Phlebotomy Flashcards

1
Q

The primary role of a phlebotomy technician is to
(A) Greet patients when they arrive at a facility
(B) Collect and process blood specimens
(C) Discuss blood tests and possible diagnoses with patients
(D) Interpret the results of blood tests

A

b

collect and process blood specimens.

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1
Q

What is the name for a legally required process that must be completed to practice a medical profession in a state?
(A) Graduation
(B) Application
(C) Examination
(D) Licensure

A

d

licensure

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2
Q

What is part of the planning phlebotomy technicians must do to manage their time appropriately?
(A) Decide which tests to order for each patient
(B) Check to ensure they have all supplies needed for each patient
(C) Decide whether to make patients with a large number of tests ordered wait until patients with fewer tests are taken care of
(D) Decide which patients should be asked to return the next day

A

b

check to ensure they have all supplies needed for each patient.

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3
Q

How should phlebotomy technicians dress on the job?
(A) In any clothes that are clean and comfortable
(B) In clean, wrinkle-free uniforms or other facility-approved clothes
(C) In office attire (e.g., dress shirt and tie for men; pantsuit or dress for women)
(D) In jeans and polo shirts

A

b

in clean, wrinkle-free uniforms or other facility-approved clothes.

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4
Q

Dermal puncture may also be called
(A) Capillary puncture
(B) Venipuncture
(C) Straight stick
(D) Butterfly stick

A

a

capillary puncture

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5
Q

What usually happens after a patient is seen in an emergency department (ED)?
(A) The patient stays in the ED until her issue is resolved.
(B) The patient is transferred to the care of her primary care physician.
(C) The patient is sent home with instructions to return for follow-up.
(D) The patient is either treated and discharged or admitted to the hospital for treatment.

A

d

the patient is either treated and discharged or admitted to the hospital for treatment.

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6
Q

What do increases in the number of elderly people in the population mean for healthcare workers?
(A) There are fewer jobs as these patients require less care than younger patients.
(B) Work is easier as care for elderly patients is less complicated.
(C) There are more jobs as these patients are in particular need of care.
(D) There may be less time to care for younger patients.

A

c

there are more jobs as these patients are in particular need of care.

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7
Q

A high-quality phlebotomy certification program will require
(A) Only online instruction
(B) Proof of observation of a certain number of blood draws, both venipuncture and capillary puncture
(C) Proof of performance of a certain number of venipuncture and capillary puncture blood draws on dummy arms/hands
(D) Proof of performance of a certain number of venipuncture and capillary puncture blood draws on people

A

d

proof of performance of a certain number of venipuncture and capillary puncture blood draws on people.

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8
Q

___________________________ is an example of professional behavior for a phlebotomy technician.
(A) Asking questions when the PBT does not understand something
(B) Using cute nicknames for patients to put them at ease
(C) Not arriving to work late more often than once a week
(D) Making independent choices and not bothering supervisors with questions

A

a

asking questions when the PBT does not understand something.

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9
Q

Which of the following is a list of some common departments within a clinical laboratory?
(A) Chemistry, hematology, microbiology, immunology
(B) Maternity, oncology, cardiology, neurology
(C) Inpatient, outpatient, acute, ambulatory
(D) Directors, managers, consultants, technicians

A

a

chemistry, hematology, microbiology, immunology

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10
Q

Where do patients receive inpatient care?
(A) At a doctor’s office
(B) At a public health clinic
(C) At an urgent care center
(D) At a hospital

A

d

at a hospital

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11
Q

What is the most professional way to wear jewelry on the job?
(A) Wearing no more than five pieces of jewelry at any one time
(B) Wearing little or no jewelry, with the exception of a watch with a second hand
(C) Wearing only inexpensive jewelry
(D) Wearing no jewelry of any kind

A

b

wearing little or no jewelry, with the exception of a watch with a second hand.

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12
Q

______________________ can be a sign of unmanaged or poorly managed stress.
(A) Having poor relationships with coworkers
(B) Drinking alcohol in moderation
(C) Feeling tired at the end of a long day
(D) Missing one session of a three-times-a week exercise class

A

a
having poor relationships with coworkers.

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13
Q

What do clinical laboratories all have in common?
(A) They analyze specimens mailed to them from other facilities.
(B) They employ a large number of phlebotomists and medical technicians.
(C) The collect and analyze specimens from patients.
(D) They can perform tests at all levels of complexity.

A

c

they collect and analyze specimens from patients.

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14
Q

The requirement that phlebotomy technicians only collect blood for tests ordered through a facility’s requisition process is an example of a
A) Procedure
(B) Guideline
(C) Suggestion
(D) Policy

A

d

policy

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15
Q

Compared to the job growth predicted for most other positions, job growth for phlebotomy technicians is
(A) Much higher (many more jobs)
(B) A little bit higher (slightly more jobs)
(C) Lower (fewer jobs)
(D) About the same

A

a

much higher (many jobs)

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16
Q

A patient says, “I’ve changed my mind. I don’t want to have these blood tests done after all.” Which one of these responses could be considered assault?
(A) “I can answer any questions you have about the procedure if that might help.”
(B) “Doctors order tests because they can help give you better care. Would you like to talk to your doctor again before you decide for sure?”
(C) “We are going to do these tests. The doctor ordered them and you have to have them, so go ahead and roll up your sleeve.”
(D) “If you’re worried about the pain, we can talk about ways to distract yourself. It can hurt a bit for some people, but it goes quickly.”

A

c

“We are going to do these tests. the doctor ordered them and you have to have them, so go ahead and roll up your sleeve.”

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17
Q

Which of the following is a breach of patient confidentiality?
(A) Calling the physician who ordered a patient’s blood tests to clarify which tests were ordered
(B) Checking with a charge nurse to confirm the room number of a hospital patient with a blood draw ordered
(C) Calling a PBT colleague who has drawn blood from a particular patient before to the drawing station to assist in finding a good draw site
(D) Talking to a PBT colleague at lunch about a patient who was especially challenging

A

d

Talking to a PBT colleague at lunch about a patient who was especially challenging.

