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psychopathology > psychopharmacology > Flashcards

psychopharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

James Lange’s theory of emotion explains?

A
  1. a stimulus causes a physiological reaction.
  2. the reaction is perceived as an emotion.
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2
Q

What is the facial feedback hypothesis?

A

Facial expressions associated with specific emotions initiate physiological changes that are consistent with those emotions.
e.g. smiling makes you happy

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3
Q

Cannon-Bard theory of emotion explain?

A
  1. emotion and physiological arousal occur together, when a stimulus causes the thalmus to send signals to

a. cerebral cortex
b. sympathetic nervous system.

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4
Q

Schachter and Singer’s Two-Factor Theory of Emotion?

A

cognitive arousal theory
you get physiological arousal (you put a cognitive label or attribution to it), and you get an emotion.
-dependent on external cues.
-epinephrine studies where a confederate affected the emotion or attribution of an experience.

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5
Q

Explain Zillman’s excitation transfer theory?

A

Basically it means the arousal of one event can be transferred to another event.
based on three principles.
1. when aroused it decays slowly
2. residual from one event can intensify another event.
3. people have limited insight in this area.

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6
Q

Lazarus congitive appraisal theory explain?

A

emotional experiences are due to different appraisal of events.

*****physiological arousal follows cognitive appraisal

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7
Q

Lazarus congitive appraisal theory has three types of appraisal what are they, explain?

A

primary-evaluating the event e.g. harm, etc.

seonday-o.k. you determine it’s stressful and you evaluate your coping mechanisms.

reappraisal-monitor and maybe change your primary or secondary.

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8
Q

Ledoux’s two-system theory?

A

fear theory.

-fear is caused by two separate interacting systems that respond to stimuli

-1. subcortical system, quick, survival system. (amygdala)

  1. cortical system, (conscious emotion) uses the senses, memory, and cognition and generates feeling of fear.

also known as the low road and high road

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9
Q

what are the main brain mechanisms of emotion, what do they do?

A

cerebral cortex
left-happiness, positive emotions
right-sadness and negative

amygdala-fear and attaching emotions to memories

hypothalamus-regulates the physical signs of emotion through its communication with the autonomic nervous system and pituitary gland

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10
Q

what does damage to cerebral cortex cause in terms of emotion?

A

damage to left- causes catastrophic depression, fear, anxiety, paranio.

damage to right-causes indifference, inappropriate indifference or euphoria.

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11
Q

Selye’s
(1976) general adaptation syndrome of stress explain?

A

3 stages

  1. alarm reaction stage, increased activity of the sympathetic nervous system
  2. resistance stage, some parts go back to normal, cortison continues to keep body at a high level to cope.
  3. exhaustion stage, body breaks down.
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12
Q

McEwen’s allostatic load model, thinks about stress differently explain?

A

mediated by the cerebral cortex, hypothalamus, and amygdala.

brain is the mediator

similar to general adaptation model
Allostasis-stressed
allostatic state-resistance stage
allostatic overload-exhaustion, negative effects.

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13
Q

A psychology undergraduate tells his roommate who’s depressed that, if he smiles more often, he’ll feel a lot better. The student’s suggestion is consistent with the predictions of which of the following?

A. Cannon-Bard theory

B. two-factor theory

C. James-Lange theory

D. cognitive appraisal theory

A

C. James-Lange theory

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14
Q

Allostasis refers to:

A. the interpretation of an event as personally important and stressful.

B. the beneficial effects of moderate (normal) levels of stress.

C. adaptive processes that maintain the body’s stability during times of stress.

D. long-term “wear-and-tear” on the body that’s caused by chronic stress.

A

C. adaptive processes that maintain the body’s stability during times of stress.

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15
Q

According to Lazarus’s (1991) cognitive appraisal theory, secondary appraisal involves:

A. determining if an event is irrelevant, benign-positive, or stressful.

B. re-evaluating a primary appraisal when additional information is obtained.

C. considering what coping options are available for dealing with a stressful event.

D. determining if an emotional response to an event is appropriate.

A

C. considering what coping options are available for dealing with a stressful event.

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16
Q

The __________ is responsible for attaching emotions to memories.

A. amygdala

B. hippocampus

C. thalamus

D. cingulate gyrus

A

A. amygdala

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17
Q

Damage to certain areas of the left (dominant) hemisphere are most likely to cause:

A. inappropriate rage and aggression.

B. inappropriate euphoria.

C. an indifference reaction.

D. a catastrophic reaction.

A

D. a catastrophic reaction.

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18
Q

Which of the following attributes the experience of emotion to physiological arousal followed by assigning a cognitive label to that arousal?

A. Schachter and Singer’s two-factor theory

B. Cannon-Bard theory

C. Lazarus’s cognitive appraisal theory

D. Hering’s opponent process theory

A

A. Schachter and Singer’s two-factor theory

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19
Q

what does the hippocampus do for memory?

A

consolidation

-transfer of declarative memories from (short term working memory) to long term memory.

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20
Q

What does basal ganglia, cerebellum, supplementary motor are do for memory?

A
  • procedural memory
    -implicit memory

damage makes it hard to learn new skills and perform previously learned skills.

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21
Q

what is procedural memory?

A

the memory of how to do something

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22
Q

What is prospective memory?

A

remembering to do something

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23
Q

what is episodic memory?

A

remembering a specific episode or event.

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24
Q

what is declarative memory?

A

conscious recall two catagories
also known as explicit memory,

semantic memory for facts and general knowledge,

episodic memory for personal experiences and specific events.

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25
Q

what does amygdala do for memory?

A

attaching emotions to memories

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26
Q

what does prefrontal cortex do for memory?

A

working memory
also important for prospective memory in particular event based.
-damage effects event based prospective memory

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27
Q

What is working memory?

A

the part of short-term memory which is concerned with immediate conscious perceptual and linguistic processing.

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28
Q

What does damage to the thalamus and mammary glands do?

A

can cause anterograde and retrograde amnesia

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29
Q

What is anterograde and retrograde amnesia?

