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Applied Anatomic Pathology > Final Exam - Don't Knows > Flashcards

Final Exam - Don't Knows Flashcards

1
Q

what is paraformaldehyde fixative used for

A

fluorescent studies and research

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2
Q

what is glutaraldehyde fixative used for

A

EM and kidneys

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3
Q

what is the permissible exposure limit for formaldehyde in the workplace (short term)

A

2 ppm over a 15 minute period

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4
Q

what is hanks special solution used for

A

cytogenetics and genetic mutations

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4
Q

what does chloroform do to tissue

A

clears fatty tissue and increases alcohol penetration

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5
Q

what is zenker’s fixative used for

A

nuclear chromatin, connective tissue fibers, and cytoplasmic features

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6
Q

what does alcohol do to tissue

A

coagulates proteins and causes shrinkage

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7
Q

what is RPMI special solution used for

A

flow cytometry and lymphoma

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8
Q

when was the first recorded autopsy performed and on who

A

44 B.C. on Julius Caesar

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9
Q

explain the Rokitansky autopsy method

A

organs are removed in situ (where it originated) in one block from neck to rectum

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10
Q

what is the average weight of a 20-30 year old prostate

A

15 g

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11
Q

what is the average weight of a 16-20 year old spleen

A

170 g

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12
Q

what is the average weight of a left lung

A

375 g

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13
Q

what is the average weight of combined female kidneys

A

288 g

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14
Q

what is average weight of a right lung

A

475 g

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15
Q

what are the four types of pericardial effusion

A

transudative, exudative, hemorrhagic, and malignant

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16
Q

when should a PAD be finished according to the joint commission for hospital accreditation

A

2 days

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17
Q

where are stress ulcers most commonly located

A

stomach

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18
Q

what is caput succedaneum

A

accumulation of interstitial fluid in the soft tissues of the scalp - head becomes edematous and swells

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19
Q

what is the most common, important pathologic finding associated with birth head injuries

A

intracranial hemorrhage

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20
Q

what is craniorachischisis

A

neural tube defect that causes both anencephaly and bony defect of the spine

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21
Q

coarctation of aorta is associated with which syndrome

A

turner syndrome

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22
Q

what are the most common teratomas of childhood

A

sacrococcygeal teratomas

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23
Q

what does the ADAM complex stand for

A

amniotic deformities, adhesions, mutilations

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24
Q

what are two common fetal findings in fetal alcohol syndrome cases

A

deceased brain weight
agenesis of the corpus callousum

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25
Q

what is the single largest cause of neonatal deaths globally

A

infections - they usually arise from the placenta

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26
Q

what is the CPT code for a foreskin from someone other than a newborn

A

88304

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27
Q

what is ENE

A

extra nodal extension - metastasis of tumor to lymph node (through the lymph node’s capsule)

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28
Q

what is the CPT code for a hemorrhoid

A

88304

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29
Q

what is the CPT code for aortic valves

A

88305

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30
Q

what is the most common type of malignant salivary gland tumor

A

mucoepidermoid carcinoma

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31
Q

krukenberg tumors are most common in which four locations

A

stomach, colon, appendix, and breast

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32
Q

what is the CPT code for a frozen section

A

88331

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33
Q

which three conditions can cause lipomas

A

gardner syndrome
adiposis dolorosa
familial multiple lipomatosis

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34
Q

what’s an important thing to look for with salivary gland specimens

A

nerves

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35
Q

what is the CPT code for a spermatocele

A

88304

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36
Q

what is the CPT code for lymph nodes and lung specimens

A

88305

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37
Q

what is the CPT code for skin tags

A

88304

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38
Q

define an adverse event

A

any error that would have resulted in a sentinel event but was caught and did not affect the outcome in a negative way - a “near miss”

