventions requiring more intensive care and specialized training, group therapy, psychoeducational, medication.
  4. most restrictive and intensive forms of care, severe depression, intensive care voloutary or nonvolountary lock up.
184
Q

What is treatment fidelity mean?

A

The degree to which treatment was delivered according to the program.

185
Q

What are digital mental health interventions?

A

use online and/or mobile formats to deliver psychological strategies and interventions

as effective as regular therapy, but often is not due to therapists sucking.

including inconsistent use by patients, the uncertainty of providers about how to engage patients, and lack of clarity about how providers should integrate digital interventions into the overall care of patients.

186
Q

explain the models of disability?
biomedical
social
functional
forensic

A

biomedical-fix it
social-it’s different look at barriers
functional-how does it effect one’s function
forensic-proof of disability

187
Q

Based on the results of their meta-analysis of 475 psychotherapy outcome studies, Smith, Glass, and Miller (1980) concluded that the average psychotherapy patient is better off than ____% of patients who do not receive psychotherapy.

A. 90

B. 80

C. 72

D. 44

A

B. 80

188
Q

Prescribing maintenance antidepressants to prevent relapse in individuals who have received a diagnosis of major depressive disorder and participated in cognitive-behavior therapy is an example of:

A. primary prevention.

B. secondary prevention.

C. tertiary prevention.

D. quaternary prevention.

A
189
Q

Prescribing maintenance antidepressants to prevent relapse in individuals who have received a diagnosis of major depressive disorder and participated in cognitive-behavior therapy is an example of:

A. primary prevention.

B. secondary prevention.

C. tertiary prevention.

D. quaternary prevention.

A

C. tertiary prevention.

189
Q

Hans Eysenck (1952) found that symptom improvements due to psychotherapy were less than improvements due to of which of the following?

A. positive expectations

B. “common effects”

C. the therapeutic alliance

D. spontaneous remission

A

D. spontaneous remission

190
Q

Research evaluating the effects of routine outcome monitoring (ROM) suggests that it:

A. decreases premature termination and client deterioration during therapy.

B. decreases premature termination but has little or no effect on client deterioration during therapy.

C. decreases client deterioration during therapy but has little or no effect on premature termination.

D. is no more effective than less frequent feedback for reducing premature termination and client deterioration during therapy.

A

A. decreases premature termination and client deterioration during therapy.

191
Q

Norcross and Lambert (2011) concluded that which of the following accounts for the greatest amount of variability in psychotherapy outcomes?

A. therapist characteristics

B. patient contributions

C. therapeutic relationship

D. treatment method

A

B. patient contributions

192
Q

Measures of treatment fidelity typically focus on which of the following?

A. reliability and validity

B. efficacy and effectiveness

C. therapist adherence and competence

D. therapist experience and consistency

A

C. therapist adherence and competence

193
Q

According to Howard et al.’s phase model (1996), symptomatic relief occurs during which of the following phases of psychotherapy?

A. rehabilitation

B. reintegrative

C. remediation

D. remoralization

A

C. remediation

194
Q

The best conclusion that can be drawn from the results of Werntz et al.’s (2023) meta-review of research on digital mental health interventions (DMHIs) is that their effectiveness:

A. is not improved by adding human support.

B. is often improved by adding human support but only when support is provided by a therapist or other professional.

C. is often improved by adding human support but only when support is provided by a peer or other nonprofessional.

D. is often improved by adding human support whether the support is provided by a professional or a nonprofessional.

A

D. is often improved by adding human support whether the support is provided by a professional or a nonprofessional.

195
Q

Which of the following is true about efficacy and effectiveness research?

A. Efficacy research has better internal validity but poorer external validity than effectiveness research does.

B. Efficacy research has better external validity but poorer internal validity than effectiveness research does.

C. Efficacy research has better internal and external validity than effectiveness research does.

D. Efficacy research has poorer internal and external validity than effectiveness research does.

A

A. Efficacy research has better internal validity but poorer external validity than effectiveness research does.

196
Q

A consultant is providing consultee-centered case consultation and determines that theme interference is responsible for the consultee’s inability to work effectively with clients who have received a diagnosis of borderline personality disorder. Consequently, the consultant will focus primarily the consultee’s lack of:

A. confidence.

B. objectivity.

C. competence.

D. experience.

A

B. objectivity.

197
Q

Transdiagnostic treatments are aimed at disorders that are:

A. included in the same DSM-5 diagnostic category.

B. known to respond best to a combination of psychosocial and pharmacological treatments.

C. caused and maintained by similar core mechanisms.

D. caused by similar cognitive schemas and maintained by similar cognitive distortions.

A

C. caused and maintained by similar core mechanisms.

198
Q
A