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18
Q

Which of the following is true?
(A) A signed general consent form means a PBT can draw blood from a patient no matter what.
(B) A signed general consent form includes consent for blood draws, but the patient may still decline the procedure.
(C) A signed general consent form does not extend to blood draws.
(D) A signed general consent form means a patient can never decline any procedure ordered by a physician.

A

b

a signed general consent form includes consent for blood draws, but the patient may still decline the procedure.

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19
Q

Which of the following shows respect for patient rights?
(A) Always drawing blood from the arm the PBT is most comfortable using
(B) Asking patients which arm they would prefer for the blood draw
(C) Not describing procedures so as not to alarm anxious patients
(D) Doing and saying everything possible to convince a reluctant patient to have blood drawn

A

b

asking patients which arm they would prefer for the blood draw.

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20
Q

What is one of the reasons governments establish laws?
(A) To ensure order and safety
(B) To prevent citizens from making independent choices
(C) To create jobs for police officers
(D) To raise money through fines when people break laws

A

a

to ensure order and safety.

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21
Q

Which of the following is one of the American Society for Clinical Laboratory Science’s goals for quality laboratory testing?
(A) Perform tests with minimal patient wait
(B) Perform tests with no patient pain
C) Produce healing for the patient
(D) Produce accurate test results

A

d

produce accurate test results.

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22
Q

A(n) ________________________ is an example of an advance directive.
(A) Laboratory requisition
(B) Do-not-resuscitate order
(C) General consent form
(D) Incident report

A

b

Do-not-resuscitate order.

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23
Q

Which of the following could be considered libel?
(A) A PBT writes in a patient’s chart, “Patient is tough to stick and has it in for phlebotomists. Beware!”
(B) A PBT writes in a patient’s chart, “Not able to complete venipuncture; alerted supervisor.”
(C) A PBT makes a formal written report of verbally abusive behavior on a patient’s part.
(D) A PBT says to a coworker, “That patient was a nightmare!”

A

a

A PBT writes in a patient’s chart, “Patient is tough to stick and has it in for phlebotomists. Beware!”

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24
Q

Which area of the Patient Care Partnership relates directly to infection prevention and control?
(A) Involvement in your care
(B) Protection of your privacy
(C) High quality hospital care
(D) A clean and safe environment

A

d

a clean and safe environment.

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25
Q

What should a PBT do if he finds a requisition sheet sitting on a counter in a break room?
(A) Shred the form
(B) Throw the form in the break room trash can
(C) Give the form to a nurse/supervisor
(D) Find the patient’s file and place the requisition inside

A

c

Give the form to a nurse/supervisor

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26
Q
  1. Just before a phlebotomy technician begins a blood draw the patient says, “Wait! I don’t want to do this!” Which of the following responses is most likely to make the patient feel defensive?
    (A) “Why not?”
    (B) “Can I answer any questions for you?”
    (C) “Do you need a little more time?”
    (D) “I won’t do this until you’re ready, but it will be over quickly once we start.”
A

a

“Why not?”

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27
Q

A patient who is pressing her lips together and not making eye contact is communicating by means of
(A) Oral communication
(B) Signal-based communication
(C) Body language
(D) Cultural communication

A

c

body language

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28
Q

Written words are considered
(A) A form of oral communication
(B) A form of nonverbal communication
(C) A form of verbal communication
(D) A form of body language

A

c

a form of verbal communication.

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29
Q

PBTs Diosa and Nikki are both fluent English speakers, but they share a cultural background and (non-English) native language. When they are working together what principle should guide their interaction?
(A) They should only speak English to each other on the job.
(B) They should speak their native language only when they do not want patients to understand what they are saying.
(C) They should speak their native language on the job only if their supervisor also understands the language.
(D) They should speak their native language on the job only if patients say it does not bother them.

A

a

they should only speak English to each other on the job.

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30
Q

A requisition specifies that a blood draw must be performed at 1430. What time should the draw take place?
(A) At 4:30 p.m.
(B) At 6:30 p.m.
(C) At 2:30 a.m.
(D) At 2:30 p.m.

A

d

At 2:30 p,m.

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31
Q

A patient expresses fear about a possible diagnosis during a blood draw. Which of the following is a clichéd response?
(A) “Have you talked to your doctor about these concerns?”
(B) “I always try to remember that everything happens for a reason.”
(C) “This must be a stressful time for you. I’m sorry.”
(D) “Your doctor will be able to talk you through the results. I know it can be scary.”

A

b

“I always try to remember that everything happens for a reason.”

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32
Q

A phlebotomy technician says to a patient, “You’re here for a CBC and some coag studies, right?” This use of medical terminology is
A. The most accurate way to communicate with patients
B. Not appropriate, since patients may not understand
C. Only appropriate with patients who seem very intelligent
D. Only appropriate with patients the phlebotomy technician knows personally

A

b

not appropriate, since patients may not understand.

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33
Q

A patient having surgery receives the incorrect type of blood due to an identification error. The official term for this type of event is a _____________________.
(A) Sentinel event
(B) Fireable offense
(C) Warning event
(D) Reportable occurrence

A

a

sentinel event

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34
Q

A patient who has blood drawn frequently expresses concern when a phlebotomy technician prepares to use a straight needle for a blood draw at the inner elbow. She informs the PBT that her veins are small and hard to stick and that usually PBTs end up using a butterfly needle and drawing from her hand. Which of the following responses shows that the PBT is respecting the patient’s concerns?
(A) “Well, I have a great track record with tricky veins. I’m sure I can get you right here.”
(B) “A lot of phlebotomists just don’t even try. This is the right way to start.”
(C) “Would you mind if I check your arms first? I’m sure you know it can hurt more to have blood drawn from your hand. If I don’t see something good in your arms we can try the hand.”
(D) “I’m only supposed to use a few butterflies a week. They’re expensive. I’ll try this first, OK?”

A

c

“Would you mind if I check your arms first? I’m sure you know it can hurt more to have blood drawn from your hand. if I don’t see something good in your arms we can try the hand.”

