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Test 2 > Chapter 9 > Flashcards

Chapter 9 Flashcards

0
Q

What are typical bacteria’s doubling time?

A

~20 minutes

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1
Q

What about bacteria allows for easy mutant detection?

A

One chromosome (haploid)

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2
Q

What is another name for bacteria that are nutritional mutants?

A

Auxotrophs

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3
Q

What term is used to describe the process of spontaneous mutations that correct a metabolic abnormality back to the wild-type form?

A

Reversion

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4
Q

What process leads to an underestimate of mutation rates of a chemical on bacteria?

A

Reversion

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5
Q

How were the complications of reversion when studying reversions avoided? What was utilized?

A

Double and Triple Auxotroph mutants

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6
Q

What term represents the single chromosome and plasmid (in any) in bacteria?

A

Replicon

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7
Q

What part of a bacterial genome is closely regulated to allow for only a certain number of?

A

Plasmid copies

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8
Q

What other type of DNA may be present in bacteria outside of the replicon?

A

Bacteriophage DNA

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9
Q

What term describes the number of plasmids that each cell controls for?

A

Copy number

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10
Q

What characteristic of plasmid replication may result in one plasmid not being passed on to the daughter cell?

A

Randomized replication

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11
Q

What is given a three-letter abbreviation in italics followed by a capital letter?

A

Gene

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12
Q

What is given a three letter code but with the first letter capitalized and no italics?

A

Protein

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13
Q

What are type types of detection techniques of mutants?

A

Selection, Screening

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14
Q

What type of detection uses a growth medium to inhibit growth of microbes which lack the desired gene(s)?

A

Phenotypic Selection

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15
Q

What type of detection uses replica plates?

A

Phenotypic Screening

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16
Q

What type of detection uses one media with full nutritional support and another lacking a particular nutrient?

A

Phenotypic Screening

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17
Q

What is used as the transfer device in replica plating technique?

A

Sterile Velveteen

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18
Q

What technique for screening involves sequentially transferring colonies on a gridded plate containing media?

A

Patching technique

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19
Q

Who showed that mutations were beneficial to E. coli?

A

Richard Lenski

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20
Q

What did Richard Lenski call cultures grown without selective pressure?

A

Evolved cultures

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21
Q

What did Richard Lenski call the original cultures that had not been cultured?

A

Ancestral cultures

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22
Q

What two characteristics were increased in Evolved cultures as compared to Ancestral cultures?

A

Survivability, Cell Size

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23
Q

Who used replica plating to show that spontaneous mutation could occur without selective pressure?

A

Esther Lederberg

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24
Q

Which two people showed variable resistance to phage infection arises in bacteria without selective pressure?

A

Luria, Delbruck

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25
Q

What bacteria does an Ames test use?

A

Salmonella typhimurium

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26
Q

What is Salmonella typhimurium auxotrophic for?

A

Histidine production

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27
Q

What type(s) of mutants will arise in an Ames test in the absence of a potential mutagen?

A

Spontaneous

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28
Q

What type(s) of mutants will arise in an Ames test in the presence of a potential mutagen?

A

Spontaneous, Induced

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29
Q

What is employed to isolate the desired segment of DNA from the rest of the DNA in cloning?

A

Restriction Enzymes (RE)

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30
Q

What cuts dsDNA at specific locations in DNA cloning?

A

Restriction Enzymes (RE)

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31
Q

What seals together similar ends of cut dsDNA in DNA cloning to make recombinant DNA?

A

DNA ligase

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32
Q

What term describes a cleavage result with two overhangs in DNA cloning?

A

“Sticky”

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33
Q

What term describes a cleavage result with no overhangs in DNA cloning?

A

“Blunt”

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34
Q

What are used to insert a recombinant DNA molecule into a recipient host bacterial cell in DNA cloning?

A

Cloning Vectors

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35
Q

What are three types of cloning vectors?

A

Plasmids, Phages, Cosmids

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36
Q

What type of cloning vector is made of extrachromosomal circular dsDNA?

A

Plasmids

37
Q

What type of cloning vectors use a bacterial virus with dsDNA lacking some viral replication genes?

A

Phages

38
Q

What type of cloning vectors use a plasmid with a Lambda phage DNA in addition to the plasmid DNA sequence?

A

Cosmids

39
Q

Who recombined two plasmids each carrying a different antibiotic resistance gene to a single plasmid?

A

Stanley Cohen

40
Q

What type of plasmids expand the range of host cell types the plasmids can be inserted into?

A

Shuttle-vector plasmids

41
Q

What type of cloning vectors mix viral DNA with fragments of interest?

A

Phage vectors

42
Q

What type of cloning vectors are phage genomes that omit nearly all of the phage DNA?

A

Cosmids

43
Q

What term means incorporation of foreign DNA into the cell’s chromosome?