A

ant means can’t form new memories
retro means can’t recall old memories

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30
Q

long-term potentiation (LTP) plays what role in memory

A

Stimulation of neurons helps in learning and memory formation.
A. formation of new memories.

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31
Q

what does RNA protein synthesis do for memory?

A

formation of long term memories.

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32
Q

what are the 5 stages of sleep explain

A
  1. from wake lessness to sleep.
    -alpha is replaced by theta waves
  2. theta waves continue some k complexes
  3. asleep for 20 delta
  4. high amplitude delta, slow wave, deep sleep
  5. REM after 80-90. dreams,
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33
Q

what lifespan changes occur in sleep

A

infants sleep allot, more REM, being with active state.

after 4-6 months and 4 stages of non rem are evident.

older adults, less time in deep sleep, more event Rem sleep, more advanced sleep phase

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34
Q

Sleep spindles and K complexes are markers of Stage ___ sleep.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

A

B. 2

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35
Q

Long-term potentiation has been linked to the:

A. formation of new memories.

B. recall of emotional memories.

C. maintenance of memories in short-term memory.

D. maintenance of memories in remote long-term memory.

A

A. formation of new memories.

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36
Q

what is remote long term memory?

A

a memory that is remote meaning it can take some time to recall it.

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37
Q

Which of the following areas of the brain are most responsible for implicit memories?

A. hippocampus and prefrontal cortex

B. mammillary bodies and cerebellum

C. basal ganglia and cerebellum

D. thalamus and mammillary bodies

A

C. basal ganglia and cerebellum

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38
Q

What is implicit memory?

A

unconscious recall of a memory.

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39
Q

The primary difficulty experienced by the patient known as “H.M.” was related to which of the following?

A. maintaining information in short-term memory

B. forming new long-term declarative memories

C. recalling procedural memories

D. recalling remote long-term declarative memories

A

B. forming new long-term declarative memories

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40
Q

Which of the following is true about REM sleep and dreaming?

A. All dreams occur during REM sleep.

B. Most dreams occur during REM sleep and are more vivid than those that occur during non-REM sleep.

C. Most dreams occur during REM sleep but are similar in content to those that occur during non-REM sleep.

D. Dreams are equally common during REM and slow-wave sleep but are more likely to be recalled when they occur during REM sleep.

A

B. Most dreams occur during REM sleep and are more vivid than those that occur during non-REM sleep.

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41
Q

Damage to which of the following is likely to have the greatest adverse impact on event-based prospective memory?

A. amygdala

B. mammillary bodies

C. cerebellum

D. prefrontal cortex

A

D. prefrontal cortex

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42
Q

Which of the following is true about the sleep patterns of older (versus younger) adults?

A. Older adults spend more time in Stage 3 and Stage 4 sleep.

B. Older adults experience more REM sleep in the second half of the sleep period.

C. Older adults often experience an advanced sleep phase.

D. Older adults often begin a sleep period with REM sleep.

A

C. Older adults often experience an advanced sleep phase.

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43
Q

The cerebral cortex is divided into what parts?

A

left-right hemisphere
each hemisphere has four lobes.

  1. frontal-front
  2. occipital-back
  3. temporal-top
  4. parietal-bottom
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44
Q

frontal lobe is divided into what parts?

A
  1. brocas area
  2. prefrontal cortex.
  3. supplementary motor cortex
  4. premotor cortex
  5. primary motor cortex
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45
Q

tell me about brocas’ area function and what damage does.

A

left broca’s frontal lobe
-language

damage-broca’s aphasias slow laboured speech
-impaired repetition anomia, inability to recall names.

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46
Q

Pre-frontal cortex role?

A

-executive functioning
working memory, prospective memory

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47
Q

let’s break the pre-frontal cortex into three domains. tell me about them and what damage can cause.
-dorsolateral pre-frontal cortex(dlpfc)
-orbitofrontal cortex(ofc)
-ventromedial prefrontal cortex(vmpfc)

A

(dlpfc)-executive functioning, damage causes concrete thinking, impaired judgement, poor planning, poor insight, working memory, and apathy.

(ofc)-emotion regulation, inhibition, social behaviours.
damage caused, impulsivity, aggression, and poor social skills.

(vmpfc) decision making, planning, memory, emotion regulation,
damage causes poor decision making, moral judgement, lack of insight.

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48
Q

what does supplementary motor cortex due?

A

planning and coordinating self-initiated complex movements and is active not only when people actually perform movements but also when they imagine performing them and when watching another person perform them.

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49
Q

What does premotor cortex do?

A

planning and coordinating complex movements that are triggered by external (sensory) stimuli.

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50
Q

What does primary motor cortex do?

A

executes movements by sending signals to the muscles.

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51
Q

Temporal lobe contains what key areas

A

auditory cortex and Wernicke’s area

Wernicke’s area is a major language area and is located in the dominant (usually left) hemisphere

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52
Q

what is Wernicke’s aphasia

A

receptive aphasia and fluent aphasia. People with this disorder have impaired comprehension of written and spoken language, impaired repetition, and anomia. Although their speech is fluent, it contains many word substitutions and other errors and is devoid of meaning.

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53
Q

What is conduction aphasia?

A

similar to warrick except opposite comprehention ok but words make no sense

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54
Q

What does parietal lobe due?

A

somatosensory cortex, which processes sensory information related to touch, pressure, temperature, pain, and body position

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55
Q

these disorders are in where
-somatosensory agnosias, which include tactile agnosia (an inability to recognize objects by touch),
-asomatognosia (a lack of interest in or recognition of one or more parts of one’s own body),
-anosognosia (denial of one’s illness). hemispatial neglect,
- ideomotor apraxia,
- ideational apraxia,
-Gerstmann’s syndrome
-Hemispatial neglect

A

parietal lobe

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56
Q

what does the occipital lobe do?

A

visual cortex, which processes visual information.

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57
Q

What is blindsight in the occipital lobe?

A

blindsight, which occurs when they do not consciously see a visual stimulus but have appropriate physiological and behavioral responses to it

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58
Q

What is prosopagnosia in occipital lobe?