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35
Q

Which of these would be considered an incident and require completion of an incident report?
(A) A blood draw is performed 10 minutes later than the time on the requisition
(B) A patient taking anticoagulants continues to bleed lightly for five minutes after a blood draw
(C) A set of specimens is labeled with the wrong patient’s identifying information
(D) A patient accidentally drops a valuable piece of jewelry at a drawing station and has to be called back to retrieve it

A

c

a set of specimens is labeled with the wrong patient’s identifying information.

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36
Q

Influenza is a common illness that requires __________________ precautions.
(A) Droplet
(B) Airborne
(C) Contact
(D) Isolation

A

a

droplet

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37
Q

Blood culture may be ordered when a patient is suspected of having an infection in the bloodstream. This is a __________________ infection.
(A) Systemic
(B) Localized
(C) Healthcare-associated
(D) Nosocomial

A

a

systemic

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38
Q

What is a positive way for an employee to take responsibility for infection prevention?
(A) Threaten fellow employees with reporting if they do not follow infection prevention policies
(B) Immediately report exposure to infection, blood, or body fluids
(C) Decline to work with any patient showing signs of infection
(D) Review a patient’s chart before any patient contact and request that the patient come back another day if he seems to be sick

A

b

immediately report exposure to infection, blood, or body fluids.

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39
Q

Which of the following describes a significant exposure according to the Bloodborne Pathogens Standard?
(A) Spilling a blood specimen on a laboratory counter
(B) Failing to seal a specimen bag completely
(C) Performing a routine venipuncture on a patient with a bloodborne illness
(D) Cutting a finger when retrieving a broken blood specimen tube from a centrifuge

A

d

cutting a finger when retrieving a broken blood specimen tube from a centrifuge.

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40
Q

Face shields are used when
(A) A patient has a known airborne illness
(B) A patient has a cough
(C) There is a risk of blood or body fluids splashing or spraying in the eyes
(D) The patient has a documented bloodborne disease

A

c

there is a risk of blood or body fluids splashing or spraying in the eyes.

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41
Q

Multi-patient point-of-care testing devices must be disinfected
(A) Three times a day
(B) When moving from patients in one area of a facility to another
(C) After each use
(D) At the end of each day

A

c

after each use.

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42
Q

Spores that cause C. diff are especially dangerous because
(A) They are smaller than most infectious microorganisms
(B) They can live on surfaces for 12–24 hours
(C) They can live on surfaces for up to a week
(D) They can live on surfaces for months or even years

A

d
they can live on surfaces for months or even years.

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43
Q

What should a PBT do before placing a specimen tube or container in a specimen transport bag?
(A) Shake each specimen well to mix it with any additives in the containers
(B) Check each specimen to make sure it is not leaking and that there is no specimen on the outside of the container
(C) Transfer specimens to fresh tubes/ containers
(D) Remove any protected health information from the specimens to protect patient privacy

A

b

check each specimen to make sure it is not leaking and that there is no specimen on the outside of the container.

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44
Q

A patient for whom Airborne Precautions have been ordered may be in a room called a(n)
(A) Pressurized cabin
(B) Airborne infection isolation room
(C) Airborne infection separation chamber
(D) Positive pressure infection room

A

b

airborne infection isolation room.

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45
Q

An alcohol-based hand rub is considered
(A) A satisfactory substitute for handwashing in all situations
(B) A satisfactory substitute for handwashing when hands are not visibly soiled
(C) A satisfactory substitute for handwashing when the healthcare worker does not like using soap and water
(D) A satisfactory substitute for handwashing only when the healthcare worker first arrives at work

A

b

a satisfactory substitute for handwashing when hands are not visibly soiled.

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46
Q

Medical asepsis involves
(A) Making an object or area completely free of all microorganisms
(B) Taking measures to reduce and prevent the spread of pathogens
(C) Creating a sterile field
(D) Using sterile gloves and equipment

A

b

taking measures to reduce and prevent the spread of pathogens.

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47
Q

Bloodborne pathogens are spread through contact with
(A) Particles expelled when an infected person coughs
(B) Particles on the hands of an infected person
(C) Blood or body fluids from an infected person
(D) Infected foods

A

c

blood or body fluids from an infected person.

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48
Q

An employer must offer a free _________________ vaccine to all employees.
(A) HIV
(B) Influenza
(C) Hepatitis A
(D) Hepatitis B

A

d

hepatitis B

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49
Q

The Needlestick Safety and Prevention Act is an amendment to the
(A) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
(B) Bloodborne Pathogens Standard
(C) Affordable Care Act
(D) Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments

A

b

bloodborne pathogens standard

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50
Q

Hepatitis is an inflammation of the ________________________
(A) Spleen
(B) Large intestine
(C) Pleural lining (around the lungs)
(D) Liver

A

d

liver

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51
Q

If a patient’s blood gets on a phlebotomy technician’s intact skin, what action should the phlebotomy technician take?
(A) Since the skin is intact, no action is necessary.
(B) The phlebotomy technician should immediately wipe the blood off with a gauze square.
(C) The phlebotomy technician should immediately wash the blood off the skin with soap and water.
(D) The phlebotomy technician should remember to wash the blood off the skin after the patient leaves the drawing station.

A

c

The phlebotomy technician should immediately wash the blood off the skin with soap and water.

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52
Q

When removing gloves, the first glove should be grasped
(A) At the inside of the wrist
(B) On the back of the hand
(C) At the fingertips
(D) At the palm

A

d

at the palm

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53
Q

A close friend of a phlebotomy technician arrives for a blood draw. The PBT trusts that this patient is healthy. Which of the following is true about the precautions the PBT should take?
(A) The PBT should confirm with the friend that he is not sick, and then does not need to use Standard Precautions.
B) Because they are close friends, the PBT does not need to use Standard Precautions.
(C) The PBT should use Standard Precautions unless the friend is likely to be offended.
(D) The PBT must use Standard Precautions.

A

d

the PBT must use standard precautions.