A

Recombination

44
Q

What type of recombination occurs when two (nearly) identical fragments of DNA line up and exchange pieces?

A

Homologous Recombination

45
Q

What type of homologous recombination involves the single crossover of two circular molecules?

A

Integration

46
Q

What type of homologous recombination involves the double crossover of two circular molecules?

A

DNA swap

47
Q

What type of homologous recombination involves the double crossover of circular and linear molecules?

A

Integration

48
Q

How many copies of a gene does homologous recombination require?

A

2 Copies

49
Q

After which process does homologous recombination take place in bacteria?

A

Chromosome replication

50
Q

Before which process does homologous recombination take place in bacteria?

A

Binary fission

51
Q

What type of recombination occurs between DNA pieces with little to no similarity?

A

Non-homologous recombination

52
Q

What type of DNA Recombination is especially common in viruses and transposable elements?

A

Non-homologous recombination

53
Q

What type of non-homologous recombination involves inserting a genome at particular points in the host cell DNA sequence?

A

Site-specific recombination

54
Q

What type of recombination can result in gene knockouts?

A

Non-homologous recombination

55
Q

What type of DNA transfer involves the introduction of extracellular DNA directly into a cell?

A

Transformation

56
Q

What type of DNA transfer does not require cell-to-cell contact because free DNA is taken up from the cell’s environment?

A

Transformation

57
Q

What term describes the ability to take up DNA?

A

Competency

58
Q

What must bacteria have to be naturally competent?

A

Permease

59
Q

What type of things can be used to make bacteria artificially induced to become temporarily competent?

A

Calcium cations, Electric pulse

60
Q

Where is the permease for transformation located in bacteria?

A

Cytoplasmic membrane

61
Q

Where are the receptor proteins in transformation located in bacteria?

A

Cell wall

62
Q

What type of DNA transfer uses the transfer of DNA from cell to cell via direct contact via a sex pilus?

A

Conjugation

63
Q

What type of DNA transfer allows for plasmids or sections of plasmids to be transferred?

A

Conjugation

64
Q

What is an example of a plasmid that can be transferred via conjugation?

A

Fertility (F) Plasmid

65
Q

What type of genes encode the proteins associated with the sex pilus?

A

tra genes

66
Q

What is the name for the mechanism used to copy plasmid DNA in conjugation?

A

Rolling Circle Replication

67
Q

What allows for plasmid integration into host chromosome in conjugation?

A

IS markers

68
Q

What type of plasmid is associated with IS markers?

A

Hfr plasmid

69
Q

What type of conjugation mechanism involves an F+ donor and F- recipient?

A

Fertility (F) Plasmid Conjugation Mechanism

70
Q

Where is single-strand nick made during F+ by F- conjugation?

A

oriT

71
Q

What two types of cells does integrated F Plasmid Conjugation occur between?

A

Hfr donor, F- recipient

72
Q

What type of cell is able to transfer DNA genetic information?

A

Hfr cell

73
Q

What is an F- cell after Hfr conjugation?

A

F- cell

74
Q

What is created when an F plasmid de-integrates from the chromosome?

A

F’

75
Q

What is an F- cell after conjugation with F’?

A

F’

76
Q

What term describes the movement of DNA via mobile genetic elements?

A

Transposition

77
Q

Who was the first to discover transposition through corn?

A

Barbara McClintock

78
Q

What are two basic forms of the elements that can be involved in transposition?

A

Insertion sequences, Transposons

79
Q

What is the name for simple transposable elements that encode only the proteins needed for transposition?

A

Insertion sequences

80
Q

What is the term for transposable elements that contain other genes in addition to those needed for transposition?

A

Transposons

81
Q

What are two examples of insertion sequences?

A

Transposase, Resolvase

82
Q

What type of transposition copies the element and moves the copy to another location?

A

Replicative transposition

83
Q

What type of transposition cuts and pastes the element into a new location?

A

Non-replicative transposition

84
Q

What is the term for pallindromic sequences which help serve as insertion point markers?

A

Inverted Repeats (IR)

85
Q

What enzyme performs single-strand cleavage of a transposon end sequence and target DNA sequences?

A

Transposase

86
Q

What enzyme helps separate joined DNA molecules in replicative transposition?

A

Resolvase

87
Q

What type of DNA transfer is mediated by a virus?

A

Transduction

88
Q

What is the name for a virus that is unable to replicate and delivers a bacterial DNA fragment instead of viral DNA?

A

Transducing phage

89
Q

What type of transduction involves the integration and de-integration of a virus in a bacterial host’s DNA and takes part of host chromosome and leaves some viral chromosome behind?

A

Specialized transduction

90
Q

What process is required for a defective phage to deliver new DNA into a host cell’s chromosome?

A

Homologous recombination

Test 2 (3 decks)

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