A

prosopagnosia, which is characterized by an inability to recognize the faces of familiar people and, in some cases, one’s own face and/or the faces of pets and other familiar animals.

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59
Q

What is each hemisphere left and right responsible for?

A

written and spoken language, logical and analytical thinking, and positive emotions are left hemisphere functions,

while holistic thinking, intuition, understanding spatial relationships, creativity, and negative emotions are right hemisphere functions.

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60
Q

What does the corpus callosum do?

A

shares information between the hemispheres.

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61
Q

Wernicke’s aphasia and Broca’s aphasia share which of the following symptoms?

A. impaired repetition

B. anomia

C. impaired repetition and anomia

D. neither impaired repetition nor anomia

A

C. impaired repetition and anomia

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62
Q

As the result of a traumatic brain injury, a middle-aged man exhibits ________, which means he cannot recognize family members by their faces.

A. anosognosia

B. asomatognosia

C. prosopagnosia

D. Gerstmann’s syndrome

A

C. prosopagnosia

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63
Q

What is apraxia and where is it located?

A

Apraxia is an effect of neurological conditions, such as dementia, stroke, and head trauma. It causes people to be unable to carry out various movements and gestures.

parietal lobe

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64
Q

What is the difference between perception and sensation?

A

sensation the process by which we perceive the environment

Perception the process by which our brain makes sense of such sensation

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65
Q

explain bottom up and top down processing.

A

bottom up is you sense and perceive and the brain makes sense of

top down is the brain uses it’s pre-existing info to make sense of the sesation perception.

its a question of whether the brain or the body is driving the bus.

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66
Q

vision tell me about cones and rods

A

conses bright light, visual acuity
rods light light, peripheral vision

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67
Q

theories of vision trichromatic theory

A

the eye see’s three colours red, blue green.

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68
Q

theories of vision opponent process theory

A

behind the retina their are basically colour opponents to vision
red/green
blue/yellow
white/black
it explain colour blindness.

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69
Q

what is the most common type of colour blindness
males/ or females/ why

A

males due due recessive gene on x chromosone.
yellow/blue equal

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70
Q

depth perception
binocular cues
monocular cues

whats up with that

A

binocular cues are for close, and have convgence, and disparity

monocular cues are for far away

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71
Q

explain gate theory of pain

A

in spinal cord there is a gate small nerves send pain, and large one’s don’t
if its pain it close the gate

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72
Q

What is Synesthesia?
think sense

A

synth think sense
when one sense cause another sense to be activated

e.g listening to music and you see colours.

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73
Q

what the hell is psychophysics?

A

it’s the relationship with how much stimuli will cause how much effect.

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74
Q

Weber’s law of psychophysics?

A

2 percent rule of noticable difference to have an effect

its a propotionate law

e.g. 2 4 is the same 100 to 200 400 to 800

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74
Q

Signal detection theory psychodynamics?

A

ahhh this is not only intestity perception but also decision making.

but decision making is subject to erroy e.g. noise, fatigue, I had a bad day.

dependent of willingness, decision making
sensitity of observer

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74
Q

fechners’ law of psychophysics?

A

same law as webers but as intensity increases it is disproportion to perception.

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75
Q

Stevens’ law of pyschodynamics?

A

exponential relationsip between intensity and perception and it is different for different stimuli

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76
Q

Whenever Corky looks at numbers, each number elicits a different color (1 elicits red, 2 elicits blue, etc.). This is referred to as:

A. anosognosia

B. prosopagnosia

C. achromatopsia

D. synesthesia

A

D. synesthesia

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77
Q

In the context of signal detection theory, d’ (d-prime) is a measure of:

A. the just noticeable difference.

B. the base rate.

C. background noise.

D. sensitivity.

A

D. sensitivity.

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78
Q

A psychologist interested in the relationship between the magnitude of physical stimuli and psychological sensations finds that doubling the weight of an object doubles the sensation of heaviness but that doubling the brightness of a light more than doubles the sensation of brightness. This finding is most consistent with which of the following?

A. Stevens’s power law

B. Fechner’s law

C. Weber’s law

D. Gerstmann’s law

A

A. Stevens’s power law

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79
Q

Afterimages and red/green and blue/yellow colorblindness are explained by which of the following?

A. opponent-process theory

B. trichromatic theory

C. Weber’s law

D. Fechner’s law

A

A. opponent-process theory

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80
Q

Theo is not color blind but his wife, Tillie, is red-green color blind. Which of the following describes the likelihood that the biological children of Theo and Tillie will be red-green color blind?

A. Their male and female children will be red-green color blind.

B. Their male children will be red-green color blind, but their female children will not be red-green color blind.

C. Their female children will be red-green color blind, but their male children will not be red-green color blind.

D. Their male and female children may or may not be red-green color blind.

A

B. Their male children will be red-green color blind, but their female children will not be red-green color blind.

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81
Q

Of the following, which is most responsible for depth perception of objects that are at a close distance?

A. motion parallax

B. interposition of objects

C. retinal disparity

D. linear perspective

A

C. retinal disparity

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82
Q

Gate control theory is most useful for:

A. identifying ways to relieve pain.

B. identifying ways to relieve chronic stress.

C. understanding the cause of colorblindness.

D. understanding the cause of synesthesia.

A

A. identifying ways to relieve pain.

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83
Q

disorder tell me what it is

aphasia
anomia
agnosia
apraxia
gerstmann’s syndrome
cortical blindness
prosopagnosia

A

aphasia -laboured speech

anomia-can’t recall names and objects

agnosia-can’t recognize objects

apraxia-motor disorder

gerstmann’s syndrome-left right disorientation
cortical blindness-When the visual cortex in only the left hemisphere is damaged, blindness affects the right visual field, and vice versa

blindsight-don’t see a object but act like we do

prosopagnosia-can’t recognize familiar faces

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84
Q

What rules can be used for remembering first-generation antipsychotics

A
  • chlorpromazine
  • haloperidol
  • thioridazine
  • fluphenazine

zine
dol

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85
Q

What rules can be used for remembering second-generation antipsychotics

A
  • clozapine
  • risperidone
  • olanzapine
  • aripiprazole

pine done zole

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86
Q

What are the first-generation antipsychotics best at treating?