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54
Q

Which of the following is an example of breaking the mode of transmission link in the chain of infection?
(A) Receiving a vaccination
(B) Taking an antiviral medication after being exposed to a confirmed case of influenza
(C) Washing hands
(D) An uninfected person wearing an N95 mask to avoid inhaling infectious microorganisms

A

c

washing hands

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55
Q

After handwashing it is best for a PBT to turn the faucet off by
(A) Using a clean, dry paper towel
(B) First drying hands and then using the same paper towel to turn off the faucet
(C) Using an elbow
(D) Using her nondominant hand

A

a

using a clean, dry paper towel.

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56
Q

A phlebotomy technician accidentally splashes disinfectant on his bare skin. Where can he find information about how long to wash his skin?
(A) In his copy of the facility policy manual
(B) In the Safety Data Sheet for that disinfectant
(C) On the CDC website
(D) On the OSHA website

A

b

in the safety data sheet for that disinfectant.

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57
Q

Facilities must provide training in responding to hazards at least
(A) Once a month
(B) Four times a year
(C) Twice a year
(D) Once a year

A

d

once a year

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58
Q

People are more likely to respond appropriately in emergency situations if
(A) They have taken an active role in drills
(B) They have read a lot about how to respond
(C) They watch and follow exactly what their coworkers are doing
(D) They pretend the emergency situation is not actually happening

A

a

they have taken an active role in drills.

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59
Q

What does a dosimeter measure?
(A) Exposure to infected body fluids
(B) Exposure to radiation
(C) Exposure to toxic chemicals
(D) Exposure to excessive noise

A

b

exposure to radiation

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60
Q

There is a fire in a facility. The door to the room where a PBT is located feels hot. There is no window or other way out of the room. What should the PBT do?
(A) Open the door using a wet towel or clothing to protect her hands
(B) Attempt to kick the door open
(C) Block the space under the door with a wet towel or clothing and wait for help
(D) Pound on the door and shout until help arrives

A

c

block the space under the door with a wet towel or clothing and wait for help.

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61
Q

Which of the following is true of elderly patients’ skin?
(A) It is less sensitive than the skin of younger patients.
(B) It is more delicate than the skin of younger patients.
(C) It is harder to puncture than the skin of younger patients.
(D) It is thicker than the skin of younger patients.

A

b

it is more delicate than the skin of younger patients.

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62
Q

OSHA categorizes burns from hot equipment as a _______________ hazard.
(A) Chemical
(B) Biological
(C) Physical
(D) Safety

A

d

safety

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63
Q

According to OSHA’s Hazardous Communication Standard an exclamation mark in a red diamond can indicate
(A) Gases under pressure
(B) Explosives
(C) Irritants (skin and eye)
(D) Flammables

A

c

irritants (Skin and eye)

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64
Q

A pediatric patient must never be ____________________ during the course of a venipuncture procedure.
(A) Told that a needle will be used
(B) Held in a parent’s lap
(C) Allowed to ask questions
(D) Left alone

A

d

left alone

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65
Q

How should nonsharp waste containing blood or body fluids be discarded?
(A) Along with sharps in the sharps receptacle
(B) In a regular trash can with a no-touch closing lid
(C) Directly in a biohazard dumpster outside the facility
(D) In a special biohazard waste bag

A

d

in a special biohazard waste bag

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66
Q

Tissues that, together, perform a specific function are called
(A) Organs
(B) Systems
(C) Cells
(D) Specimens

A

a

organs

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67
Q

If a phlebotomy technician is told to perform venipuncture distal to a patient’s IV, the venipuncture must take place
(A) Closer to the torso than the IV
(B) Farther away from the torso than the IV
(C) On the opposite side of the body from the IV
(D) Alongside the IV

A

b

farther away from the torso than the IV.

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68
Q

What is the largest organ in the body?
(A) The lungs
(B) The skin
(C) The large intestine
(D) The brain

A

b

the skin

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69
Q

Protecting internal organs from injury, protecting the body against bacteria, preventing the loss of too much water, and regulating body temperature are all functions of the _____________ system.
(A) Endocrine
(B) Musculoskeletal
(C) Circulatory
(D) Integumentary

A

d

integumentary

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70
Q

Arm and leg muscles are
(A) Hinge muscles
(B) Voluntary muscles
(C) Synovial muscles
(D) Involuntary muscles

A

b

voluntary muscles

71
Q

The nervous system is the _______________ and _____________________ of the body.
(A) Control, message center
(B) Intelligence, instinct center
(C) Reaction, initiative center
(D) Calming, relaxation center

A

a

control, message center

72
Q

What is the largest section of the brain?
(A) The brainstem
(B) The cerebrum
(C) The cerebellum
(D) The medulla oblongata

A

b

the cerebrum

73
Q

The eyes and ears are part of the
(A) Central nervous system
(B) Spinal column
(C) Peripheral nervous system
(D) Cerebrovascular system

A

a

central nervous system

74
Q

The pleura is a two-layered membrane attached to the
(A) Heart and chest wall
(B) Lungs and chest wall
(C) Veins and epidermis
(D) Nasal cavity and inner ear

A

b

lungs and chest wall

75
Q

What blood test may be performed to evaluate the function of the respiratory system?
(A) Complete blood count
(B) Arterial or capillary blood gas
(C) PT/INR
(D) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

A

b

arterial or capillary blood gas.

