Final Review Flashcards

1
Q

TorF: viruses can only replicate in the nucleus

A

false, can also replicate in cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

During the lytic cycle, ribosomes are responsible for

A

translating viral info into proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

a _____ initiates the continuation of the lytic cycle by exiting the bacterial chromosome

A

prophage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The ____ immune response has a quicker response than ___

A

innate quicker than adaptive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Goblet cells are part of ____ immunity and produce

A

innate
mucus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Neutrophils ___ while macrophages ____

A

trap, engulf

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Natural killer cells are part of the ___ immune system and

A

innate

circulate through the body and
detect the abnormal surface proteins found on some
virus-infected and cancerous
cells. Natural killer cells do not
engulf stricken cells. Instead,
they release chemicals that lead
to cell death, inhibiting spread
of the virus or cancer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The local inflammatory response begins when

A

activated macrophages discharge cytokines, signaling molecules that recruit neutrophils to the site of injury or infection. In addition,
mast cells release histamine at sites
of damage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When histamine is released by mast cells during the local inflammatory response, it

A

triggers nearby blood vessels to dilate and become more permeable, resulting in redness and increased skin temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe the middle of the local inflammatory response.
Activated complement proteins..
Enhanced blood flow to the site….
resulting in…

A

cycles of signaling and response continue inflammation.

Activated complement proteins promote further histamine release, attracting more phagocytic cells to
the site of injury and infection

enhanced blood flow to the site helps deliver antimicrobial peptides

accumulation of pus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A given lymphocyte will contain ___ type of antigen receptor

A

one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

An epitope is

A

an accessible portion of an antigen that binds to a lymphocyte’s antigen receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The MHC molecule can best be defined as

A

The host protein that displays
the antigen fragment on the cell surface for a T cell receptor to bind to
basically T cells need someone to present to them, B cells can bind to fragments or epitopes of antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Compare B cell effector cells to T cell effector forms

A

B cell: plasma cells which secrete antibodies
T cell: helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Compare the humoral immune response and cell-mediated immune response, both of which are part of ___ immunity

A

adaptive
The humoral immune response pro-
tects the blood and lymph through antibodies which help neutralize or eliminate toxins and pathogens in body fluids.

In the cell-mediated
immune response, specialized T cells destroy infected host
cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Like immune cells, infected cells can display foreign
antigens on their surface. What then distinguishes antigen-
presenting cells from infected cells?

A

Most body cells
have only the class I MHC molecules, but antigen-presenting
cells have both class I and class II MHC molecules. The class
II molecules provide a molecular signature by which an
antigen-presenting cell is recognized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

To become active, cytotoxic T cells require

A

signals from helper T cells and interaction with an antigen-presenting cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

CD8 cells are responsible for ___
while CD4 cells are responsible for___

A

CD8 checks for infection in nucleated cells presented by MHC 1 complexes

CD4 is presented with phagocytosed pathogens from APCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Compare MHC1 to MHC2

A

MHC I - a complex that is present on the surface of ALL nucleated cells in mammals. Nucleated cells are required to present samples of the proteins they are producing in their MHC I complexes. This presentation allows our cells to be checked for infection by CD8 T cells.

● MHC II - a complex that is only present on phagocytic cells, which are also referred to as APCs or “professional antigen
presenting cells”. APCʼs travel throughout the lymphatic system presenting samples of the
pathogens they have phagocytosed to CD4 T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

There is a high Ca2+ contant in

A

ECM, mitochondria, and ER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Polypeptides are ___ soluble, Steroids are ____ soluble, amines are ___

A

polypeptides are water soluble
steroids are lipid soluble
amines are both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Tropic hormones affect… and non tropic affect ….

A

tropic: affect endocrine glands
non tropic: non endocrine glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

As blood Ca2+ falls, the Parathyroid gland…

A

releases PTH, which stimulates calcium reuptake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

MSH is released by the ____ pituitary and responsible for

A

anterior pituitary
hunger, metabolism, color

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

MPF is made up of ___ and _____

A

cyclin and CDK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When does cyclin concentration increase?