A

positve symptoms schizophrenia

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87
Q

How do first-generation antipsychotics work?

A

blocking dompamine d2 receptors

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88
Q

What are the three categories of side effects for FGA

A

Anticholinergic
Extrapyramidal
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

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89
Q

tell me about anticholinergic side effect for FGA

A

dry mouth
blurred vision
urinary retention
constipation
tachycardia.

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90
Q

tell me about extrapyramidal side effect for FGA

A

parkinsonism (resting tremor, muscle rigidity, slowed movement),
dystonia (uncontrollable muscle contractions), akathisia (a sense of inner restlessness),

-tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia is potentially life threatening,
-begins after long-term drug use,
-more common in women and older adults. -involuntary, rhythmic movements of the tongue, face, and jaw and, over time, may also affect the limbs and trunk.
-Tardive dyskinesia is irreversible for some patients -treated by gradually withdrawing the drug, administering a benzodiazepine, or switching to a second-generation antipsychotic.

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91
Q

Tell me about the side effects of neuroleptic malignant syndrome for FGA?

A

muscle rigidity, a high fever, autonomic dysfunction
sweating, overheating,
stop taking drug.

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92
Q

Are SGA effective?

A

yes just as good for positive symptoms and better for negative.

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93
Q

how do SGA work?

A

block dopamine d3 and d4 receptors, and serotonin receptors.

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94
Q

What is a SSRI

A

anti depressent
selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor

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95
Q

What is a SNRI

A

selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor
anti depressant

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96
Q

What is a NDRI

A

norepinephrine dopamine reputake inhibitor
anti-depressent

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97
Q

What is a TCA

A

tricylic antidepressents.

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98
Q

What is a MAOI

A

monamine oxidase inhibitor

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99
Q

what are the drugs for SSRI

A

fluoxetine
fluvoxamine
paroxetine
sertraline
citalopram

mine ines but no zines

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100
Q

SSRI can be use for what else other than depresion

A

ocd, panic disorder, gad, ptsd, bullimia, premature ejaculation.

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101
Q

what is an agonists

A

an agonist increse or produce a response

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102
Q

what is an antagonist

A

an antagonist inhibts a response

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103
Q

Are SSRIs safe in general?

A

The SSRIs are comparable to the TCAs in terms of efficacy and have several advantages: The SSRIs have fewer side effects, are safer in overdose (e.g., are less cardiotoxic), and are safer for older adults.

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104
Q

What is serotonin syndrome, like why would you not combine an SSRI with a MAOI or other serotonin drug.

A

Found in SSRI, potentially fatal and involves extreme agitation, confusion, autonomic instability, hyperthermia, tremor, seizures, and delirium.
stop taking it get help.

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105
Q

What is tachyphylaxis,

A

poop out drug intolerance after taking the drug for a while.

106
Q

Are SNRI effective

A

yes as effective and better for severe depression

107
Q

what are the SNRI drugs.

A

venlafaxine
duloxetine
desvenlafaxine

108
Q

NDRI are the good (bupropion)

A

few anticholinergic effects, does not cause sexual dysfunction, and is not cardiotoxic

109
Q

tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) drugs

A

tertiary amines
-amitriptyline
-imipramine
-clomipramine
-doxepin (Sinequan) inhibiting the reuptake of both serotonin and norepinephrine,

Secondary amines
-nortriptyline
-desipramine
more potent at inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine than serotonin.

110
Q

TCA primary side effects

A

cardiovascular effects
cardiotoxic

secondary is better than tertiary

111
Q

MAOI monoamine oxidase inhibitors
drugs

A

phenelzine
isocarboxazid
tranylcypromine

112
Q

Are MAOI safe

A

anticholinergic effects
hypertensive crisis when taken in conjunction with certain drugs (e.g., amphetamines, antihistamines) or food containing tyramine

113
Q

A person who takes an SSRI concomitantly with an MAOI may develop serotonin syndrome, which is characterized by:

A. agitation, hyperthermia, and autonomic instability.

B. substantial weight gain, hypertension, and hyperglycemia.

C. throbbing headache, stiff neck, and light sensitivity.

D. parkinsonism, akathisia, and dystonia.

A

A. agitation, hyperthermia, and autonomic instability.

114
Q

A patient with major depressive disorder is most likely to develop antidepressant poop-out during maintenance treatment when she is taking which of the following antidepressants?

A. sertraline

B. venlafaxine

C. clomipramine

D. chlorpromazine

A

A. sertraline

115
Q

Clozapine and other second-generation antipsychotics are:

A. dopamine and serotonin agonists.

B. dopamine and serotonin antagonists.

C. dopamine agonists and serotonin antagonists.

D. dopamine antagonists and serotonin agonists.

A

B. dopamine and serotonin antagonists.

116
Q

__________ may develop after long-term use of a first-generation antipsychotic and begins with involuntary movements of the tongue, face, and jaw.

A. Metabolic syndrome

B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

C. Dystonia

D. Tardive dyskinesia

A

D. Tardive dyskinesia

117
Q

Compared to first-generation antipsychotics, second-generation antipsychotics are:

A. less effective for reducing the positive symptoms of schizophrenia but more effective for reducing the negative symptoms.

B. more effective for reducing the positive symptoms of schizophrenia but less effective for reducing the negative symptoms.

C. as effective or more effective for reducing the positive symptoms of schizophrenia and more effective for reducing the negative symptoms.

D. more effective for reducing the positive symptoms of schizophrenia and equally effective for reducing the negative symptoms.

A

C. as effective or more effective for reducing the positive symptoms of schizophrenia and more effective for reducing the negative symptoms.

118
Q

Which of the following antidepressants is least likely to have an adverse impact on sexual functioning?

A. fluoxetine

B. phenelzine

C. paroxetine

D. bupropion

A

D. bupropion

119
Q

Which of the following is true about the SSRIs and TCAs?