76
Q

Which system eliminates waste products created by the cells and maintains water balance in the body?
(A) Urinary system
(B) Gastrointestinal system
(C) Cardiovascular system
(D) Lymphatic system

A

a

urinary system

77
Q

What is the name of the blood test panel associated with kidney health?
(A) Lipid panel
(B) Renal panel
(C) Hepatic panel
(D) Basic metabolic panel

A

b

renal panel

78
Q

What liquid does the liver produce to help break down dietary fat?
(A) Glucose
(B) Insulin
(C) Bilirubin
(D) Bile

A

d

bile

79
Q

The process of preparing food physically and chemically so that it can be absorbed into the cells is called
(A) Absorption
(B) Digestion
(C) Elimination
(D) Extraction

A

b

digestion

80
Q

The pituitary gland is also known as the _______________ gland.
(A) Growth
(B) Metabolism
(C) Master
(D) Hormone

A

c

master

81
Q

_______________________ are chemical subtances secreted by glands in the endocrine system that control body functions.
(A) Hormones
(B) Leukocytes
(C) Antigens
(D) Electrolytes

A

a

hormones

82
Q

Which gland secretes insulin?
(A) The parathyroid gland
(B) The pituitary gland
(C) The adrenal gland
(D) The pancreas

A

d

the pancreas

83
Q

This type of immunity is gained when a person is infected and then recovers from an illness, or when a person receives a vaccine.
(A) Herd immunity
(B) Acquired immunity
(C) Earned immunity
(D) Nonspecific immunity

A

b

acquired immunity

84
Q

How is lymph fluid circulated through the body?
(A) By the lymphatic pump
(B) By the heart
(C) By attaching to red blood cells
(D) By a person’s breathing and muscle activity

A

d

by a persons’ breathing and muscle activity

85
Q

The heart is ___________ to the sternum
A. Anterior
B. Posterior
C. Proximal
D. Distal

A

b

posterior

86
Q

Deoxygenated blood moves from the ___________ to the ___________ to receive oxygen.
(A) Lungs, heart
(B) Arteries, heart
(C) Heart, lungs
(D) Torso, extremities

A

c

heart, lungs

87
Q

The upper chambers of the heart are called the
(A) Atria
(B) Aorta
(C) Ventricles
(D) Coronary arteries

A

a

atria

88
Q

What is conducted by the network of specialized tissue in the cardiac conduction system?
(A) Deoxygenated blood
(B) Oxygenated blood
(C) Pain signals
(D) Electrical impulses

A

d

electrical impulses

89
Q

Exchanges of oxygen and carbon dioxide and of nutrients and waste take place in areas called
(A) Capillary beds
(B) Purkinje fibers
(C) Bundle branches
(D) Oxygenation centers

A

A

capillary beds

90
Q

Systemic circulation carries blood
(A) Throughout the body
(B) From the heart to the lungs and back
(C) Through the heart in an organized pattern
(D) From the aorta to the rest of the heart

A

a

throughout the body

91
Q

Formed elements compose _______________ of the blood volume.
(A) About 9%
(B) About a quarter
(C) Just under a half
(D) Just over a half

A

c

just under a half

92
Q

Which type of blood cell is the most common among the formed elements?
(A) Neutrophils
(B) Monocytes
(C) Granulocytes
(D) Erythrocytes

A

d

erythrocytes

93
Q

B cells and T cells are varieties of
(A) Thrombocytes
(B) Megakaryocytes
(C) Lymphocytes
(D) Monocytes

A

c

lymphocytes

94
Q

Blood types are classified as
(A) A, B, C, and O
(B) O, X, and Y
(C) A, B, and AB
(D) A, B, AB, and O

A

d

A, B, AB, and O

95
Q

A person who has A positive blood has
(A) A antigens, anti-B antibodies, and Rh factor
(B) A antibodies, B antigens, and Rh factor
(C) B antigens, anti-A antibodies, and Rh factor
(D) A antigens, anti-B antibodies, and no Rh factor

A

A

A antigens, anti-B antibodies, and Rh factor

96
Q

Who is considered to be a universal blood donor?
(A) A person with type A, Rh positive blood
(B) A person with type AB, Rh negative blood
(C) A person with type AB, Rh positive blood
(D) A person with type O, Rh negative blood

A

D

A persons with type O, Rh negative blood

97
Q

What devices may be used to create a pulling force on venous blood during a blood draw?
(A) Collection tubes emptied of air or a syringe
(B) A siphon or a syringe
(C) Collection tubes emptied of air or a blood collection bowl
(D) Collection tubes emptied of air or a siphon

A

a

collection tubes emptied of air or a syringe.

98
Q

An enzyme called ____________ controls platelet response when a blood vessel is damaged.
(A) Fibrin
(B) Fibrinogen
(C) Plasmin
(D) Thrombin

A

d

thrombin

99
Q

As an injury heals, this process breaks down the clot that had been formed to stop bleeding:
(A) Hemostasis
(B) Intrinsic clotting
(C) Fibrinolysis
(D) Vasoconstriction

A

c

fibrinolysis

100
Q

When a blood specimen is allowed to clot in a collection tube and is then centrifuged, the resulting liquid portion is called
(A) Serum
(B) Fibrinogen
(C) Platelet fluid
(D) Plasma

A

a

serum

101
Q

A buffy coat is formed during the centrifugation of a specimen that has been
(A) Allowed to clot
(B) Treated with an anticoagulant
(C) Left to sit for more than two hours
(D) Cooled in an ice slurry

A

b

treated with an anticoagulant.

102
Q

Blood is tested for the presence of bacteria by performing a
(A) Blood culture
(B) Complete blood count
(C) Complete blood count with differential
(D) Coagulation study

A

a

blood culture

103
Q

Preanalytical errors take place
(A) Before the patient enters a laboratory for a blood draw
(B) Before testing is performed on a specimen
(C) During the testing process
(D) In the process of creating a treatment plan based on test results

A

b

before testing is performed on a specimen.

104
Q

A phlebotomy technician can cause preanalytical errors by
(A) Filling collection tubes in the wrong order
(B) Mixing specimens with tube additives immediately after a blood draw
(C) Labeling a specimen tube after collection
(D) Delivering a specimen for testing immediately after drawing it

A

a

filling collection tubes in the wrong order.

105
Q

Needles used for venipuncture are
(A) Hollow with an angled opening
(B) Solid with a pointed tip ordered
(C) Hollow with a blunt, rounded opening
(D) Available in hollow or solid models

A

a

hollow with an angled opening

106
Q

What equipment would be best to use when performing venipuncture on an elderly patient currently undergoing chemotherapy?
(A) A winged collection set and syringe with a 23-gauge needle
(B) A winged collection set and evacuated tubes with a 21-gauge needle
(C) A straight, 23-gauge multisample needle and evacuated tubes
(D) A straight, 21-gauge multisample needle and evacuated tubes

A

a

a winged collection set and syringe with a 23-gauge needle.