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39
Q

what is the most common salivary gland tumor in infants/chidlren

A

hemangioma

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40
Q

what are sialoliths mainly made of

A

carbonate apatite

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41
Q

what is the most common type of nasal papilloma

A

inverted

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42
Q

which salivary gland is the most common gland for tumor

A

parotid

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43
Q

what is the CPT code for a POC less than 20 weeks

A

88305

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44
Q

what is the CPT code for vulvar tags

A

88305

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45
Q

what is the CPT code for a tonsil specimen from a younger patient

A

88300

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46
Q

what is the CPT code for a hernia

A

88302

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47
Q

what is the most common type of parotid tumor

A

pleomorphic adenoma

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48
Q

define polkilodermatous

A

variegated appearance

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49
Q

where do malignant laryngeal lesions most commonly arise

A

vocal cord

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50
Q

what is the CPT code for lymph nodes

A

88307

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51
Q

what is the CPT code for a parathyroid gland

A

88305

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52
Q

what should you submit for a papillary thyroid lesion

A

1 section/cm

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53
Q

where is squamous cell carcinoma most commonly located in the mouth

A

floor of mouth
lateral/ventral surfaces of tongue

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54
Q

a tumor of which size differentiates a T1 and T2 lip and oral cavity tumor

A

<2 cm = T1
>2 cm = T2 and beyond

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55
Q

what is a papilloma

A

benign, HPV associated papillary wart often caused by types 6 and 11

56
Q

what is the leading cause of death worldwide

A

TB

57
Q

what is the most common type of lung cancer

A

adenocarcinoma - a type of non-small cell lung cancer

58
Q

what is small cell carcinoma

A

includes neuroendocrine tumors and carcinoids
usually adjacent to bronchi

59
Q

what is large cell carcinoma

A

a type of non-small cell lung cancer that is diagnosis by exclusion

60
Q

HIV infection is associated with an increase risk of _______

A

TB

61
Q

what are the two main subtypes of lung adenocarcinoma

A

mucinous vs non-mucinous

62
Q

what can asbestos cause

A

mesothelioma

63
Q

what are the 5 basic histologic patterns of non-mucinous lung adenocarcinoma

A

acinar
papillary
micropapillary
lepidic
solid

64
Q

which stage involves the pleura

A

T2 and above

65
Q

what is the difference between a high anterior resection and a low anterior resection

A

high: cut above the anterior serosal reflection (no mesorectal tissue)
low: cut below the anterior serosal reflection (mesorectal tissue shows)

66
Q

define hematochezia

A

passage of fresh blood through the anus

67
Q

which device is used to give proximal and distal donuts of colon resections

A

anvil

68
Q

which staging system is used for anal/rectal malignancies

A

TNM

69
Q

what is another name for the circumferential radial margin

A

mesorectal margin

70
Q

NET make up ____ % of small bowel t

A

50%

71
Q

signet-ring cell carcinoma causes what

A

linitus plastica (leather bottle appearance)

72
Q

50% of Meckel’s diverticulum have what on cut section

A

ectopic gastric mucosa or pancreatic parenchyma

73
Q

what is the gross appearance of a yolk sac tumor

A

yellow tan with focal myxoid/gelatinous areas with focal hemorrhage

74
Q

what is the CPT code for a ureter

A

88307

75
Q

what is another name for a myelolipoma

A

incidentaloma

76
Q

what are the four main morphologic patterns of bladder tumors

A

papilloma
invasive papillary carcinoma
flat non-invasive carcinoma (CIS)
flat invasive carcinoma

77
Q

tumor invasion into the periureteric fat stages a ureter to what

A

pT3

78
Q

what are the 5 variants of renal cell carcinoma

A

clear cell
papillary
chromophobe
Xp11 translocation
collecting duct

79
Q

what is the critical size for an adrenal tumor

A

<5 cm - pT1
>5 cm - pT2

80
Q

what is a simple prostatectomy

A

large chunks of the prostate are removed in the case of benign prostatic hyperplasia
weigh, measure in aggregate, and do not ink because there is no capsule

81
Q

what is the gross appearance of a seminoma

A

homogeneous, gray white lobulate surface

82
Q

what are the two benign, neoplastic conditions of the kidney

A

angiomyolipoma
oncocytoma

83
Q

sprionolactone bodies are seen in which condition

A

adrenal cortical adenoma

84
Q

a male radical cystectomy can be oriented anterior/posterior using what primary structure

A

peritoneal reflection - it is much shinier on the posterior aspect

85
Q

what is a myelolipoma (incidentaloma)

A

adrenal tumor with mature adipose tissue and normal bone marrow elements

86
Q

what is the difference in gross appearance of a small and large adrenal pheochromocytoma

A

small: yellow-tan
large: hemorrhage, necrosis, and cystic

87
Q

which kidney lesion is variegated and poorly demarcated with necrosis, hemorrhage, and cystic change

A

adrenal cortical carcinoma

88
Q

what are corpora amylacea

A

amyloid bodies found in the damaged prostate - note and removed before submitting section

89
Q

what is waterhouse-friderichson syndrome

A

bacterial infection of the adrenals causes major adrenal insufficiency which leads to hypertension