A. The SSRIs are more cardiotoxic than the TCAs.

B. The SSRIs are less cardiotoxic than the TCAs.

C. The SSRIs and the TCAs are similar in terms of cardiotoxicity.

D. The SSRIs and the TCAs are not cardiotoxic.

A

B. The SSRIs are less cardiotoxic than the TCAs

120
Q

Which of the following best describes the differences between secondary and tertiary amines?

A. Compared to tertiary amines, secondary amines cause greater blockage of serotonin reuptake and have more side effects.

B. Compared to tertiary amines, secondary amines cause greater blockage of norepinephrine reuptake and have fewer side effects.

C. Compared to secondary amines, tertiary amines cause greater blockage of serotonin reuptake and have fewer side effects.

D. Compared to secondary amines, tertiary amines cause greater blockage of norepinephrine reuptake and have more side effects.

A

B. Compared to tertiary amines, secondary amines cause greater blockage of norepinephrine reuptake and have fewer side effects.

121
Q

Bupropion (Wellbutrin) and other antidepressants that __________ have an energizing (stimulating) effect.

A. increase norepinephrine and dopamine levels

B. decrease norepinephrine and increase dopamine levels

C. increase norepinephrine and decrease dopamine levels

D. decrease norepinephrine and dopamine levels

A

A. increase norepinephrine and dopamine levels

122
Q

the nervous system is split into what parts.

A

central nervous system

peripheral nervous systems
somatic nervous system-consciouslly controlled

autonomic nervous system
parasympathetic
sympathetic

123
Q

what are the main parts of a neuron

A

axon, dendrites, cell body axon terminal

124
Q

what is an action potential

A

on or off neuron potential not graded

125
Q

what are the four types of neuroplasticity?

A

homologous shift- to area in other hemisphere, but other area can become overwhelmed

cross model reassignment-function of the area changes

map expansion, the area expands and recruits new neurons

compensatory masquerade-the use other compensatory skill to compensate, e.g. lose sense of direction, start memorizing landmarks.

126
Q

dopamine neurotransmitter what do you know.

A

excitatory and inhibitory
movment, personality, mood, sleep, motivation

mesolimbic reward circuit
subtantial niagra parkinson’s
adhd
schizophrenia
tourettes.

127
Q

Aceycholine tell me about it

A

excitatory and inhibitory
movmenent, arousal, attention, memory

causes contractions

low ach in memory linked to alzeihemers

128
Q
A
129
Q

glutomate tell me about it

A

excitatory

movement, learning, emotions, memory

130
Q

norepinehprine tell me

A

excitatory

arousal, attention, learning, stress, memory, mood

depression low norep

manin to much

131
Q

serotonin tell me about it?

A

inhibitory

low levels linked to depression, suicide, ocd,

high levels found, anorexia, autism

132
Q

gamma-aminobutyric GABA tell me about it

A

inhibitory

motor control, memory, mood, sleep

high levels hits memory, attention

low levels, anxiety, insomnia

133
Q

neurotransmitter and drug effects
explain the following terms

agonists
partial agonists
inverse agonists
antagonists

A

agonists-increase effects
partial agonists-produce similar but weaker effect than neurotransmitter

inverse agonists-opposite effect

antagonists-no effect but block neurotransmitter.

134
Q

The somatic nervous system conveys information from the sense organs to the central nervous system and from the central nervous system to:

A. the skeletal muscles.

B. the smooth muscles.

C. the skeletal and smooth muscles.

D. neither the skeletal nor the smooth muscles.

A

A. the skeletal muscles.

135
Q

Stimulus intensity is encoded by:

A. the intensity of action potentials.

B. the frequency of action potentials.

C. the intensity and frequency of action potentials.

D. neither the intensity nor the frequency of action potentials.

A

B. the frequency of action potentials.

136
Q

A drug that increases which of the following is likely to be most effective as a treatment for obsessive-compulsive disorder?

A. serotonin

B. acetylcholine

C. norepinephrine

D. GABA

A
137
Q

Memory loss during the initial stage of Alzheimer’s disease has been most consistently linked to low levels of __________ in the entorhinal cortex and hippocampus.

A. dopamine

B. norepinephrine

C. acetylcholine

D. GABA

A

C. acetylcholine

138
Q

________ is a major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain, and low levels have been linked to chronic insomnia and anxiety disorders.

A. Dopamine

B. Acetylcholine

C. GABA

D. Glutamate

A

C. GABA

139
Q

A drug that has the same effects as a neurotransmitter or that increases the effects of a neurotransmitter is referred to as a(n):

A. antagonist.

B. inverse agonist.

C. partial agonist.

D. agonist.

A

D. agonist.

140
Q

The primary function of the myelin sheath is to:

A. increase the speed of nerve impulses.

B. increase the size of the action potential.

C. facilitate synaptic transmission.

D. facilitate neurogenesis.

A

A. increase the speed of nerve impulses.

141
Q

the brain is divided into three regions explain?

A

Hindbrain back
midbrain middle
forebrain front

142
Q

in terms of evloution what do the regions of the brain do?

A

well the forebrain is cognitive(hyothalamus, thalamus, basal ganglia, amygdala, cingulate cortex, hippocampus, cerebral cortex.

hindbrain -involountary, respiratory, swallowing, speeck, balance, coordination, confusion.

143
Q

Hindbrain contains what parts?

A

medulla
-swallowing, coughing, and sneezing, and it regulates a number of functions that are essential for survival including respiration, heart rate, and blood pressure.

pons
-regulates between halves of the cerebellum, regulates messages between cerebellum and cerebral cortex, and help in REM&respiration

cerebellum
-procedural memories, voluntary movements, ataxia(like being drunk)

144
Q

what are the structures of the midbrain

A

reticular formation and substantia nigra

145
Q

what does reticular formation do?

A

extends from medualla into midbrain.
reglation of muscle tone, eye movements

RAS reticular activating system-mediates consciousness and arousal
-sleep person wake, wake more arounsed

146
Q

what does substantia nigra do?