107
Q

Collection tubes for capillary puncture usually have a volume of
(A) 1.0–3.0 mL
(B) 0.125–0.6 mL
(C) 1.8–2.2 mL
(D) 0.25–1.0 mL

A

b

0.125-0.6ml

108
Q

The substances studied in blood tests are called
(A) Analytes
(B) Materials
(C) Factors
(D) Activators

A

a

analytes

109
Q

Which of the following may be present in a collection tube but in most cases does not change the qualities of the blood itself?
(A) Calcium-binding anticoagulants
(B) Thrombin-inhibiting anticoagulants
(C) Clot accelerators
(D) Separator gel

A

d

separator gel

110
Q

Glycolysis is prevented by the additive
(A) Sodium fluoride
(B) Potassium oxalate
(C) Sodium oxalate
(D) EDTA

A

a

sodium fluoride

111
Q

A red-topped tube is often used for _________ tests.
(A) Coagulation
(B) Serology
(C) Hematology
(D) Glucose

A

b

serology

112
Q

A patient has orders for a blood culture and coagulation studies. Which of these indicates the proper order for drawing these specimens?
(A) Yellow-topped SPS tube/blood culture bottles, light blue-topped tube
(B) Light blue-topped tube, yellow-topped SPS tube/blood culture bottles
(C) Yellow-topped ACD tube/blood culture bottles, light green-topped tube
(D) Yellow-topped SPS tube/blood culture bottles, lavender-topped tube

A

a

yellow-topped SPS tube/blood culture bottles, light blue-topped tube

113
Q

Where in the order of draw for capillary puncture specimens do EDTA tubes fall (including blood gas collection in the order)?
(A) First
(B) Second
(C) Third
(D) Fourth

A

b

second

114
Q

A patient has just received a medication intravenously. Her doctor has ordered that her peak medication level be checked. When is the doctor most likely to indicate blood should be drawn to check the level?
(A) In an hour
(B) In 30 minutes
(C) Right before she receives the next infusion
(D) Immediately

A

b

in 30 minutes.

115
Q

A large group of patients checks in first thing in the morning for routine blood tests. When the last patient in this group is seen by a phlebotomist at 8:30 a.m. she reports that she last ate at 5:00 p.m. the previous day. Which of the following is true?
(A) There is no concern that the length of the patient’s fast will affect any analytes.
(B) There is a chance that the length of the patient’s fast will affect some analytes.
(C) The patient should be sent home and asked to return the next day.
(D) The phlebotomist should tell the patient she should have eaten dinner later.

A

b

there is a chance that the length of the patient’s fast will affect some analytes.

116
Q

Which of the following might be used to confirm the identity of a patient who is unable to speak?
(A) A name tag on the patient’s door
(B) A family member at the patient’s bedside who states and spells his name
(C) A roommate who nods when asked if the patient’s name is the name on the requisition form
(D) A chart on the patient’s bedside tabl

A

b

a family member at the patients’ bedside who states and spell his name.

117
Q

One of these patients is more likely than the others to be misidentified. Which one?
(A) A patient named Tim Brown who has Alzheimer’s disease
(B) A patient named Andres Calderon who is fluent in Spanish and English
(C) A patient named Beatrice Seddon who has diabetes
(D) A pediatric patient named Natasha Disher whose father is accompanying her

A

a

a patient named Tim Brown who has Alzheimer’s disease.

118
Q

The best attitude a phlebotomist can adopt for a safe blood draw is
(A) “I’ve already done this hundreds of times. This patient won’t be any different.”
(B) “I know each patient is different so I will be ready for anything.”
(C) “I am going to expect trouble from every patient.”
(D) “The sooner I can finish this draw the sooner I won’t have to worry about things going wrong.”

A

b

“I know each patient is different so I will be ready for anything.”

119
Q

Jostling or rough handling of collection tubes
(A) Does not create any problems in specimens
(B) Ensures that specimens are mixed thoroughly with additives
(C) Can damage cells in a specimen
(D) Is sometimes allowable, depending on the test that will be performe

A

c

can damage cells in a specimen.

120
Q

Patients who indicate they have fainted during previous blood draws
(A) Should not have blood drawn again
(B) Should be placed on a reclined or flat surface for a blood draw
(C) Require that a physician be present during all blood draws
(D) Should sit on the edge of an exam table for a blood dra

A

b

should be placed on a reclined or flat surface for a blood draw.

121
Q

A foam wedge may be used
(A) As a means of restraining a pediatric patient in a chair
(B) As an aid to positioning a patient’s arm
(C) To cushion specimen tubes
(D) To stick needles into after use before they are discarded

A

b

as an aid to positioning a patient’s arm.

122
Q

LIS stands for
(A) Laboratory information system
(B) Laboratory infographic sign
(C) Lithium ion storage
(D) Laboratory input standards

A

a

Laboratory information system

123
Q

Most routine and diagnostic blood tests are performed
(A) On arterial blood
(B) On capillary blood
(C) On blood collected from an IV line
(D) On venous blood

A

d

on venous blood

124
Q

One blood specimen tube may be used
(A) To perform tests for a single analyte only
(B) To perform tests for more than one analyte
(C) To collect blood from multiple puncture sites
(D) To collect both venous and arterial blood together

A

b

to perform tests for more than one analyte.

125
Q

Which of these devices is sometimes used in place of a disposable nonlatex tourniquet?
(A) A blood pressure cuff
(B) The flexible tubing of a winged collection set
(C) A belt or necktie
(D) A large, wide rubber band

A

a

blood pressure cuff

126
Q

If a tourniquet has been left on beyond one minute, how long should it remain off of the patient’s arm before it is reapplied?
(A) 30 seconds
(B) 1 minute
(C) 2 minutes
(D) 5 minutes

A

c

2 minutes

127
Q

Which of these areas requires the written permission of the patient’s doctor for venipuncture?
(A) Antecubital fossa
(B) Ankle or foot
(C) Back of the hand
(D) Basilic vein

A

b

ankle or foot

128
Q

The most reliable way to locate a good site for venipuncture is to
(A) Palpate the site
(B) Look at the site
(C) Ask the patient where other phlebotomists have succeeded in drawing blood
(D) Choose a favorite site and use it for every patient

A

a

palpate the site.