90
Q

what is the most common testicular tumor in infants/children up to 3 years of age

A

yolk sac tumor

91
Q

what is Conn syndrome

A

excessive cortisol production by the adrenal cortex

92
Q

a kidney tumor that invades the renal vein is staged as what

A

pT3a - regardless of tumor size

93
Q

what is the CPT code for a hydrosalpinx/hemosalpinx

A

88305

94
Q

what is SEE-FIM and what is its importance

A

sectioning and extensively examination the fimbriated end
a specific way of grossing a fallopian tube for a prophylactic removal due to BRCA gene

95
Q

what can a blunted fallopian tube indicate

A

PID

96
Q

what is the important size for omentum staging

A

2 cm

97
Q

what is important about grossing adenosarcomas of the endometrium

A

staged based on tumor size (5 cm) and infiltration

98
Q

what is Rokitansky’s protuberance

A

nipple-like structure covered with hair in an ovarian teratoma
important to submit as it has the highest possibility to undergo malignant change

99
Q

what is considered stage 1 cervical cancer

A

confined to cervix

100
Q

what is an important measurement for an endometrial cavity

A

cornu to cornu

101
Q

what is an endometrioma

A

chocolate cyst caused by endometriosis

102
Q

what is the CPT code for fallopian tubes for ectopic pregnancy

A

88305

103
Q

what is important about grossing endometrial carcinoma/sarcomas

A

need to submit full thickness sections
note how deep (< or > 50%) the invasion is into the myometrium

104
Q

what is considered stage 0 cervical cancer

A

carcinoma in situ

105
Q

what is the CPT code for uterine prolapse

A

88305

106
Q

which two stains can be useful for confirming cervical intraepithelial lesions

A

Ki-67 and p16

107
Q

what is a common appearance of adenomyosis

A

trabeculation

108
Q

where are you most likely to find serosal endometriosis

A

corneal regions and posterior cul-delsac

109
Q

define AGUS

A

atypical glandular cells of underdetermined significance

110
Q

define ASCUS

A

atypical cells of undetermined significance

111
Q

what is the CPT code for the uterus for something other than prolapse or malignancy

A

88307

112
Q

what is a nabothian cyst

A

cyst on the cervix or in the endocervical canal - note and submit one section

113
Q

what is the normal length range for an umbilical cord

A

50-70 cm long

114
Q

what is the CPT code for a placenta in the first or second trimeste

A

88305

115
Q

what is the normal amount of cord coiling

A

2 coils per 10 cm

116
Q

what is the normal diameter of an umbilical cord

A

0.8-1.3 cm

117
Q

what is a circumvallate insertion

A

membranes insert before the disc margin/edge and have fibrin deposition that forms a palpable ridge

118
Q

what is important to note about the staging of invasive breast carcinoma

A

based on tumor size and involvement of skin/chest wall

119
Q

what is the appearance of medullary breast carcinoma

A

soft fleshy mass

120
Q

what is the CPT code for a breast reduction

A

88305

121
Q

what is the CPT code for a sentinel lymph node

A

88307

122
Q

what is the appearance of ductal carcinoma

A

firm grey-pink stellate mass

123
Q

what is PASH

A

pseudoangiomatous stroma hyperplasia

shows anastomosing slit-like spaces

124
Q

which breast lesion has a radial scar and grossly resembles carcinoma

A

complex radial sclerosing lesion

125
Q

what is an important feature of a serous cystadenoma of the pancreas

A

central stellate scar

126
Q

congenital cysts of the pancreas are associated with which two conditions

A

PKD and von-hippel

127
Q

what is the CPT code for traumatic finger/toe amputations

A

88302

128
Q

what is the CPT code for exostosis (osteochondroma)

A

88305

129
Q

what is the CPT code for non-traumatic extremity amputations

A

88307

130
Q

what is an important pertinent negative in amputation cases

A

depth and involvement of underlying bone

131
Q

what is the CPT code for a gout smear

A

89060

132
Q

what is the CPT code for a femoral head not for fracture

A

88304

133
Q

what is the most important staging factor for bone

A

tumor site

134
Q

what are two important measurements to take for an above the knee amputation

A

proximal soft tissue margin to heel and heel to toe

135
Q

which condition accounts for 82% of amputations in the United States

A

poor vascular health

136
Q

what is the CPT code for bone fragments/pathological fracture

A

88307

137
Q

what is the CPT code for bone resection

A

88309

Applied Anatomic Pathology (17 decks)

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