A

-reward seeking, drug addiction
degeneration of dopamine producing cells, causes slowed movments, tremors, rigidity-parkinsons

147
Q

what are the sturcutres of the forebrain

A

hypothalamus
thalmus
basal ganglia
amygdala
hippocampus

148
Q

What does the hypothalamus do?

A
  1. homeostasis
  2. regulates functions through the pituitary gland, nervous system
149
Q

What are the functions of the hypothalamus?

A

-regulation of sympathetic functions body temperature, blood pressure, respiration, thirst, hunger, growth, sex, stress.

-contributes to emotions, memory, circadian rhythms.

memory(mamillary glands)
suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN)-circadian rhythms.

150
Q

How does the hypothalamus influence the pituitary gland?

A
  1. stimulate or inhibit release of hormones-anterior pituatary—(GNRH) gonadotropin (testes, ovaries)
  2. sends oxycotin (posterior pituatary) -child birth, lactation
151
Q

What does oxycotin/vasopressin do?

A
  1. social memory, social bonding, social recognition, sex behaviour, psychosocial stress.
152
Q

How does oxycotin influece stress?

A

high oxycotin influence pituatory gland and sns in terms of reducing heart rate and blood pressure.

153
Q

how does oxycotin influence recognition of faces

A

asd, schizophrenia makes it better
normal adults, statiscially insignifigant.
-or increased intestisty such that they become overly sensitive and impairs the result.

154
Q

oxycotin and vasopressin are commonly referred to as?

A

peptide hormones
neuropeptides

155
Q

what does the thalmus do?

A

relay sensory info to the cortex expect smell
-language, speech, declarative memory.

156
Q

whats korsakoff syndrome?

A

thiamine deficency
-chronic alcoholism
-damage to thalmus and mammilary bodies

-anterograde, retrograde, confabulation-filling in gaps.

157
Q

basal ganglia tell me about it?

A

receives input from cortex and transmits to thlamus.

-volutary movements, procedural and habit making. cognitive functioning, and emotions.

158
Q

what is basal ganglia damage attached to?

A

adhd, schizophrenia, mood disorders, torettes, ocd, parkinsons.

159
Q

what does the limbic system consist of?

A

amgydala, cingulate cortex, emotion.

160
Q

what does amygdala do?

A

-processes emotions
-encodes emotions into memory.
-pain encoding
-risk taking

161
Q

what is kluver-bucy syndrome?

A

amygdala lesions severing of temperol lobes results is hyperaggresion, sexuality, visual agnosia

161
Q

what psychiatric issues are linked to amygdala?

A

social anxiety
anxiety
depression
ptsd
asd
substance use disorders

161
Q

what does cingulate cortex do?

A

role in motivation, memory, emotions, including emotional reactions to pain.

-linked to major depressive disorder

-reduction linked to depression.

162
Q

what does hippocampus do?

A

tranfers short term to long term declarative memories
-spatial memory
-assoicated with alzheimer’s
-chronic level of cortisol effects affects retrieval of declarative memory.

163
Q

how does the hippocampus fit in with ptsd.

A

hippocampus volume in terms of being small makes you a risk for developing ptsd after exposure to traumatic stress.

164
Q

Severe damage to the ________ is often fatal because of its role in the regulation of respiration and cardiovascular functioning.

A. suprachiasmatic nucleus

B. medulla oblongata

C. caudate nucleus

D. mammillary bodies

A

B. medulla oblongata

165
Q

Three months after a car accident that damaged his hippocampus, a 24-year-old man is most likely to be unable to:

A. remember the names of his parents and other family members.

B. recall what he did on his 21st birthday.

C. remember how to shave and comb his hair.

D. recall events that happened after the accident.

A

D. recall events that happened after the accident.

166
Q

The __________ allows you to remember how to ride a bicycle, swim, and play a musical instrument.

A. cerebellum

B. medulla oblongata

C. suprachiasmatic nucleus

D. hypothalamus

A

A. cerebellum

167
Q

The __________ is responsible for attaching emotions to memories for surprising and shocking events.

A. thalamus

B. amygdala

C. substantia nigra

D. suprachiasmatic nucleus

A

B. amygdala

168
Q

Although the exact cause of Tourette’s disorder is unknown, its symptoms have been linked to abnormalities in which of the following?

A. basal ganglia

B. suprachiasmatic nucleus

C. thalamus

D. cingulate cortex

A

A. basal ganglia

169
Q

Research has found that, for patients with major depressive disorder, the extent of improvement in depressive symptoms following participation in cognitive-behavior therapy are positively correlated with increases in the volume of the:

A. substantia nigra.

B. globus pallidus.

C. entorhinal cortex.

D. anterior cingulate cortex.

A

D. anterior cingulate cortex.

170
Q

There is evidence that increasing oxytocin levels in healthy adults using intranasal administration:

A. causes oversensitivity to emotions in the faces of other people which increases accuracy in identifying the intensity of those emotions.

B. causes oversensitivity to emotions in the faces of other people which decreases accuracy in identifying the intensity of those emotions.

C. decreases sensitivity to emotions in the faces of other people and thereby decreases accuracy in identifying the intensity of those emotions.

D. has no effect on sensitivity to emotions in the faces of other people and, therefore, no effect on the accuracy of emotion perception.

A

B. causes oversensitivity to emotions in the faces of other people which decreases accuracy in identifying the intensity of those emotions.

171
Q

One of the functions of the __________ is to maintain a constant body temperature.

A. thalamus

B. mammillary bodies

C. hippocampus

D. hypothalamus

A

D. hypothalamus

172
Q

What are the major benzodiazepines

A

diazepam
alprazolam
avitan

173
Q

what are the benzodizapenes uses for
and how do they work ?

A

anxiety
insomnia
seizures
alcohol withdrawl

increase GABA activity

174
Q
A
175
Q

what are the side effects of benzo’s

A

drownsiness, unsteadiness, impaired memory & concentration.

impaired memory and concentration.

can caused reverse effect excitability

176
Q

How do you discontinue a benzo

A

gradual tapering depends of half-life, e.g short half life long taper such as alprzalom, lorazepam

177
Q

what if you mix alchohol and a bezno?