129
Q

The vein considered the last choice for venipuncture in the antecubital fossa area is the
(A) Femoral vein
(B) Median antecubital vein
(C) Basilic vein
(D) Cephalic vein

A

c

basilic vein

130
Q

The most common antiseptic used to clean a site for routine venipuncture is
(A) 70% isopropyl alcohol
(B) Hydrogen peroxide
(C) Surgical soap and water
(D) Chlorhexidine gluconate

A

a

70% isopropyl alcohol

131
Q

Although different facilities might use different agents, all facilities will require ________________ for site cleaning prior to blood culture.
(A) Physician approval
(B) Extra contact time between the agent and the patient’s skin
(C) At least two different antiseptics
(D) Heavier friction

A

c

at least two different antiseptics.

132
Q

What is a blown vein?
(A) A vein that is scarred from previous venipuncture procedures
(B) A vein that has been blocked by a clot
(C) A vein that is currently receiving intravenous fluids
(D) A vein that a needle has passed completely through

A

d

a vein that a needle has passed completely through

133
Q

If a needle is inserted into a patient’s arm at a 45-degree angle
(A) It is guaranteed to strike a vein
(B) It is guaranteed to miss the veins
(C) It has a greater chance of hitting an artery or nerve than a needle inserted at a lower angle
(D) It will be less painful for the patient

A

c

it has a greater chance of hitting an artery or nerve than a needle inserted at a lower angle.

134
Q

What should a PBT always ask a patient before performing venipuncture?
(A) What the patient had for breakfast
(B) Whether the PBT should try the median cubital vein or the cephalic vein first
(C) Which PBT drew the patient’s blood most recently
(D) Whether the patient has ever had problems with a blood draw

A

d

whether the patient has ever had problems with a blood draw.

135
Q

At what point during a venipuncture procedure should tubes containing additives be inverted?
(A) Promptly after they are drawn
(B) After the phlebotomist has verified that the patient has stopped bleeding
(C) Just before the tubes are centrifuged
(D) After dismissing the patient

A

a

promptly after they are drawn.

136
Q

A __________________ tube is acceptable as a discard tube.
(A) Gray-topped
(B) Light blue-topped
(C) Lavender-topped
(D) Green-topped

A

b

light blue-topped

137
Q

A winged collection set is discarded
(A) Piece by piece
(B) As a single unit
(C) In a biohazard bag
(D) With radioactive waste

A

b

as a single unit.

138
Q

How is blood moved from the barrel of a syringe to collection tubes?
(A) Using a standard tube holder
(B) Using a safe transfer device
(C) By puncturing the stopper of the collection tube with the syringe needle
(D) By temporarily removing the stopper and pouring the blood in

A

b

using a safe transfer device

139
Q

What special preparation should be made when drawing blood from a patient whose behavior may be unpredictable or combative?
(A) The patient should be restrained
(B) A security guard should be present
(C) The drawing area should be cleared of all people other than the patient and the phlebotomist
(D) Equipment should be kept out of the patient’s reach

A

d

equipment should be kept out of the patient’s reach.

140
Q

If a patient has a seizure during a blood draw, what is the phlebotomist’s first priority?
(A) Keeping the patient safe from injury
(B) Placing something between the patient’s teeth
(C) Stopping the seizure
(D) Keeping the patient upright long enough to complete the draw

A

a

keeping the patient safe from injury.

141
Q

QNS stands for
(A) Quick nonsterile syringe
(B) Quantity not sufficient
(C) Quality not satisfactory
(D) Quantum non sequitur

A

b

quantity not sufficient

142
Q

Which of the following is true of collection tube expiration dates?
(A) Collection tubes do not have expiration dates.
(B) Expiration dates are not important if the tube does not seem to have lost vacuum.
(C) Expiration dates are only important for certain additives that can spoil; facility policy will clarify which can be used past the expiration date.
(D) Tubes should not be used past their expiration dates.

A

d

tubes should not be used past their expiration dates.

143
Q

This test is routinely performed on all pregnant women:
(A) Blood culture
(B) EtOH
(C) 3-hour glucose tolerance test
(D) Glucose challenge test

A

d

glucose challenge test

144
Q

When can a specimen be drawn for alcohol testing against a person’s wishes?
(A) When requested by a police officer in a state where having a driver’s license constitutes implied consent to testing
(B) Any time a police officer requests it
(C) When the person’s spouse provides consent
(D) Any time a person is visibly intoxicated

A

a

when requested by a police officer in a state where having a driver’s license constitutes implied consent to testing.

145
Q

What must happen before a serum specimen is centrifuged?
(A) The patient’s doctor must call to authorize it
(B) The PBT’s supervisor must approve it
(C) The specimen must be frozen
(D) The specimen must be allowed to clot

A

d

the specimen must be allowed to clot.

146
Q

Which of these methods is best for keeping a specimen chilled?
(A) Place it in an ice cube tray in the freezer
(B) Place it in a mixture of cubed ice and water
(C) Place it in a mixture of crushed ice and water
(D) Place it in a bag of ice cubes

A

c

place it in a mixture of crushed ice and water.

147
Q

Capillary collection will not yield a large enough specimen for which of these tests?
(A) Bilirubin
(B) Glucose
(C) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
(D) Blood gases

A

c

erythrocyte sedimentation rate

148
Q

Why is the index finger not used for capillary collection?
(A) Because the bone is too close to the skin
(B) Because it is too easy to strike an artery
(C) Because it is usually calloused
(D) Because it has fewer capillaries than other fingers

A

c

because it is usually calloused

149
Q

Where on the finger should capillary puncture be performed?
(A) At the very tip
(B) Toward the top of the finger, on the fleshy part to either side
(C) In the center of the fleshy pad
(D) On the joint just above the hand

A

b

toward the top of the finger, on the fleshy part to either side.