A

before each checkpoint so it can form MPF with CDK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

vEGF is responsible for

A

allows endothelial cells to grow, angiogenic protein

28
Q

Tumor suppressor genes experience ___ of function after _____ mutations

A

loss of function
two

29
Q

proto oncogenes experience ___ of function after ___ mutations

A

gain of function
one`

30
Q

The partial pressure of oxygen in water is ___ than in blood, allowing for

A

higher
diffusion

31
Q

The order of the respiratory structures is

A

nasal cavity–> pharynx –> larynx –> trachea –> bronchus –> bronchiole —> alveoli

32
Q

Explain the importance of surfactant in alveoli

A

allows H bonds to be disrupted while alveolus remains inflated

33
Q

Mammals use ___ pressure breathing

A

negative

34
Q

On inspiration, the diaphragm moves ___ and respiratory muscles ___, causing air to rush into the airways.

A

down
contract

35
Q

As pressure gets negative, the diaphragm moves ____

A

down

36
Q

Lung volume decreases as pressure becomes less ____

A

negative

37
Q

Explain the Bohr effect

A

The affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen depends on the partial pressure of oxygen
In alveoli, partial pressure of oxygen is high, so hemoglobin has a high affinity
Partial pressure decreases as its further from lungs
If hemoglobin passes through active tissue, it has less affinity so even more oxygen molecules unload
This also increases the partial pressure of CO2 (causes affinity of hemoglobin to decrease)

38
Q

Tidal volume is…

A

the volume of air in/exhaled with each breath

39
Q

Vital capacity is…

A

the tidal volume during maximum in/exhalation

40
Q

ADH is produced by the ___ pituitary in response to _____

A

posterior
increase in osmolarity

41
Q

RAAS is ___ to ADH.

A

antagonistic

42
Q

When the ____ gland releases aldosterone, arterioles ___ and BP ____

A

adrenal
constrict, rises

43
Q

RAAS stimulates ___ re absorption, while ADH stimulates ____ re absorption

A

Na+
H2O

44
Q

NaCl is ___ in the thick portion of the ascending loof of Henle, compared to the thin where it is

A

actively transported in the thick
diffused in the thin

45
Q

Describe the process of Oogensis

A
  1. oogonia arise from germ cells
  2. divide via mitosis to form cells that begin meiosis, but STOP at prophase I before birth
  3. oocytes reside in follicle
46
Q

Describe process of spermatogenesis

A
  1. stem cells outside semiferous tubules
  2. sperm released into lumen
  3. sperm become mobile in epididymis
47
Q

At the beginning of the ovarian cycle, FSH and LH make

A

estradiol

48
Q

FSH and LH are produced by the ___ pituitary, which is stimulated by ____ hormone from the ____ during the beginning of the ovarian phase

A

anterior
GnRH
Hypothalamus

49
Q

During the ovarian follicular phase…

A

estradiol signals for the endometrium to thicken

50
Q

During the uterine proliferative phase…

A

uterus is stimulated to prepare for support of embryo

51
Q

During the luteal ovarian phase, LH….

A

stimulates progesterone to stimulate the follicular tissue to form corpus lutuem

52
Q

The corpus luteum is ….
it is composed of….
It degrades…

A

a temporary collection of cells that forms on your ovary each menstrual cycle if you’re still getting a menstrual period
composed of follicular cells
degrades about ten days after ovulation

53
Q

in pregnancy, hCG

A

stimulates the corpus luteum to make progesterone during the first trimester

54
Q

During depolarization, there is a flow of Na+ ___ the neuron

A

into

55
Q

During repolarization, there is a ___ of Na+ channels and an ___ of K+

A

closure
opening

56
Q

During hyperpolarization, voltage gated K+ ___ after potential is reset

A

open

57
Q

Describe the hormone cascade pathway

A

T3 and T4 decrease
Hypothalamus detects change
Secretes TRH
AP secretes TSH
TSH secretes T3 and T4
Increase in metabolic rate

58
Q

The hypothalamus regulates the ___ pituitary

A

anterior

59
Q

Viviparous animals undergo _____ fertilization and embryo develops ____ the mother

A

internal
inside

60
Q

Ovoviviparous animals develop ____ that remain in the mothers body until they are ready to hatch

A

eggs

61
Q

Oviparous animals lay ___

A

eggs

62
Q

Net filtration pressure is calculated by

A

glomural blood - (capsular + blood colloid)

63
Q

Net filtration pressure can be defined as

A

pressure of fluid across glomurelus

64
Q

Astrocytes are

A

a type of glial cells the make up majority of CNS`

65
Q

How do oligodendrocytes differ from astrocytes

A

used for myelin synthesis