A

potentially lethal

178
Q

what if you mix benzo and a agonist blocker?

A

potential dangerous drop in blood pressure

179
Q

what are the major drugs of barbiturates?

A

thiopental
amobarbital
secobarbital

enhance gaba activity

180
Q

what are barbituates use for

A

general anisthetic
anxiety
insomnia
seizures

181
Q

side effects of barbituates

A

drowsiness
dizziness
confusion
ataxia
cognitive impairment
paradoxial excitement

182
Q

what if you just stop taking a barbituates

A

possible seizure, delirium, death.

183
Q

what is the dug for azapirones

A

buspirone

184
Q

what is the advantage of azapirones

A

does not cause sedation, dependency, or tolerance

185
Q

what are the main nacotics (opiods)

A

methadone, oxycodone, hydrcodone, fentanyl

186
Q

what is methadone used for?

A

heroin detox

187
Q

side effects of narcotics?

A

dry mouth, nausea, pupil constriction, drowziness, dissiness,nausea

chronic dependence looks like the flu

leading cause of accidental death.

188
Q

how does a beta blocker work?

A

inhibits sympathetic nervous system

189
Q

what do beta blockers treat?

A

hypertension, migraine, essential tremor

best for somatic symptoms

190
Q

what are the beta blocker drugs

A

inderal

191
Q

side effects of beta blockers

A

hypotension, decreased sex drive, insomnia, dry eyes, dizziness, depression.

192
Q

what is the side effects of abrupt discontinuation of beta blockers?

A

hypertension, tremors, headaches, consfusion, cardiac arythmia.

193
Q

what are mood stabalizers used for

A

bipolar and include lithium, anticonvulsants

194
Q

side effects of lithium

A

nausea, vomitting, diarrhea, metalice taste, increased thirst, weight gain, hand tremor, fatigue, impaired tremor, concentration.

195
Q

why do we have to to check lithium levels

A

lithium toxicity which can cause death.

196
Q

what are anticonvulsants used for

A

similar as lithium but also mixed episodes

197
Q

why must we monitor anticonvulsants?

A

liver failure and low blood cell count.

198
Q

what are the main drugs for treating alzeimers

A

tacrine
donepezil
rivastigmine
galantamine

199
Q

how do alzemers drugs work?

A

nmda receptor agaonist
delays breakdown of acetocholyne

200
Q

how does alzeimers drug work memantine work

A

regulating activity of glutamate

201
Q

what are the second line drugs for ADHD, how do they work, norepeneprine reuptake inhibitor

A

atomoxetine
guanfacine
clonidine

202
Q

how are 2nd line adhd drugs better

A

better for tic, sleep, anxiety, depression

203
Q

what are 3rd line adhd drugs

A

trycilic despramine
ndri bupropion

204
Q

how does the alchohol drug disulifram work?

A

nausea vomiting, makes you feel like shit

205
Q

how does naltrexone work?

A

reduces pleaserable effects, topiramate not approved works the same.

206
Q

drugs used for tobacco disorder?

A

bupropion-origianlly for major depressive disorder

varenicline

reduce cravings

207
Q

whats the rule of half-life and why

A

low and slow
usually 24 hours
in older adults it can take 72 hours

208
Q

what is tolerance and cross tolerance

A

tolerance is tolerance for the drug
cross tolerance is tolerance to one creates tolerance in another.

209
Q

what is the therapeutic index?

A

used to measure a drugs safety

210
Q

how do you calculate therapeutic index?

A

lethal dose/effective dose

211
Q

a drugs bad dose is what

A

dose lower than 1

212
Q

All of the following drugs are used to slow down the progression of Alzheimer’s disease by delaying the breakdown of acetylcholine except:

A. donepezil.

B. galantamine.

C. rivastigmine.

D. memantine.

A

D. memantine.

213
Q

A person will experience nausea, shortness of breath, and other unpleasant symptoms when he drinks alcohol after taking which of the following?

A. acamprosate

B. disulfiram

C. valproic acid

D. naltrexone

A

B. disulfiram

214
Q

As a treatment for anxiety, propranolol (Inderal) is:

A. effective only for psychological symptoms.

B. more effective for psychological symptoms than somatic symptoms.

C. more effective for somatic symptoms than psychological symptoms.

D. equally effective for somatic and psychological symptoms.

A

C. more effective for somatic symptoms than psychological symptoms.

215
Q

Benzodiazepines and barbiturates enhance the effects of which of the following neurotransmitters?

A. GABA

B. serotonin

C. ACh

D. norepinephrine

A

A. GABA

216
Q

A potential side effect of carbamazepine is agranulocytosis, which is a(n) __________ disorder.

A. endocrine

B. immune system

C. blood

D. kidney

A

C. blood

217
Q

Benzodiazepines have a __________ half-life for older adults than for younger adults and, therefore, are often prescribed for older adults at a __________ dose than they are for younger adults.

A. shorter; lower

B. shorter; higher

C. longer; lower

D. longer; higher

A

C. longer; lower

218
Q

cardiovascular events is usally a _____
and what is it caused by?

A

stroke
hypertension

219
Q

what are the two main causes of a stroke?

A

ischemic stroke-block of artery blood clot
can be brain based-thrombotic
can be body based embolic

hemorghapic stroke bleeding

220
Q

what are the symptoms of a stroke?

A

middle cerebral artery
1. controlateral sensory loss
controlateral hemipharesis (weakness)
hemiplegia (paralysis)
homonymous hemianopsia visual field loss

posterior cerebral artery much the same but you add dystharia, nausea, vomiting.

anterior cerebral artery-includes mutism, impaired sight judegement, uniranty incontinunence

221
Q

what are the two types of traumatic brain injury?

A

open and closed, closed is worse

222
Q

what is aprosodia?

A

can be result of TBI, stroke or progressive neruological diesase

inability to express or understand the rhythm, pitch, timing and loudness of speech to convey emotion.

223
Q

tell me about post traumatic seizures?