150
Q

What is the name of the infection that may be caused if a lancet strikes bone?
(A) Osteomyelitis
(B) Osteopathy
(C) Osteoporosis
(D) Osteonia

A

a

osteomyelitis

151
Q

Which of the following is true regarding lancet selection?
(A) It is best to use the highest-flow lancet available to ensure getting enough blood every time.
(B) Any lancet can be used on any patient.
(C) The best lancet to use is the smallest one that will produce adequate blood flow.
(D) It is best to start with the smallest lancet available and perform a second puncture if it does not produce enough flow.

A

c

the best lancet to use is the smallest one that will produce adequate blood flow.

152
Q

The first drop of blood from a finger stick should be wiped away
(A) For every test
(B) For most tests
(C) Only the patient’s blood is not flowing well
(D) Only if the patient’s blood is flowing quickly

A

b

for most tests

153
Q

If no blood gas tests are ordered, which type of tube is filled first for capillary collections?
(A) Serum tubes
(B) Heparin tubes
(C) EDTA tubes
(D) Tubes with no additives

A

c

EDTA tubes

154
Q

How long should a capillary puncture site be warmed?_______
(A) 30 seconds
(B) 1–2 minutes
(C) 3–5 minutes
(D) 10 minutes

A

c

3-5 minutes

155
Q

A blade-style lancet should be positioned to cut _____________________ to the patient’s fingerprints.
(A) Perpendicular
(B) Parallel
(C) At a 30-degree angle
(D) At a 45-degree angle

A

a

perpendicular

156
Q

Which of the following is true?
(A) Parents are never allowed to stay in the room while heel stick collections are performed on infants.
(B) Infants held by a parent during a heel stick collection may experience less pain.
(C) Infants tolerate heel stick procedures better if a parent is not present.
(D) Infants do not experience pain when heel stick procedures are performed.

A

b

infants held by a parent during a heel stick collection may experience less pain.

157
Q

Capillary collection is unlikely to be successful if the patient is
(A) Elderly
(B) Overweight
(C) Dehydrated
(D) A child

A

c

dehydrated

158
Q

To ensure a high-quality specimen, do not ________________ the collection device on the patient’s skin or _____________ the patient’s finger.
(A) Scrape, “milk”
(B) Place, gently squeeze
(C) Touch, touch
(D) Place, hold

A

a

scrape, “milk”

159
Q

Why is newborn metabolic screening performed?
(A) Because it is harder to collect blood from older children
(B) Because these illnesses can be treated successfully in infancy
(C) Because parents are unlikely to bring children back for the tests when they are older
(D) Because these illnesses do not occur later in life

A

b

because these illnesses can be treated successfully in infancy

160
Q

What common laboratory equipment can be used to create a peripheral blood smear?
(A) Butterfly assemblies and tube holders
(B) Two blood culture bottles
(C) Pipettes and serum filters
(D) Two microscope slides

A

d

two microscope slides.

161
Q

When should a PBT conducting point-ofcare PT/INR testing make recommendations regarding a patient’s warfarin dose?
(A) After checking the information on a reputable website
(B) After confirming it with a PBT colleague
(C) Only if the PBT has personal experience taking warfarin and monitoring PT/INR
(D) This is beyond the PBT’s scope of practice

A

d

this is beyond the PBT’s scope of practice.

162
Q

Which of the following is true of quality control checks on point-of-care testing devices?
(A) They are performed by nurses only.
(B) They may be performed daily or before each test.
(C) They are performed monthly.
(D) They are only necessary when the device is malfunctioning.

A

b

they may be performed daily or before each test.

163
Q

Which of these specimens is collected using a swab?
(A) Sputum
(B) Breath
(C) Buccal cells
(D) Urine

A

c

buccal cells

164
Q

A specimen drawn out by suction is said to be
(A) Vacuumed
(B) Irrigated
(C) Siphoned
(D) Aspirated

A

d

aspirated

165
Q

A random urine specimen is collected
(A) Any time
(B) After fasting
(C) Over a 24-hour period
(D) First thing in the morning

A

a

any time

166
Q

A very thin tube inserted into the bladder through the urethra is called a(n)
(A) Catheter
(B) Aspirant
(C) Irrigator
(D) Collection tube

A

a

catheter

167
Q

What must phlebotomy technicians always wear when handling urine specimens?
(A) Lab coats
(B) Masks
(C) Shoe covers
(D) Gloves

A

d

gloves

168
Q

For which of the following types of urine specimen is cleaning of the genital area required?
(A) Clean-catch
(B) Suprapubic
(C) 24-hour
(D) Routine

A

a

clean-catch

169
Q

Which of the following is a typical instruction to a patient collecting a 24-hour urine specimen?
(A) On the first morning of the collection, save the first void urine and place it in the specimen collection container.
(B) Urinate directly into the large specimen container.
(C) Save all toilet paper used in the urine specimen container along with the urine.
(D) Note the time of the first void during the 24-hour period, and discard the first voided urine.

A

d

note the time of the first void during the 24-hour period, and discard the first voided urine.

170
Q

Stool samples may be tested for hidden blood to screen for
(A) Diabetes
(B) Colon cancer
(C) Allergies
(D) Parasites

A

b

colon cancer

171
Q

Some swabs used to collect specimens may have a liquid-filled ________________ that must be crushed to release a fluid that preserves the specimen.
(A) Ampule
(B) Bulb
(C) Chamber
(D) Pouch

A

a

ampule

172
Q

What patient population is most likely to become ill with strep throat?
(A) Geriatric patients
(B) Middle-aged patients
(C) Newborn infants
(D) Pediatric patients

A

d

pediatric patients

173
Q

What is the primary reason semen specimens should not be collected in a condom?
(A) The specimen would be difficult to transport.
(B) The condom might break and the specimen would be lost.
(C) Spermicides and/or lubricants would destroy the specimen.
(D) It would be difficult to remove the specimen for testing.

A

c

spermicides and/or lubricants would destroy the specimen.

174
Q

Specific gravity measures the _____________________ of urine.
(A) Temperature
(B) Concentration
(C) Acidity
(D) Bacterial content

A

b

concentration