A

within one week of injury treat with anit-seizure meds

after a week its pte post traumatic epilepsy
treat with vagus nerve stimulation
-nerustimulation or surgery

224
Q

prognosis for traumatic brain injury

A

best results in first three month, and then a year.

225
Q

what parts are tbi in the brain linked to

A

temperol lobe and hippocampal atrophy

226
Q

what are huntingtons and parkinosons linked to

A

degeneration of cells in motor areas of the brain.

227
Q

what causes huntington’s dicease

A

mutatated version on huntingin gene on chromosone 4

228
Q

for huntington’s when do symptoms usually occur and what is prognosis?

A

30-50
10-30 years

228
Q

what is the progression for huntingtons

A

depression and mood swings
precede cognitive and motor symptoms
latter stages sever rigidity and bradykinesia
walking talking etc.

229
Q

what causes parkinson’s

A

neruodegenrative disorder, combination of genetic and environmental factors

-degeneration of dopamine producing cells in substantia nigra, which reduces dopmaine levels

low act linked to gait balance, balance, congition

low norepinephrine linked to depression, cognitive deficits, sleep distruabances.

230
Q

symptoms of parkinson’s

A

tremor at rest
balance and coordination
rigidity in limbs and trunk
slowed voluntary movement

231
Q

treatment for parkinsons

A

no cure but
-levodopa to increase dompamine
-dopamine agonists
-deep brain stimulation (DBS)

232
Q

what are the two main types of seizures

A

focal onset-seizure
generalized onset-seizure

233
Q

what is a focal onset seizure

A

start in one localized area and affect that side of the body though it may spread
-does not effect consciousness

234
Q

focal onset seizure (temperal lobe)
tell me about it.

A

aura, deja vu, unfamilarity, sweating, dilated pupils, tachycardia, trouble speaking, comprehension

235
Q

focal onset seizure (frontal lobe)
tell me about it.

A

often during sleep
duration 30 seconds
kicking, punching, laughing, etc.

236
Q

focal onset seizure (parietal lobe)
tell me about it.

A

tingling, numbness, floating, distortions.

237
Q

focal onset seizure (occipital lobe)
tell me about it.

A

rapid eye movement, eyelid flutter, visual hallucinations, partial blindness.

238
Q

what are generalized onset seizures and their types

A

a seizure that affects both hemispheres include
-generalized onset motor seizure
-generalized onset non-motor seizure

239
Q

tell me about generalized onset motor vs non-motor seizures.

A

motor is grand mal
-changes in consciousness

non motor is brief loss of consciousness, blank stare, also rapid blinking

240
Q

what is status epilepticus

A

prolonged seizure that last for five minutes or more.

241
Q

what are the types of status epilepticus

A

generalized convulsive like grand mal

non convulsive is no motor

242
Q

line of treatment for status epilpticus

A

benzo’s
then anti-seizure medication

243
Q

migraine headaches are classified as

A

with aura and no aura

244
Q

what are migraines linked to

A

low levels of serotonin

245
Q

hypertension high blood pressure is classified as what?

A

primary without cause
secondary with cause

246
Q

treatment for hypertension

A

lifestyle, diuretic, beta blocker,

247
Q

the pituatary gland is link to what

A

thyroid issues hypo and hyper thyroidism.

248
Q

what hormone is linked to pituatary gland

A

antidiuretic hormone

249
Q

what is hypoglycemia

A

low blood sugar

250
Q

what are the two types of diabetes?

A

type 1
type 2 most common

251
Q

test EEG whats it for

A

brain stuff, seizures, sleep, brain injuries, tumours

252
Q

Parkinson’s disease has been linked to a degeneration of dopamine-producing cells in the:

A. amygdala.

B. suprachiasmatic nucleus.

C. pons.

D. substantia nigra.

A

D. substantia nigra.

253
Q

Migraine headaches have been linked to abnormal levels of:

A. norepinephrine.

B. serotonin.

C. glutamate.

D. acetylcholine.

A

B. serotonin.

254
Q

As a treatment for Parkinson’s disease, levodopa is most effective for which of the following symptoms?

A. bradykinesia

B. dyskinesia

C. chorea

D. tremor

A

A. bradykinesia

255
Q

Which of the following symptoms is least characteristic of hypothyroidism?

A. decreased libido

B. confusion

C. heat intolerance

D. unexplained weight gain

A

C. heat intolerance

256
Q

Idris is in a serious car accident that causes a traumatic brain injury. After regaining consciousness in the hospital, Idris has anterograde amnesia and retrograde amnesia that affects memories for the ten months prior to the accident. When Idris’s long-term memories begin to return, he’s most likely to recall which of the following first?

A. his sister’s graduation from college nine months ago

B. the fight he had with his parents about his financial situation six months ago

C. the birthday dinner he had with a close friend one week before the accident

D. where he was going when he was in the accident

A

A. his sister’s graduation from college nine months ago

257
Q

A client with __________ tells her therapist that, since her traumatic brain injury, she has had trouble disciplining her children because, when she tells them she’s angry about what they’ve done, she doesn’t sound angry and, as a result, they don’t listen to her. As the client describes the problems she has with her children, she speaks in a monotone.

A. athetosis

B. aprosodia

C. dysarthria

D. dystonia

A

B. aprosodia

258
Q

Which of the following is an MRI-based technique that is used to detect abnormalities in the brain’s white matter?

A. electroencephalography

B. computerized axial tomography

C. positron emission tomography

D. diffusion tensor imaging

A

D. diffusion tensor imaging

259
Q

A(n) ________ is caused by a blood clot that developed in an artery in the brain:

A. embolic stroke

B. thrombotic stroke

C. intracerebral hemorrhage

D. subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

B. thrombotic stroke

260
Q

Which of the following types of seizures involves a very brief loss of consciousness with a blank stare?

A. focal onset impaired awareness

B. generalized onset non-motor

C. tonic

D. clonic

A

B. generalized onset non-motor

261
Q

scanning tools remember
CT general
MRI better
DTI while blood cells
PET alzeheimers

A
262
Q
A

psychopathology (8 decks)

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